WBCHSE Class 11 Chemistry Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Questions And Answers And Multiple Choice Questions

Class 11 Chemistry Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Long Question And Answers

Question 1. Depict the bonding in the following compounds In terms of atomic orbitals involved and predict all the bond angles:

  1. CD3CH=CH2
  2. CH3OCH3

Answer:

1. The 3 carbon atoms are sp³ , sp² and sp² -hybridised respectively. Therefore the bond angles about these carbons are 109.5°, 120° and 120° respectively corresponding to tetrahedral and trigonal planar geometries.

2. The carbon and oxygen atoms are all sp³ -hybridized. So, the bond angles are nearly 109.5° corresponding to tetrahedral geometry.

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Tetrahedral Geometry

Class 11 Organic Chemistry

Question 2. Mention the number of primary (1°), secondary (2°) and tertiary (3°) hydrogen atoms in the following

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Hydrogen Atoms

Answer:

Hydrogen Atoms Given in the table:

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Hydrogen Atoms Answer

Question 3. How many alkyl groups can be derived from the alkane, (CH3)2 CHCH2 CH(CH3)2 and why? Write their IUPAC names
Answer:

Since this hydrocarbon molecule contains 3 types of nonequivalent hydrogen atoms, the removal of these hydrogen atoms gives 3 different alkyl groups.

These are as follows:

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Obtained The Removal Of A 3H And 2H

WBCHSE Class 11 Chemistry Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Questions And Answers And Multiple Choice Questions

Question 4. Write the IUPAC names of the following compounds

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Write The IUPAC Names Of The Compounds

Class 11 Organic Chemistry

Answer:

  1. 3-ethyl-4-methylhept-5-en-2-one
  2. 3,3,5-trlmethylhex-1 -en-2-ol.
  3. l-bromo-4-metlvylheptan-3-on«.
  4. l-etliyl-4-methylcyclohexane.
  5. Cyclohexylcyclohexnne.
  6. 1,3-dlcyclopropylpropanc.
  7. 2-metliyl-2-cyclopropylpropnne.
  8. N -ethyl- N -methylpropan-2-nmine.
  9. 4-hydroxy-4-methylpontan-2-one.
  10. 3-methylpent-l-ene.

Question 5. Arrange the given carbocations In order to increase stability and explain two-order

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Arrange The Carbocations In Order

Answer:

The order of increasing stability of these carbocation Is :

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Arrange The Carbocations In Order Answers

Being an aromatic one [(4 n + 2)n -electron system, where n = 1], the carbocation (I) is the most stable. The carbocation (II) is effectively resonance stabilized. So, its stability is greater than that of (ill) and (IV) (which are not resonance-stabilized) but less than that of (I).

The carbocation (III) is stabilized by +1 and the hyperconjugation effect of the methyl group and its stability is less than (II). The carbocation (IV) is destabilized by the stronger -I effect of the — CF3 group, so it is the least stable one.

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Least Stable

Class 11 Organic Chemistry

Question 6. Terf-Butyl chloride (Me3CCl) does not participate in D+ SN2 reaction—explain with reasons
Answer:.

Due to severe steric hindrance caused by three methyl groups, the backside attack on the central carbon by the nucleophile becomes completely inhibited and it is for this reason, that terf-butyl chloride does not participate in the SN2 reaction

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques SN2 Reaction

Question 7. Write the resonance structures of CH2=CH —CHO and compare their stabilities.
Answer:

The compound is a resonance hybrid of three structures:

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Resonance Hybrid Of Three Structures

The stability order of these structures is: I > II > III.

The uncharged structure (I) is the most stable one. The charged structure (II) is moderately stable because the more electronegative oxygen atom bears the negative charge and the less electronegative carbon atom bears the positive charge.

Also, the octet of carbon is not filled up. The charged structure (III) is the least stable because the more electronegative O-atom bears the positive charge and the less electronegative C-atom bears the negative charge. Also, the octet of the O-atom is not filled up

Class 11 Physics Class 12 Maths Class 11 Chemistry
NEET Foundation Class 12 Physics NEET Physics

 

Question 8. Which is more stable and why: (CH3)3C, (CD3)3C
Answer:

Since D is more electron-releasing than H, — CD3 is more electron-releasing than — CH3. So, (CD3)3C+ is expected to be more stable than (CH3)3C+. But actually, the is true and this can be explained in terms of hyperconjugation. Since the C—H bond is weaker than the C— D bond the hyper conjugative stability of (CH3)3C+ is greater than thatof (CD3)3C+

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Hyperconjugation Less Or More Effective

Class 11 Organic Chemistry

Question 9.

  1. How many stereoisomers of formula, CH3 would be possible if methane was a pyramid with a rectangular base? Draw them.
  2. How many stereoisomers of formula, CH2YZ would be possible if methane was a pyramid with a square base? Draw them.
  3. What is the relationship (diastereoisomers, enantiomers, conformational isomers, homomers i.e., identical structures or constitutional isomers) between the members of given pairs of structures?

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Pair Of Structures

Answer:

1. Two stereoisomers Mirror (enantiomers) are Q possible if methane H / was a pyramid with a rectangular base.

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Stereoisomers Of Mirror And Enantiomers

2. Three stereoisomers (I, II, and III) are possible if methane was a pyramid with a square base. (I and II) are enantiomers. (I and III) and (II and III) are two pairs of diastereoisomers.

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Diastereoisomers Mirror And Enantiomers

Class 11 Organic Chemistry

3.

  1. . Diastereoisomers
  2. Homomers
  3. Geo¬ metrical isomers
  4. Constitutional isomers
  5. Conformational isomers
  6. Enantiomers.

Question 10. Although Quorine is more electronegative than iQfi chlorine, fluorobenzene has a lower dipole moment (p = 1.63D ) than chlorobenzene (μ = 1.75D ).
Ans.

Both fluorine in fluorobenzene and chlorine in structure) chlorobenzene withdraws electrons from the ring by -I effect and donate electrons to the ring by the + R effect. Because of the smaller size of fluorine, the +R effect involving orbitals of similar sizes (2p of both F and C) is much stronger. So, the moment due to the stronger -I effect of fluorine is considerably neutralized by the moment due to +R effect.

Hence, fluorobenzene possesses a net dipole moment which is relatively low (1.63D). On the other hand, because of the larger size of chlorine, the + R effect involving orbitals of dissimilar sizes (3p of Cl and 2p of C) is much weaker than the -I effect which is somewhat lower due to lower electronegativity of chlorine. So, the moment due to +R effect is much smaller than the moment due to -I effect. Hence, chlorobenzene possesses a relatively high net dipole moment (1.75D

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Chlorobenzene And Fluorobenzene

Class 11 Organic Chemistry

Question 11. The negatively charged carbon atom in the structure

  1. Is sp² -hybridized while the negatively charged carbon atom in
  2. Is sp³ -hybridised —Explain.

Answer:

The negatively charged carbon atom of a resonance-stabilized carbanion is sp² -hybridized. The carbanion (I) is resonance stabilized. So the negative carbon atom Is sp².
hybridized

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Sp2 And Sp3 Hybridised

On the other hand, the carbanion (II) Is not resonance stabilized because a double bond cannot be formed at the bridgehead position of small bicycle systems (Hrodt’s rule). Hence, the negatively charged carbon of the carbanion (II) is sp³ -hybridized

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Carbon Of The Carbanion Is Sp3 Hybridised

Question 12. Mention the state of hybridisation of the starred (*) carbon atoms in each of the following compounds.

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Hybridisation Of The Starred

Answer:

  1. sp²
  2. sp
  3. sp²
  4. sp
  5. sp
  6. sp³

Question 13. How many σ and π -bonds are present in each of the following molecules?

1. CH3-C≡-CH= CH2

2. CH2=CH-CH=C=CHCH3 

3. 

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Sigma And Pie Bonds Presents

Answer:

  1. σ -bonds =10, π -bonds =3
  2. σ -bonds = 13 , π -bonds = 3
  3. σ -bonds =10, π -bonds = 3

Class 11 Organic Chemistry

Question 14.  Which atoms in each of the following molecules remain in the same plane and why?

  1.  CH3CH= CH3
  2.  C6H5C≡ CCH3
  3. CH3CH=C=C=CHCH3
  4. CH3COCH2CH3

Answer:

sp²-carbon atoms and the atoms attached to them lie in one plane.

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Carbon Atom Attached To Them Lie

sp² -carbon atoms and the atoms attached to them lie in one plane. Also, sp carbon atoms & the atoms attached to them lie not only in one plane but also in one line.

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Carbon Atom Attached To Them .

Lie in one plane

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Formic And Acetic Acid

Lie in one plane

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Formic And Acetic Acid.

Question 15. Mention the number of primary (1°), secondary (2°), tertiary (3°), and quaternary (4°) C -atoms present in the given molecules: °
Answer:

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Mention The Number Molecues

Answer:

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Number Of Molecule Atoms

Question 16. Write down the IUPAC name of a hydrocarbon having a 4° C-atom with molecular formula, C6H14 . How many monochrome derivatives of this hydrocarbon is possible? Write their structures
Answer:

The hydrocarbon corresponding to the molecularformula C6H14 and containing one tertiary carbon atom is CH3C(CH3)2CH2CH3 (C-2 is a quaternary carbon atom). Its IUPAC name is 2,2-dimethylbutane.

Since the alkane contains three types of non-equivalent hydrogen atoms, three monobromo derivatives of the alkane are possible. These are: (CH3)3CCHBrCH3 and (CH3)3CCH2CH2Br

Question 17. Racemic tartaric acid and meso-tartaric add are both optically inactive—why?
Answer:

Racemic tartaric add is an equimolar mixture of (+) and (-)-tartaric adds. In racemic tartaric add, therefore, the rotatory power of (+) enantiomer is neutralised by the rotatory power of the (-) enantiomer (external compensation) and for this reason, the racemic tartaric add is optically inactive.

On the other hand, the meso-tartaric add is optically inactive because it has a plane of symmetry and it is superimposable on its mirror image. In fact, in this case, the optical rotation of one half of the molecule is exactly canceled by the optical rotation of the other half (internal compensation).

Class 11 Organic Chemistry

Question 18. How many isomers of butene are possible? What type 1 of isomerism do they exhibit?
Ans.

Three structural isomers of butene are possible: CH3CH2CH=CH2 (But-l-ene), CH3CH=CHCH3 (But-2- ene), and (CH3)2C=CH2 (2-methylpropene). Again, but-2- ene exists as two geometrical isomers (diastereoisomers):

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Two Geometrical Isomers

Hence, there are in total 4 isomers of butene: but-1-ene,  cis but-2-ene, irans-but-2-ene, 2-methylpropene

Question 19. Give examples of

  1. An optically inactive compound containing an asymmetric carbon atom
  2. An optically active compound containing no asymmetric carbon.

Answer:

1. Meso-tartaric acid containing two asymmetric carbon atoms is optically inactive because it has a plane of symmetry, l.e., tire molecule is superimposable on its mirror Image

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Meso Tartaric Acid

2. Penta-2,3-diene (an abC=C=Cab type of allene) is optically active because it is not superimposable on its mirror image.

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Penta 2 And 3 Diene

Question 20. Name a compound having two similar asymmetric carbon atoms and give its structure. What type of isomerism docs it exhibit? Draw Fischer projection formulas of these isomers and comment on their optical activity. How are they related to each other?
Answer:

Tartaric acid has two similar asymmetric carbon atoms (HOOC — *CHOH —*CHOH —COOH). The compound exhibits optical isomerism.

Fisher projection formulas of its isomers are as follows:

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Fisher Projection Formula

Class 11 Organic Chemistry

The relations among the isomers are as follows: I and II are enantiomers; I and III are diastereoisomers and II and III are diastereoisomers

Question 21.

  1. Give the structure and IUPAC name of an optically active alkane having the lowest molecular mass. Is there another alkane of the same molecular mass that is also optically active?
  2. Give an example of a compound that exhibits both optical & geometrical isomerism

Answer:

Such a compound must contain an asymmetric carbon atom which will remain attached to a H-atom and three different alkyl groups (smaller size).

So, the optically active alkane having the lowest molecular mass’ is, 3-methylhexane [CH3CH*CH(CH3)CH2CH2CH3 ]. Another optically active alkane with the same molecular mass is 2,3-dimethyl pentane [CH3*CH2CH(CH3)CH(CH3)2] which is a chain isomer of the first one.

Pent-3-en-2-oI [CH3*CH(OH)CH=CHCH3] exhibits both geometrical and optical isomerism because the compound contains an asymmetric carbon atom and each of the doubly bonded carbon atoms is attached to two different groups.

Question 22. The following two isomers may be called diastereoisomers but not enantiomers —why? Explain why these are optically inactive

Answer:

The given pair of isomers have the same structure but different configurations. They are neither superimposable nor bear mirror image relationships with each other. So they are related to each other as a pair of diastereoisomers and not as enantiomers. Each of these two isomers has a plane of symmetry, i.e., each of them is superimposable on its mirror image and so, these are optically inactive.

Question 23. p nitrophenol is more acidic than phenol.
Answer:

In p-nitrophenol, the electron-attracting — NO2 group by its stronger -R effect and relatively weaker -I effect makes the oxygen atom relatively more positively polarised compared to the oxygen atom of phenol. As a result, the O — H bond in nitrophenol dissociates more easily to give H+ ions. For this reason, p-nitrophenol is more acidic than phenol

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Low And High Charge Density

Class 11 Organic Chemistry
Answer:

In p-nitroaniiine, the electron-attracting — NO2 group by its stronger -R effect and relatively weaker -I effect makes the nitrogen atom of the — NH2 group relatively more positive compared to the nitrogen atom of aniline. As a result, the availability of the unshared pair of electrons on nitrogen atom in p-nitroaniline is highly reduced as compared to the unshared electron pair on nitrogen in aniline. For this reason, p-nitroaniline behaves as a weaker base compared to aniline.

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Aniline And P Nitroaniline

Question 24. Dipole moment of vinyl chloride CH2=CHCI) is less than the dipole moment of ethyl chloride (CH3CH2Cl) —explain.
Answer:

In vinyl chloride, the moment caused by the -I effect of Cl-atom (μσ) is partially neutralized by the moment caused by its +R effect (pn). As a result, the value of net moment of vinyl chloride decreases and it is lower than that of ethyl chloride in which only the stronger -I effect of chlorine operates.

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques chlorine Operates

Question 25. Arrange the following ions in order of increasing basicity and explain the order

  1. CH3 CH(I)
  2. CH ≡C(II)
  3. CH2 =CH(III)

Answer:

The order  of increasing basicity of the given ions is:

⇒ \(\mathrm{CH} \equiv \stackrel{\ominus}{\mathrm{C}}(\mathrm{II})<\mathrm{CH}_2=\stackrel{\ominus}{\mathrm{C}} \mathrm{H}(\mathrm{III})<\mathrm{CH}_3 \stackrel{\ominus}{\mathrm{C}} \mathrm{H}_2(\mathrm{I})\)

C -atoms bearing the negative charge in carbanions (I), (II) & (III) are sp³, sp and sp² -hybridized respectively. Percentages of s -character of these three hybrid orbitals are 25%, 50% and 33% respectively.

As the s -character of hybrid orbital increases, C -atoms bearing the negative charge in carbanions (I), (II) & (III) are sp³, sp and sp² -hybridized respectively. Percentages of s -character of these three hybrid orbitals are 25%, 50% and 33% respectively. As the s -character of hybrid orbital increases,

Question 26. Give example:

  1. A non-nucleophiiic anion
  2. A planar carbocation
  3. An aromatic carbocation
  4. An aromatic carbanion
  5. A reagent which acts as a source of carbanion
  6. A reaction that does not proceed through intermediate
  7. An aprotic polar solvent
  8. An ambident nucleophile
  9. A neutral electrophile
  10. A group which stabilizes a carbocation
  11. A group which stabilizes a carbanion
  12. An alkyl group which does not supply electrons to a double bond by hyperconjugation
  13. A carbocation that can be stored for years.

Answer:

1. BF4

2. Benzyl cation

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Benzyl Cation

3. Cyclopropenvl cation

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Cyclopropenyl

4. Cyclopentadienyl anion

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Cyclopentadienyl Anion

5. Grignard reagents \(\left(\mathrm{R}^{\delta-}-\mathrm{M}^{\delta+} \mathrm{gX}\right)\)

6. SN2 reaction

7. Dimethyl formamide [DMP, Me2NCHO]

8. CN \((: \stackrel{\ominus}{\mathrm{C}} \equiv \mathrm{N}: \longleftrightarrow: C=\stackrel{\ominus}{\mathrm{N}}:)\)

[Nucleophiles having two or more available sites for nucleophilic attack are called ambident nucleophiles)

9. Dichlorocarbene (:CCl2)

10. \(-\ddot{O}:\mathrm{CH}_3\)

11. —NO2

12. —C(CH3)3

13. Triphenylmethylfluoroborate Ph3+CBF4

Question 27. Explain the given basicity order in aqueous medium: )2NH(2°) > CH3NH2(1°) > (CH3)3N(3°)
Answer:

The basic strength of amines in the aqueous medium depends on two factors:

Increased electron density on the N-atom makes an amine more basic.

So considering the +1 effect of different numbers of alkyl groups on the N -atom, the basic strength of amines should follow the order:

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Basicity Order In Aqueous Media

Again, basicity of an amine increases as stabilization of the conjugate acid, through solvation, increases. The conjugate acid of primary amine attains maximum stability through intermolecular H -bond formation with three molecules of water, while the conjugate base of tertiary amine attains minimum stabilisation through such H-bond formation with only one molecule of water.

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Minimum And Maximumm H Bond Formation

Class 11 Organic Chemistry

Thus on the basis of stability of the conjugate acids, the basic strength of amines should follow the order: CH3—NH2 > (CH3)2NH > (CH3)3N As a consequence of these two opposite orders of basicity practically we find the given sequence of basicity in aqueous medium: (CH2)2NH(2°) > CH3NH2(1°) > (CH3)3N(3°)

Question 28. Which of the two: 2NCH2CH2O or CH3CH2O is expected to be more stable and why?
Answer:

O3 NCH2CH3O is expected to be more stable than CH3CH2O. —NO2 group by strong-I effect disperses the negative charge on O-atom in  Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Negative Charge ion and stabilises it. On the other hand, the CH3CH2— group by its +1 effect tends to intensify the negative charge on oxygen atom in Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Oxygen Atom and hence destabilizes it.

Question 29. CH3Cl undergoes hydrolysis more easily than C6H5Cl. Explain.
Answer:

Unshared electron-pair on chlorine atom in chloro-benzene becomes involved in resonance interaction with the n -electrons of a benzene ring. As a result, the C — Cl bond assumes some double bond character. Thus, the C — Cl bond becomes much stronger and so the displacement of chlorine atom from the ring becomes difficult, i.e., the compound does not undergo hydrolysis easily.

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Unshared Electron Pair On Chlorine

On the other hand, the C —Cl bend in CH3— Cl gets no opportunity to assume a double bond character. So r undergoes hydrolysis readily under ordinary conditions.

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Ordinary Conditions

Question 30. Benzyl chloride participates in SN1 eaction even though it is a primary (1°) substrate. Explain.
Answer:

Carbocation produced from benzyl chloride in first step (rate-determining step) of SN1 reaction is stabilized by resonance. Thus, benzyl chloride participates in SN1 reaction even though it is a primary (1 °) alkyl halide.

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Benzyl Chloride Participates

Class 11 Organic Chemistry

Question 31. Bond Dissociation enthalpy of C6H5CH2 – H bond is much less than CH2-H bond Explain
Answer:

Benzyl radical (C6H55CH2) produced by homolytic cleavage of Csp3 —H bond of toluene is considerably stabilised by resonance. But, the stability of methyl radical (CH3, obtained by homoiytic fission of the C—H bond of methane Is not stabilized by any factor and in fact, it is very much unstable. Thus, the C—H bond dissociation enthalpy of toluene is much less than the C —H bond dissociation enthalpy of methane. ,

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Carbon And Hydrogen Bond Dissociation Enthalphy

Question 32. N,N, 2,6-Tetramethylaniline is more basic than N- dimethylaniline. Explain.
Answer:

Because of steric interaction involving two ortho-methyl groups and two methyl groups attached to nitrogen, the unshared electron-pair on N is not involved in resonance interaction with n -electrons (steric inhibition of resonance) o: ring. To avoid steric strain, the — NMe2 group rotates about C — N bond axis and thereby loses coplanarity with the ring. As a result, nitrogen can easily donate its unshared electron pair to a proton.

On the other bund, no such steric inhibition occurs in N- dimethylaniline  because the two ortho H-atoms are relatively much smaller in size. The unshared electron-pair on N-atom become involved in resonance interaction with the ring and therefore, is not fully available for taking up a proton. This explains why N, N ,2, O-tetramethylaniline is more basic than N, N -dimethylaniline.

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques N And N Dimethylaniline

Class 11 Organic Chemistry

Question 33. Chloroform is more acidic than fluoroform. Explain.
Answer:

CF the conjugate base of fluoroform (CHF), is stabilized by -I effect of 3 F-atoms. But CCl3, the conjugate base of chloroform (CHCl), is relatively more stabilized by somewhat weaker -I effect of 3 Cl-atoms along with rf-orbital resonance (Cl has vacant rf-orbital). So chloroform is more acidic than fluoroform.

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Fluoroform

Question 34. How can you separate benzoic acid and nitrobenzene from their mixture by the technique of extraction using an appropriate chemical reagent?
Answer:

The mixture is shaken with a dilute sodium bicarbonate solution when benzoic acid gets converted to sodium benzoate and dissolves in water leaving nitrobenzene behind. The mixture is extracted with ether or chloroform when nitrobenzene goes into the organic layer. After separating the organic layer, it is distilled to get nitrobenzene. The aqueous layer is acidified with dilute HC1 when benzoic acid gets precipitated. It is obtained by filtration.

C6H5COOH + NaHCO3→C6H5COONa(Sodium benzoate (Soluble)) + CO2 + H2O

Question 35.

  1. Which atoms in a toluene molecule always remain in the same plane and why?
  2. Which atoms in a propyne molecule remain in a straight line and why?

Answer:

1. An sp² -a hybridized carbon atom and the atoms directly attached to it always remain in the same plane. Therefore, in toluene ), all the atoms except 3 H-atoms of methyl group {i.e, seven C – and five H -atoms) remain in the same plane.

2. An sp -hybridized carbon atom and the atoms directly attached to it remain in a straight line. Therefore, in the propyne molecule (CH3—C = CH), all the atoms except the 3 hydrogen atoms of the methyl group remain in the same straight line.

Question 36. Write the state of hybridization of C -atoms in the following compounds and predict the shape of each of the molecules :

  1. H2C=O
  2. CH2Cl
  3. HC = N
  4. CH2=C=CH2
  5. CH2=C=C=CH2

Answer:

  1. sp² -hybridised C-atom, trigonal planar;
  2. sp² hybridised C-atom, tetrahedral;
  3. sp -hybridised C-atom, linear;
  4. sp² , sp and sp² -hybridised C -atoms respectively, elongated tetrahedron;
  5. sp², sp , sp and sp² -hybridised C atom respectively, planar

Question 37.

1. Expand each of the following condensed formulas into their complete structural formulas:

  1. HOCH2CH2NH2
  2. CH3CH=CHCOCH3
  3. CH3C ≡ CCH2COOH

2. Write bond-line formulas of the following two compounds

  1. CH3CH2CH2CH2CHBrCH2CHO
  2. (C2H5)2CHCH2OH

Answer:

1. Condensed Formulas:

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Bond Line Formulas Of The Two Compounds

2. Bond Line Formulas:

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Bond Line Formulas Of The Two Compounds.

Question 38.

1. Expand each of the following bond-line formulas to show all the atoms including C and H.

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Follwoing Bond Line Formulas C And H

2. How many  σ and π -bonds are present in

  1. CH2=CH—CN and
  2. CH2=C=CHCH3

Answer:

1. Bond-line formulas:

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Follwoing Bond Line Formulas C And H.

Class 11 Organic Chemistry

2. σ and π -bonds:

1. σ C -H = 3: σ C -C = 2: π C= C = 1: σ C – N = 1

π C= N= 2 i.e., total σ -bond = 6 and total  π -bond = 3

2.  1. σ C -H = 6: σ C -C = 3: π C= C = 2:

i.e total σ – bond = 9 and total π – bond = 2

Question 39. Which of the given compounds may exist as two or more isomeric forms? Give the structures and names of the possible isomers.

  1. CHBr3
  2. C2H2Cl4
  3. C3H8
  4. C2H5F
  5. C2H4Br2
  6. C6H4Cl2

Answer:

1. No isomer is possible

2. Two isomers are possible : ClCH2CCl3 (1,1,1,2-tetrachloroethane), Cl2CHCHCl2 (1, 2,2-tetrachloroethane)

3. No isomer is possible

4. No isomer is possible;

5. Two isomers are possible : BrCH2CH2Br (1, 2- dibromoethane), CH3CHBr2 (1,1-dibromoethane)

6. Three isomers are possible:

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Ortho And Meta And Para Dichloro Benzene

Question 40. Write the structures and IUPAC names of the H—C—C=C-C—C-OH compounds with the molecular formula, C4H8O2. H (in) H
Answer:

The molecular formula, C4H8O2conforms to the general formula of monocarboxylic acids and esters. Therefore the following structures of monocarboxylic acids and esters can be written with the given formula

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Monocarboxylic Acids And Esters

Question 41. Write the structures and IUPAC names of the compounds with molecular formula, C4H10.
Answer:

The molecular formula, C4H10 conforms to the general formula of monohydric alcohols and ethers. Therefore, the structures of the following monohydric alcohols and ethers can be written with the given molecular formula

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Alcohols And Ethers

Class 11 Organic Chemistry

Question 42. Which of the following compounds will exhibit tautomerism and which do not? Give reasons.

  1. CH3COCH3
  2. C6H5COC6H5
  3.  C6H5COCH3
  4. C6H5CHO
  5. Me3CCOCMe3

Answer:

Tautomerism is possible for those carbonyl compounds which contain at least one α-H atom (the H-atom attached to a carbon atom adjacent to the C= O group) Therefore, compounds 1  and 3 containing a-H atom exhibit tautomerism while compounds 2, 4 and 5 containing no α -H atom do not exhibit tautomerism

Question 43. Designate the following pairs as metamers, chain isomers, position isomers, functional isomers, and stereoisomers. Also, indicate which are not isomers at all
Answer:

1. (CH3)2CHC(CH3)3, (CH3)4C

2.  CH3CH2CH2OH, CH3OCH2CH3 CH3

3.
Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Isomers 3

4. (CH3)CHCOCH3, (CH3)2CHCH2CHO COOH

5. CH3OCH2CH2CH3, CH3CH2OCH2CH3

6.

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Isomer 6

Answer:

  1. The molecular formulas of these two compounds are not identical. Thus, these two are not isomers
  2. Functional isomers
  3. Position isomers
  4. Functional isomers
  5. Metamers
  6. Stereoisomers (geometrical isomers)

Question 44. Which of the following compounds will exhibit geometrical isomerism and why?

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Exhibit Geometrical Isomerism

Answer:

  1. One of the doubly bonded carbon atoms is attached to two identical atoms (Cl). Therefore, the compound will not exhibit geometrical isomerism.
  2. Each doubly bonded C-atom is attached to two different groups (C-2 is attached to CH3 and H, while C-3 is attached with Cl and C2H5 ). So, it will exhibit geometrical isomerism.
  3. The compound will not exhibit geometrical isomerism because each of the two terminal doubly bonded carbon is attached to two identical atoms (H).
  4. The compound will exhibit geometrical isomerism because each of the two ring carbons is attached to two different groups (H and CH3).
  5. The compound will exhibit geometrical isomerism because each of the two ring carbons is attached to two different groups (H and CH3 ).
  6. The compound will not exhibit geometrical isomerism because one of the two doubly bonded carbon atoms is attached to two identical groups (ring moiety

Question 45. Which of the following compounds are optically active and why?

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Compounds Are Optically Active

Class 11 Organic Chemistry

Answer:

  1. The compound contains one asymmetric C-atom (CH3CHBrCH2CH3) . So, it is not superimposable on its mirror image and hence, it is optically active.
  2. The molecule has a plane of symmetry and it is superimposable on its mirror image. Therefore, it is optically inactive.
  3. The molecule is not superimposable on its mirror image. So, it is optically active
  4. The molecule is not superimposable on its mirror image. So, it is optically active.
  5. This planar compound is superimposable on Its mirror image. So, it is optically inactive.

Question 46. Which type of stereoisomerism is exhibited by the compound, CH3CH=CH —CH=CHC2H5? How many stereoisomers are possible? Draw the structures and designate them as E/Z
Answer:

The compound exhibits geometrical isomerism because the groups attached to each of the terminal doubly bonded carbon atoms are different. The number of geometrical isomers = 2n (n = number of double bonds) =2² = 4. These are as follows:

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Terminal Doubly Bonded Carbon

Question 47. Name a compound having; two dissimilar asymmetric carbon atoms and write Its structure. What type of isomerism does It exhibit? Draw Fischer projection formulas of the Isomers and comment on their optical activity. How are (lie Isomers related to each other? m Explain the orders of acidity of carboxylic acids:
Answer:

Compound containing two dissimilar asymmetric carbon atoms  \(\left(\mathrm{CH}_3 \stackrel{*}{\mathrm{C}} \mathrm{HOH} \stackrel{*}{\mathrm{C}} \mathrm{HBr} \mathrm{CH}_3\right)\).

The compound may have 2n(n = no. of dissimilar asymmetric carbon atom)22 = 4 possible stereoisomers. projection formulas of these Isomers are as follows

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques All The Isomers Are Optically Active

Class 11 Organic Chemistry

The relations among the isomers are as follows: (I, II) and (III, IV) are two pair of enantiomers whereas (I, III), (I, IV), (II, III), and (II, IV) are four pairs of diastereomer.

Question 48. Arrange cis-but-2-ene, trans-but-2-ene, and but-I-ene H3C in increasing order of their stability and give reason.
Answer:

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Alkanes

But-2 -ene (CH3CH=CHCH3) contains sixa-H atoms while but-l-ene (CH3CH2CH=CH2) contains only two o-H -atoms capable of participating in hyperconjugation. Therefore, because of more effective hyperconjugation, but-2- ene is thermodynamically more stable than but-l-ene.

Again, due to steric interaction between two methyl groups on the same side of the double bond in cis-but-2-ene, it is relatively less stable than the trans-isomer in which no such steric interaction operates between the methyl groups situated on the opposite sides of the double bond.

Question 49. CH3Cl is unreactive towards SN1 reaction—why?
Answer:

Stability of the carbocation obtained in the first step (rate¬determining step) of an SN1 reaction determines whether the reaction will lake place or not. Since methyl cation [+ CH3 ] is a very unstable one, methyl chloride is unreactive toward SN1 reaction

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Methyl Chloride

Question 50. Explain the orders of acidity of carboxylic acids

  1. Cl3CCOOH > Cl2CHCOOH > ClCH2COOH
  2. CH3CI2COOH>(CH3)2CHCOOH >(CH3)3CCOOH

Answer:

1. -I effect explains this order of acid strength. As the number of halogen atoms on the a -carbon decreases, the overall -I effect decreases and as a consequence, the acid strength decreases

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Chlorine Atoms Decreases Most And Least Acidic

2. + 1 effect explains the given order of acid strength. As the number of methyl groups attached to the a -carbon atom increases, the overall +1 effect increases and consequently, the acid strength decreases

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Alkyl Group Of Most And Least Acidic

Question 51. Explain why an organic liquid vaporizes below its boiling point when it undergoes steam distillation.
Answer:

In steam distillation, sum of the vapour pressures of water and organic liquid become equal to the atmospheric pressure. This means that both of them distill at a pressure much lower than the atmospheric pressure, i.e., both of them will vapourise at a temperature that is less than their normal boiling points.

Question 52. 

1. Write the state of hybridization of C -atoms mentioned In each of the following compounds:

  1. C-4 of Pcnt-l-cn-4-yne
  2. C-l of I’ropanoic acid
  3. C-3 of Penta-2,3-dienc,
  4. C-3 of Pcntan-3-one and
  5. C. -3 of 3,3-dietliylpcntane

2. Which atoms of each of the following molecules/ions always remain in the same plane?

1. CH3CH = CHCH3

2. C6H5C ≡ C—CN

3. C6H5CH3

4. CH2=C=C=CH2

5. CH3COCH3

6. CH3CONH2

7. Cl3 C —CH=CH—CH2

8. (CD3)3C+

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Always Remain In The Same Plane 9

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Always Remain In The Same Plane 10

11. –CH2COCH2CH3

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Always Remain In The Same Plane 12

13. (CH3)2+CH — NH2

Answer:

1. If four valencies ofcarbon atom are satisfied by four single bonds, then it is sp³ -hybridised. Iffour valencies are satisfied . by one double bond and two single bonds, then it is sp² -hybridised. Iffour valencies are satisfied by one triple bond and one single bond or by two double bonds, then it is sp -hybridised.

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Valencies Of Carbon

Class 11 Organic Chemistry

2. An sp² -hybridized C -atom and the atoms directly attached to it remain in the same plane. Again, an sp -sp-hybridized C atom along with die atoms with which it is directly attached remain in a straight line. Therefore, in a molecule containing bond sp² -and sp -hybridized carbons, all the atoms remain in the same plane (except 1, 2-dienes).

A negatively charged C -atom (or a heteroatom containing lone pairs of electrons such as N, O, etc.) adjacent to a double bond is sp² – hybridized and tire atoms attached to that carbon or heteroatom remain in the plane of the system containing the double bond.

Therefore, the atoms in the given molecules/ions that remain in the same plane are as follows:

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques MOlecules And Ions

The boiling point of it pure organic liquid is 70°C. There arc two samples of tills liquid having boiling ranges:

  1. 76-78°C and
  2. 69-78°C respectively.

Question 53. 

  1. The electronic configuration of C-atom is: ls²2s²2p², yet its valency is four —why?
  2. The four C —H bonds of methane molecule are equivalent — explain with reasons.

Answer:

During a chemical reaction, the carbon atoms gain energy and promote one of the two electrons of 2s -orbital to the higher 2pz -orbital. Thus in the excited state, the electronic configuration of carbon becomes  ls²2s¹2p¹x2p¹y2p¹z.

At this condition, the valence shell of the C-atom contains four unpaired electrons. Thus, the C -atom can form four covalent bonds using four unpaired electrons. This explains why carbon having electronic configuration, ls²2s²2p² is tetravalent.

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Configuration Of Tetravalent

The equivalency of four C—H bonds in methane (CH4) be explained by the concept of hybridization of orbitals. In the excited state, the four valence orbitals of carbon, i.e., one 2s and three 2p orbitals possessing slightly different energies mix up and result in the formation of four equivalent sp3 -hybrid orbitals. These hybrid orbitals overlap with the four Is -orbitals of four H -atoms to form four C—H bonds which are also equivalent (same bond length and bond strength)

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Same Bond Length And Bond Strength

Class 11 Organic Chemistry

Question 54. 

1. Arrange sp, sp² & sp³ -orbitals in increasing order of:

  1. Bond length
  2. Bond angle
  3. Bond energy
  4. Size of orbitals and
  5. S -character.

2. Organic compounds are usually water-insoluble. Why?

3. Write the structure of the smallest hydrocarbon having the empirical formula C2H. What is the shape of the molecule?

4. Draw the p -p-orbitals involved in forming n -n-bonds in the molecule, CH2=C =CH2, and predict whether the molecule is planar or not.
Answer:

1.

  1. sp—sp<sp²—sp²<sp³—sp³
  2. sp³ < sp² < sp
  3. sp³—sp³ < sp²—sp² < sp—sp
  4. sp < sp² < sp³
  5. sp³ < sp² < sp

2. Organic compounds are covalent. Thus they do not get ionised. Moreover, they are usually less polar or non-polar compounds and hence do not dissolve in highly polar solvent, water.

3. The compound is (C2H)2 or C4H2 and its structure is HC = C —C = CH. The shape of the molecule is linear because all the C -atoms are sp -hybridized.

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques The Molecule Is Non Planar

The molecule is non-planar because the two planes containing one C-atom and two H-atoms are perpendicular to each other

Class 11 Organic Chemistry

Question 55. Give the IUPAC names of the following compounds:

1. CH3CHClCHBrCH3

2. CH3CHFCOCH2CH3

3.  (CH3)2CHCH2OH

4. CH3COOCH(CH3)2

5. CH3CHBrCH(CH3)COOII

6. CH3CHOHCH2CHO

7.

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Given IUPAC Compounds 7 Option

8.

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Given IUPAC Compounds 8 Option

9. HC ≡ CCH(CH3)CH=CH2

10. CH3OCH(CH3)CH2CH3

11. CH3CHClCH2CONH2

12. BrCH2CBr2(CH2)3CHCl2

13.

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Given IUPAC Compounds 13 Option

14. CH3COCH2COCH3

Answer:

  1. 2-bromo-3-chlorobutane
  2. 2-fluoropentan-3-one
  3. 2-methylpropan-l-ol
  4. Isopropyl ethanoate
  5. 3-bromo-2-methyl butanoic acid
  6. 3-hydroxy butanal
  7. 2,3,5-trimethyl-4-propylheptane (the chain containing a maximum number of substituents is considered as the principal chain).
  8. 3-ethyl-2, 4, 5-trimethyl heptane
  9. 3-methylpent-l-en-4-yne
  10. 2-methoxybutane
  11. 3-chloro-butanamide
  12. 5,5,6-tribromo-l,l-dichlorohexane
  13. 5-sec-butyl-4-isopropyl decane or 4-(l-methyl ethyl)-5-  (1-methyl propyl) decane
  14. Pentane-2,4-dione

Class 11 Organic Chemistry

Question 56. Write structures of the following: 

  1. Hept-5-en-l-yne
  2. 1-bromo-2-ethoxyethane
  3. 3-chloropropanoyl bromide
  4. 1-chloroprocaine-2-amine
  5. 4-iodo-3- nitro butanal
  6. 3-phenyl prop-2-enoic acid
  7. Ethanoic methanoic anhydride
  8. 2-carbomoylpropanoic acid
  9. Pentane-2,4-dione
  10. 5-formyl-3-oxo pentanoic acid
  11. Ferf-butyl alcohol
  12. But-2-ene-1,4-dioic acid
  13. Trimethylacetic acid
  14. Diethylbutane-1,4-dioate
  15. 3-(carboxymethyl) pentanoic acid
  16. 1,3-dimethyl cyclo hex-l-ene

Answer:

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Structures Following

 Question 57. Draw resonance structures of the following compounds.

  1. C6H5NO2
  2. CH3CH=CHCHO
  3. C6H5CHO
  4. C6H5CH2
  5. CH3CH=CHCH2

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Resonance Structures

Class 11 Organic Chemistry

Question 58. 

  1.  A mixture of ether and water can be separated by simple distillation.
  2. Water present in rectified spirit can be removed by azeotropic distillation.
  3. Benzoic add can be extracted from its aqueous solution using benzene.
  4. Sugar containing NaCl as an impurity can be purified by crystallization using ethanol but not water

Answer:

  1. There is a considerable difference between the boiling points of ether and water Hence, at the boiling point of more volatile ether, the vapors almost exclusively consist of ether and at the boiling point of less volatile water, the vapors almost entirely consist of water Thus, these can be separated by simple distillation.
  2. A mixture of water and rectified spirit form an azeotropic mixture, i.e., the constituents of this mixture cannot be separated into their components by fractional distillation. So, azeotropic distillation is required to remove the water-rectified spirit
  3. Benzene is immiscible ’with water but benzoic add is highly soluble in benzene,. Hence, benzoic add can be extracted from its aqueous solution using benzene.
  4. Sugar is soluble in hot ethanol whereas common salt remains insoluble. Thus, impure sugar can be purified by crystallization. However, purification is not possible using water as a solvent because both components become readily soluble in water

Question 59. In the Lassa goe’s test, NH2OH.HCl responds to the test for the element chlorine but not for the element nitrogen, explain
Answer:

As there is no carbon (C) atom in NH2OH.HCl, NaCN is not produced in the first step by the reaction between sodium (Na) and C

Hence, the formation of sodium ferrocyanide and ferric ferrocyanide (prussian blue) in the subsequent step does not take place. Therefore NH2OH HCl does not respond to the Lassaigne’s test for nitrogen.

But chlorine (Cl) present in NH2OH-HCl combines with Na metal to form soluble NaCl which reacts with AgNO3 in the subsequent step to produce a white precipitate of AgCl which is soluble in ammonium hydroxide

Na + Cl → NaCl ; NaCl + AgNO3→AgCl ↓(white) + NaNO3

AgCl + 2NH4OH → [Ag(NH3)2]Cl (water soluble) + 2H2O

Question 60. What are hybridization states of each C- atom in the compounds:

  1. CH2=C= O
  2. CH3CH=CH2
  3. (CH3)2CO
  4. CH2=CHCN
  5. C6H6

Answer:

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Hybridisation States Of Each C Atoms

Class 11 Organic Chemistry

Question 61. Indicate the σ and π bonds in the following Heptan-4-one molecules:

  1. C6H6
  2. C6H12
  3. CH2CI2,
  4. CH2=C=CH2
  5. CH3NO2
  6. HCONHCH3

Answer:

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Sigma And Pie Bonds Following Molecules

Question 62. Write bond-line formulas for:

  1. Isopropyl alcohol,
  2. 2,3-dimethyl butanal
  3. Heptan-4-one

Answer:

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Bond Line Formulas

Question 63.  Give the IUPAC names of the following compounds:

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Giiven The IUPAC Compounds

Class 11 Organic Chemistry

Answer:

  1. Propylbenzene
  2. 3-methylpentanenitrile,
  3. 2,5-dimethyl heptane
  4. 3-bromo:3-chloroheptane,
  5. 3-chloro-propanal
  6. 2,2-dichloroethanol.

Question 64. Which of the following represents the correct IUPAC CHO name for the compounds concerned?

  1. 2,2-dimetliyIpentane or 2-dimethyl pentane
  2. 2,4,7-trimethylolethane or 2,5,7-trimethylolethane
  3. 2-chloro-4-methyl pentane or 4-chloro-2-methyl pentane
  4. But-3-yne-l-ol or But-4-ol-l-yne.

Answer:

  1. 2,2-dimethyl pentane (two alkyl groups are on the same carbon and hence the locant is repeated twice).
  2. 2,4,7-trimethyloctane (since 2,4,7 locant set is lower than the set 2,5,7).
  3. 2-chloro-4-methylpentane (alphabetical order of substituents is maintained).
  4. But-3-yne-l-ol (using lower locant for the principal functional group)

Question 65. Draw formulas for the first 5 members of each homologous series beginning with the given compounds:

  1. HCOOH
  2. CH3COCH3
  3. H-CH=CH2

Answer:

1. HCOOH , CH3COOH, CH3CH2COOH,CH3CH2CH2COOH,CH3CH2CH2CH2COOH

2. CH3COCH3 , CH3COCH2CH3, CH3COCH2CH2CH3 ,CH3CH2COCH2CH3, CH3COCH2CH2CH2CH3

3. CH=CH2 , CH3CH=CH2 , CH3CH2CH=CH2 , CH3CH2CH2CH=CH2, CH3CH2CH2CH2CH=CH2

Question 66. Give condensed and bond line structural formulas i and identify the functional group(s) present, if any, I for:

  1. 2,2,4-trimethylpentane
  2. 2-hydroxyl, 2,3-propane tricarboxylic acid
  3. Hexanediol

Answer:

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Condensed Formula

Question 67. Identify the functional groups in given compounds:

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Identify The Functional Groups

Answer:

1.  —OH (phenolic hydroxyl), —CHO (aldehyde), — OMe (methoxy).

2. — NH2 [1° amino (aromatic)], —CO2—CH2— (ester), -N(C2H5)2 (3° amino)

3.  —CH=CH— (ethylenic double bond), — NO2 (nitro)

Question 68. 0.4 g of an organic compound containing N was Kjeldahlised and NH3 obtained was passed into 50 mL (N/2) H2SO4 solution. The volume of the acid solution was increased to 150 mL by adding distilled water. 20 mL of this acid solution required 31 mL (N2O) NaOH for complete neutralization. Calculate the percentage of N.
Answer:

20 mL of (partially neutralized) diluted acid solution

= 31mL \(\frac{1}{20}\) NaOH solution.

= 15.5

Strength of(partially neutralised) diluted acid solution

= \(31 \times \frac{1}{20} \times \frac{1}{20}(\mathrm{~N})=\frac{31}{400}(\mathrm{~N})\)

Amount of H2SO4 present in 150 mL (partially Amount of H2S04 present in 150 mL (partially

= \(\frac{31 \times 150}{400 \times 1000}\)

Now, 50mLof \(\frac{1}{2}(\mathrm{~N}) \mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{SO}_4\) solution contains = \(\frac{1 \times 50}{2 \times 1000}\) g-equiv. H2SO4

NH3 produced by decomposition 0.4 g of the organic compound = \(\left(\frac{50}{2000}-\frac{31 \times 150}{400000}\right)\)

= 0.013375 g-equivalent

= 0.013375 X×17 g

Now, 0.013375 x 17 g NH3 = \(\frac{14}{17} \times 0.013375\)

% of nitrogen in the organic compound

= \(\frac{14 \times 0.013375}{0.4} \times 100\)

= 46.81

Class 11 Organic Chemistry

Question 69. Expand each of the following condensed formulas into their complete structural formul as:

  1. CH3CH2COCH2CH2CI
  2. CH3CH= CH(CH2)4CH3
  3.  BrCH2CH2C=CCH2CH3

Answer:

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Complete Their Structural Formulas

Question 70. Write down the condensed structural formula and bond¬ line structural formula for each of the following molecules:

1. ICH2CH2CH2CH2CH(CH3)CH2

2.

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Line Structural Formula

Answer:

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Bond Line Structural Formulas

Question 71. Expand each of the following bond-line formulas to show all the atoms including carbon and hydrogen:

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Including Carbon And Hydrogen

Answer:

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Atoms Including Carbon And Hydrogen.

Question 72. Explain why alkyl groups act as electron donors when attached to a n system.
Answer:

Due to hyperconjugation (cr, n conjugation), alkyl groups act as electron donors when attached to a n -system. This is shown in the case of propane—

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Propene

Question 73. Draw the resonance structures for the following compounds. Show the electron shift using curvedarrow notation:

  1. C6H5OH
  2. C6H5NO2
  3. CH3CH=CHCHO
  4. C6H5— CHO
  5. C6H5—CH2
  6. CH3CH=CHCH2

Answer:

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Electron Shift Using Curved Arrow Notation

Question 74. Identify the reagents underlined in the following ey=o + H2O equations as nucleophiles or electrophiles

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Reagents Underlined As Nucleophiles Or Electrophiles

Answer:

  1. Nucleophile OH
  2. Nucleophile (CN)
  3. Electrophile (CH3+CO)

Question 75. Classify the following reactions in one of the reaction type studied in this unit.

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques One Of The Reaction Type Of Studied

Answer:

  1. Nucleophilic substitution
  2. Electrophilic addition
  3. P -Elimination
  4. Nucleophilic substitution & rearrangement

Question 76. What is the relationship between the members of following pairs of structures? Are they structural or geometrical isomers or resonance contributors?

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Resonance Contributors

Class 11 Organic Chemistry

Answer:

  1. Structural isomers (position isomers as well as metamers)
  2. Geometrical isomers
  3. Resonance contributors

Question 77. For the given bond cleavages, use curved arrows to show the electron flow and classify each as homolysis or heterolysis. Identify reactive intermediate produced as free radical, carbocadon and carbanion.

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Identify Reactive Intermediate Produced

Answer:

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Identify Reactive Intermediate Answer

Question 78. Write down the IUPAC names of the alkyl groups having the molecular formula, C4H6.
Answer:

Four alkyl groups are possible. These are

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Alkyl Groups Having Molecular Formula

Question 79. Give the structural difference O aldehyde C & ketonic groups.
Answer:

An aldehyde group (—CHO) is a carbonyl group in which one valency of the carbonyl carbon is satisfied by a H-atom, and the other valency is satisfied by another atom or an alkyl group. On the other hand, the keto group is also a carbonyl group in which two valencies of the carbonyl carbon are satisfied by two alkyl groups

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Aldehyde Ketone Group

Question 80. Both formic acid (HCOOH) and acetic acid (CH3COOH) contain the same functional group, yet there are some differences in their chemical properties—explain.
Answer:

The structural formula of formic acid is such that it can be said to contain  said to contain a  Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Formic Acid as well as Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Formic

So it exhibits the properties of both —CHO and

—COOH groups. But acetic acid contains only

—COOH group and hence it exhibits the properties of compounds containing only carboxyl group

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Formic And Acetc Acid

Class 11 Organic Chemistry

Question 81. Label the primary (1°), secondary (2°), tertiary (3°), and quaternary (4°) carbon atoms in the following compound:

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques 1 And 2 And 3 And 4 Carbon Atoms

Answer:

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques 1 And 2 And 3 And 4 Carbon Atoms

Question 82. Write down the IUPAC and common names of each of the given compounds:

  1. CH3CH= CH2
  2. CH3C=CCH3
  3. CH3CHOHCH3
  4. CH3OCH2CH2CH3
  5. CH3CH2CHO
  6. CH3COC2H5
  7. C2H5COOH
  8. C2H2COCl
  9. CH3CONH2
  10. CH3CO2C2H5
  11. CH3CH2NH2
  12. CH3NHCH2CH3
  13. (CH3)2NCH2CH3
  14. CH3CH2CN

Answer:

  1. Propene; Propylene
  2. But-2-yen; Dimethylacetylene
  3. Propan-2-ol; Isopropyl alcohol
  4. 1-methoxypropane; Methyl /t-propyl ether
  5. Propanal; Propionaldehyde
  6. Butan-2-one; Ethyl methyl ketone
  7. Propanoic acid; Propionic acid
  8. Propanoyl chloride; Propionyl chloride
  9. Propanamide; Propionamide
  10. Ethyl ethanoate; Ethyl acetate
  11. Ethanamine; Ethylamine
  12. Methylethanamine; Ethylmethylamine
  13. N, N-dimethylethanolamine; Ethyldimethylamine
  14. Propanenitrile; Ethyl cyanide

Question 83. Write down the structures of the following compounds:

  1. 2-Iodopropane
  2. Hex-3-yne
  3. Pent-l-ene
  4. 2,2-Dichloropropane
  5. 1, l, 1, 2-Tetrachloroethane
  6. Propan-2-ol
  7. Propane-1,3-diol
  8. Butane-1,2,3-triol.
  9. 2-Methoxypropane
  10. 2-Methylpentanoic acid
  11. 2,2-Dimethylbutanal
  12. Pentan-3-one 
  13. Butanoyl chloride
  14. Aceticformic anhydride
  15. Ethylmethanoate
  16. N-Methylmethanamine
  17. N-Ethyl-N-methylhexanamine
  18. Butanenitrile.

Answer:

  1. CH3CHICH3
  2. CH3CH2C=CCH2CH3
  3. CH3CH2CH2CH=CH2
  4. CH3CCl2CH3
  5. CH2Cl CCl3,
  6. CH3CH(OH)CH3
  7. HOCH2CH2CH2OH
  8. CH3CH(OH)CH(OH)CH2OH
  9. CH3CH(OCH3)CH3
  10. CH3CH2CH2CH(CH3)COOH
  11. CH3CH2C(CH3)2CHO,
  12. CH3CH2COCH2CH3
  13. CH3CH3CH2COCl
  14. CH3COOCHO
  15. HCOOCH2CH3
  16. CH3NHCH3
  17.  CH3CH2N(CH3)CH2CH3
  18. CH3CH2CH2CN

Class 11 Organic Chemistry

Question 84. Write down the IUPAC names of the following compounds:

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques IUPAC Following Compounds

Answer:

  1. 3-ethyl-5-methyl heptane,
  2. 2,2-dimethylbutane
  3. 2,2,4-trimethylpentane,
  4. 3-ethyl-2,2,4-trimethylpentane
  5. 4-(1,1-dimethyl ethyl)heptane
  6. 3,4-diethylhexane
  7. 6-ethyl-2-methyl-5-(1,1-dimethyl ethyl)octane

Question 85. What is wrong with the following names? Draw the structures they represent and write their correct names.

  1. 1,1-dimethyl hexane
  2. 3-methyl-5-methyl heptane
  3. 4, A-dimethyl-3-ethyl pentane
  4. 3, 4,7-trimethylolethane
  5. 3,3-diethyl-2,A, Atrimethylpentane

Answer:

  1. (CH3)2CHCH2CH2CH2CH2CH3 – 2-methylheptane
  2. CH3CH2CH2C(CH3)2CH2CH2CH2CH3 – 4,4-dimethyl octane
  3. CH3CH2CH(CH3)CH2CH(CH2CH3)2–  3-ethyl-5-methyl heptane
  4. CH3C(CH3)2CH(CH2CH3)2 –  3-ethyl-2, 2-dimethyl pentane
  5. CH3CH2CH(CH3)CH(CH3)CH2CH2CH(CH3)2 –  2,5,6-trimethylolethane
  6. (CH3)2CHC(CH2CH3)2C(CH3)3 –  3,3-diethyl-2,2,4-trimethylpentane

Question 86. Give the IUPAC name of the following alkane containing complex substituents:

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Alkane Containing Complex

Answer:  3-ethyl-7,7-fels(2,4-dimethylhexyl)-5,9,11-trimethyltridecane

Question 87. Write the IUPAC names of the following compounds:

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Question IUPAC Following Compounds

Answer:

  1. 3-ethyl pent-1-ene,
  2. 3-ethyl hex-1-en-5-yne
  3. 2-ethyl-3,3-dimethyl but-1-ene
  4. Pent-3-en-1-yne
  5. 3-methyihexa-1,5-diene
  6.  3-isobutylhept-1-en-4-yne
  7. 3-propylhept-l-ene,
  8. 3-methyl-4-methylidenehept-1-en-6-yne
  9. Hexa- 1,3-dien-5-yne,
  10. 5-methylhepta-1,2,6-triene

Question 88. Write down the structures of the following compounds

  1. Pent-3-en-l-yne
  2. 3-methylpenta-l, 4-diyne
  3. 3-(2-methylpropyl)hept- 1-en-4-yne
  4. 3-ethylpenta-l,3-diene
  5. 5-ethynylhepta-l,3,6-triene
  6. 4-ethyl-4-methylhex-l-yne

Answer:

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Yne And Hepta And Ene Structures

Class 11 Organic Chemistry

Question 89. Write down the IUPAC names of the following compounds:

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Question Names Of The Following

Answer:

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques IUPAC Names Of The Following Compounds

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques IUPAC Names Of The Following Compounds.

Question 90. Write down the structures of the following:

  1. 2-methyl butanol chloride
  2. 5-chloro-3-ethylpentan-2-one
  3. Diethyl butane-1, A-dioate
  4. Methyl-2-methyl prop- 2-en-l-oate 
  5. 3-phenyl prop-2-enoic acid
  6. Propane- 1,2,3-tricarboxamide.

Answer:

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Write Down The Structures Following

Question 91. Give the IUPAC names of the following compounds:

  1. CH3COCH2COOC2H5
  2. H2NCH2CH2CH2COOH
  3. CH3CH(CN)CH2COCH3

Answer:

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques The Following Compounds Of Ethyl Oxobutanoate

Question 92. Write down the structures of the following compounds:

  1. 3-formylpentanoic acid
  2. 3-hydroxyl-oxopentanal
  3. 2, 3-dihydroxy butane dioic acid
  4. 3-hydroxy cyclohexanone
  5. 3-hydroxy-3-methyl butane-2-one

Answer: 

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques The Following Compounds

Question 93. Write the structures of the following compounds:

  1. 2-chloro-2-methylbutan-l-ol
  2. 4-amino-2-ethylpent-2-enal
  3. Hex-A-yn-2-one
  4. 1-bromo-3-chloracyclohex-1-ene
  5. But-2-ene-l, 4-dioic acid
  6. 4-nitropent-l-yne Ethyl 3-methoxy – 4-nitrobutanoate

Answer:

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Write The Structures 2 Chloro

Question 94. What type of structural isomerism is exhibited by the following pairs of isomers?

1. CH3CHCOOH and CH3COOCH3

2. CH3 —C≡C — CH3 and CH3CH2C≡CH

3. CH2= CHOH and CH3CHO

4. CH2 = CH(CH2)3CH3 and C6H6

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Isomers

6. CH3CH2CH2OH and (CH3)2CHOH

Answer:

  1. Functional group isomerism
  2. Position isomerism
  3. Tautomerism (special case of functional group isomerism)
  4. Ring-chain isomerism
  5. Position isomerism
  6. Position isomerism

Question 95. Which two of the following compounds are

  1. Position isomers
  2. Tautomers
  3. Ring-chain isomers
  4. Metamers
  5. Chain isomers and
  6. Functional isomers

Answer:

  1. Position isomers: (h) and (k),
  2. Tautomers: (a) and (f)
  3. Ring-chain isomers: (e) and (j)
  4. Metamers : (c) and (g)
  5. Chain isomers: (b) and (i)
  6. Functional isomers: (d) and (l)

Question 96. Identify the optically active and optically inactive compounds:

1. CH3CHOHC2H5

2. CH3CH2OH

3. C2HgCHBrCH(CH3)2

4.

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Optically Inactive

5. CH3CH=CHC2H5

Answer:

(1), (3), and (4) will be optically active as each of these molecules contain one asymmetric center.

But (2) & (5) are optically inactive as they do not have a symmetric center

Question 97. Which of the following will exhibit geometrical or cis-trans isomerism and which of them will not? Give reasons.

1. CH3CH=CBr2

2. BrCH=CHCH2CH3

3. CH2=CH —CH=CH2

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Isomerism 4 Option

5. CH2=CHCH=CHCH=CH2

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Isomerism 5 And 6 And 7 Options

Answer:

(2), (5), (6), (7), and (8) exhibit geometrical isomerism.

But (1), (3), and (4) do not exhibit geometrical isomerism.

Question 98. Draw the Fischer projectionformulas ofall stereoisomers CH3CHBrCHClCOOH. Mention how they are related to each other
Answer:

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Enantiomers And Diastereomers

Enantiomers: 1 and 2, 3 and 4

Diastereomers: 1 and 3; 1 and 4; 2 and 3; 2 and 4

Question 99. Write down the structure and IUPAC names of two isomeric optically active alkanes having lowest molecular mass.
Answer:

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques 3 Methylhexane And 2 And 3 Dimethylpentane

Question 100. Which of the following compounds are meso-compounds and which are not? Give reasons

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Meso Compounds
Answer:

(2) and (3) are meso compounds (they are optically inactive due to the presence of center of symmetry). (1) is optically active. It contains two asymmetric centers and it is not superimposable on its mirror image.

Question 101. Arrange in order of decreasing basic strength and show(XI) Pari-n reasons: CH3—CH=NH,  CH3—C=N, CH3 — NH2

Ongoing from  Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Amino Nitrogen Increases

in CH3NH2, CH3CH=NH and CH3C=N, the unshared electron pairs are in sp³ , sp² and sp -orbitals respectively. As the s -character of the hybrid orbital (containing lone pair) of N -atom increases, the electrons are drawn closer to the nitrogen nucleus and hence electron donating ability of the amino nitrogen decreases causing a decrease in basicity.

Thus basic strength decreases in the sequence:

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Basic Strength Of Decreases

Question 102. Arrange in order of increasing acidity and give reasons: CH3CH2OH, (CH3)3 COH, CH3OH, (CH3)2CHOH
Answer:

Since alkyl groups have +1 effect, there will be an increased electron displacement towards the oxygen atom on going from primary to secondary to tertiary alcohol. This may be represented (qualitatively) as follows:

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Primary Secondary Teritary Alcohols

Question 103. Arrange the following anions in order of increasing stability and give reasons: CH2=CH, CH3CH2, CH = C
Answer:

The greater the -ve charge on the oxygen atom, the closer is the displacement of the covalent pair in the O —H bond to the hydrogen atom, hence separation of a proton becomes increasingly difficult. Thus the acid strengths of alcohols will be in the order:

(CH3)3COH < (CH3)2CHOH < CH3CH2OH < CH3OH

Ongoing from \(\mathrm{CH}_3 \stackrel{\ominus}{\mathrm{C}} \mathrm{H}_2→\mathrm{CH}_2=\stackrel{\ominus}{\mathrm{C}} \mathrm{H}→\mathrm{HC} \equiv \stackrel{\ominus}{\mathrm{C}}\) it is seen that the unshared electron pairs of the carbanion carbons are in sp³, sp² and sp -hybrid orbitals respectively. As the s -s-character of the hybrid orbitals increases, the electrons are drawn closer to the nucleus of the carbanion carbon and hence ability to hold the electron pair increases, causing successive increase in stability. Stability order

⇒ \(\mathrm{CH}_3 \stackrel{\ominus}{\mathrm{C}} \mathrm{H}_2<\mathrm{CH}_2=\stackrel{\ominus}{\mathrm{C}} \mathrm{H}<\mathrm{CH} \equiv \stackrel{\ominus}{\mathrm{C}}\)

Question 104. Which of the following pairs do not represent two resonance structures and why?

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Resonance Structures
Answer:

The two structures which differ in the positions of atoms are not resonance structures. Thus the pair of structures given in (1), (2), and (5) do not represent resonance structures

Question 105. In between CH3COOH and CH3COO, which one is more resonance stabilized and why?
Answer:

Both CH3COOH and CH3COO are resonance hybrids of two canonical forms. But one of the resonance structures of CH3COOH involves separation of charge, while none of the resonance structures of CH3COO involves any separation of charge (also these structures are equivalent). Hence CH3COO is more resonance stabilized compared to CH3COOH

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Equivalent And Non Equivalent Resonance

Question 106. Which N -atom of guanidine Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques N Atom Guanidineis more basic and why
Answer:

Protonation on tire doubly bonded N -atoms produce a cation (conjugate acid) which is stabilized by resonance involving three equivalent canonical forms. On the other hand protonation on either of the singly bonded N-atoms produces a cation (conjugate acid) which is not stabilised by resonance. Thus the doubly bonded N-atom of guanidine is more basic.

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Stabilised By Resonance

Question 107. Which of the two N atoms of the following compound undergoes protonation and why?
Answer:

N-atom ofthe ring ‘A’ undergoes protonation because the resultant cation (conjugate acid) is stabilized by resonance. The n-atom of the ring ‘B’ does not undergo protonation because in that case the resulting cation will not be stabilized by resonance.

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Ring A And Ring B Stabilised By Resonance

Question 108. Which resonance structure in each of the following compounds contributes more towards the hybrid and why?
Answer:

  • The 1st structure contributes more because both C and N have octet of electrons in their valence shells.
  • The 1st structure contributes more because it involves no separation of charge
  • The 2nd structure contributes more as the -ve charge is on the more electronegative O-atom.
  •  The 1st structure contributes more because there is separation of charge. The 2nd structure involves the separation of charge; also the +ve charges, on the adjacent atoms, repel each other.
  • The 1st structure contributes more compared to the 2nd structure. The 2nd structure is highly unstable as it contains a negative N-atom.

Question 109. Which of the following compounds can be represented as a resonance hybrid and which of them can the? Give reasons.

1.  CH3CH2OH,

2.CH3CONH2

3. CH3CH=CHCH2NH2

4. H2N—CH=CH— NO2

5. 

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Hybrid

Answer:

Structures and (3) can not be represented as resonance hybrids because lone pairs on the O-atom or N-atom can not undergo delocalization. However, structures (2), (4) and (5) can be represented as resonance hybrids.

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Resonance Hybrids

Question 110.  Why are the three carbon-oxygen bonds In carbonate (CO3-2) ion equal in length?

This is so because CO3-2 ion is a resonance hybrid of three equivalent canonical forms.

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Canonical Forms

Question 111. Which one between phenol and cyclohexanol is more acidic and why?
Answer:

Phenol is a stronger acid than cyclohexanol.

It can be explained as follows:

1. Due to resonance, the O-atom of OH group acquires a +ve charge and so the release of the proton is facilitated

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Proton Facilitated

2. When phenol ionises, the formed phenoxide ion is also a resonance hybrid, but it is more stabilized by resonance than a unionized phenol molecule because of the spreading of a negative charge only. In the unionised molecule, resonance involves the separation of charge

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Phenol Ionises

Such effects are not possible in case of cyclohexanol and hence proton release is not facilitated.

Question 112. Arrange the following ions in order of increasing stability and give your reasons
Answer:

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Order Of Increasing Stability

Question 113. Which one between 2-methylbut-2-ene and 2-methylbut-1- ene has higher heat of hydrogenation and why?
Answer:

In structure III, +ve charge on the carbon is involved in I delocalization with the benzene ring

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Delocalisation With The Benzene Ring

In structure (I), +ve charge on the carbon is involved in delocalization not only with the benzene ring but also with N-atom of the \(\ddot{\mathrm{N}}\)Me2 group, thereby making this structure more stable than (III).

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Structure More Stable

Structure (II) is least stable because +ve charge on the carbon can not be involved in delocalization with the aromatic ring (steric inhibition of resonance)

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Steric Inhibition Of Resonance Rings

Question 114. Arrange the following ions in order of increasing stability and give your reasons
Answer:

2-Methylbut-2-ene contains nine hyperconjugable α-H -atoms, so this molecule is involved in effective hyperconjugation. As a result this molecule gains extra stability and it has relatively lower heat of hydrogenation. On the other hand, 2-methylbut-1-ene contains only five hypercoagulable α-H -atoms and so the effect of hyperconjugation stabilizing this molecule is relatively less. Thus it has a relatively higher heat of hydrogenation.

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Nine And Five Alpha Atoms

Question 115. The C—C bond in acetaldehyde (CH3CHO) is shorter than that in ethane while the C— C bond in trifluoro acetaldehyde (CF3CHO) is essentially the same as that in ethane. Explain
Answer:

Acetaldehyde molecule contains three α-H -atoms. These H-atoms are involved in hyperconjugation with the double bond of the carbonyl group. So C—C bonds in acetaldehyde have partial double bond character. In ethane the C—C bond has pure single bond character.

Thus C — C bond in acetaldehyde is shorter than that in ethane. Trifluoroacetaldehyde does not have a-H -atoms. So hyper-conjugation is not possible in CF3CHO

Thus, the C — C bond in CF3CHO is essentially the same as that in ethane.

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Same Ethane

Question 116. Arrange the following isomeric alkenes in order of increasing stability and give your reasons:

  1. (CH3)2C=C(CH3)2 [I]
  2. CH2=CHCH2CH2CH3 [II]
  3. CH3CH=CHCH(CH3)2[ III]
  4. CH3CH =C(CH3)CH2CH3[IV)

Answer:

The stability of an alkene is determined by the number of hyperconjugative structures, which in turn is dictated by the number of α-H -atoms (concerning the olefinic carbons) present in the molecule. The greater the number of hyper conjugative structures, the higher is the stability of the alkene Now the number of ar-H -atoms in the alkene I, II, III, and IV are 12, 2, 4 and 8 respectively. Thus stability of the alkanes follows the sequence: II < III < IV < I .

Question 117. Which one of the following two conformations of butane is more stable and why?

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Butane Stable

Answer:

Eclipsed conformation I, in which methyl groups on two adjacent carbons are just opposite to each other. In this conformation steric strain and bond opposition strain are maximum, hence this conformation is most unstable.

Anti-conformation II, in which methyl groups are as far apart as possible, is most stable due to minimum repulsion between methyl groups. Note that, there is no bond opposition strain in this conformation.

Question 118. Which of the 2 geometric isomers I of Me3CCH=CHCMe3 has a higher heat of combustion and why?
Answer:

cis-isomer is less stable because of a very large steric hindrance between two bulky t-butyl groups lying on the same side of the double bond. On the other hand, transisomer is more stable because the bulky f-butyl groups are on the opposite sides of the double bond. Thus cis isomer has a higher heat of hydrogenation

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Cis Isomer And Trans Isomer

Question 119. Which one between C6H5CH3 and CH4 has lower Csp³—H bond dissociation enthalpy and why?
Answer:

Bond dissociation enthalpy of C6H5CH2—H is less than (II) that of H3C — H as  C6H5CH2 is more stable (stabilized by resonance) than that of CH3 (which has no resonance stabilization).

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Resonance Stabilisation

Question 120. Arrange the following carbocations in order of increasing stability and explain the order:

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Carbocations Increasing Stability

Answer:

In cation in,(III) +ve charge is not delocalized due to steric inhibition of resonance. However, +ve charge is delocalized in both the cations I and But the extent of delocalization of +ve charge is higher in H due to the additional effect involving the methoxy group

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Methoxy Group Of Resonance
Question 121. Arrange the following carbanions in order of increasing stability and explain the order

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Carbanions Increasing Stability
Answer:

The stability of carbanions increases as the extent of delocalization of the -ve charge increases. Carbanion I is most stable as the -ve charge is delocalised not only by the benzene ring but also by the -NO2 group. Carbanion HI is moderately stable as the -ve charge is delocalised only by the benzene ring. Carbanion U is least stable because of the +R effect of the -OMe group (although the -ve charge is delocalized by the benzene ring). Thus the sequence of stabilityis II < III < I

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Sequence Of Stability

Question 122. Classify the following species as electrophile or nucleophile and explain your choice:

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Electrophile And Nucleophile

Answer:

Nucleophile : CH3C , CHgCOO , CH2=CH2

Electrophile : Cl+ , BF3 , (CH3)3C+ , R— X

CH3O– and CH3COO are negatively charged species having available unshared electron pairs on O-atom. So these are nucleophiles. CH2=CH2 can also act as a nucleophile as it contains loosely bound ir -electrons.

In the species Cl+ , BF3 and Me3C+ , there are electron deficiency (having sex tet of electrons) on the valence shells of Cl, B, and C-atom respectively. So these are electrophiles. In the alkyl halides (R—X) there is electron deficiency on the a -carbon due to strong -I effect of halogen atom. So RX can act as electrophile.

Question 123. Formulate the following as a two-step reaction and designate the nucleophile and electrophile in each step:  CH2= CH2 + Br2 → BrCH2CH2Br
Answer:

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Nucleophile And Electrophile

Question 124. CN and NO2 are called ambient nucleophiles. Explain
Answer:

Nucleophiles that have more than one (generally two) suitable atoms through which they can attack the substrate called ambident nucleophiles. Each of the CN ions and NO2 contain two atoms through which they can be involved in nucleophilic attack (these atoms are indicated by arrows). So these are ambident nucleophiles.

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Ambident Nucleophiles

Question 125. Mention the type of each of the following reactions
Answer:

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Mention The Type Of Reactions
Answer:

  1. Nucleophilic substitution (SN2)
  2. Electrophilic addition
  3. Free-radical substitution
  4. Elimination reaction (E2)
  5. Rearrangement reaction

Question 126. Calculate the double bond equivalent (DBE) of each of the given compounds:

  1. C13H9BrS
  2. C12H16N2O4

Answer:

Double bond equivalent (DBE) of C13H9BrS

= \(\frac{13(4-2)+9(1-2)+1(1-2)+1(2-2)}{2}+1\)

= 9

DBE of  C12H16N2O4

= \(\frac{12(4-2)+16(1-2)+2(3-2)+4(2-2)}{2}+1\)

= 6

Question 127. Calculate the double bond equivalent (DBE) of a compound having molecular formula, C5H8. On catalytic hydrogenation, the compound consumes 1 mol of hydrogen. Write the structures of all the possible isomers of the compound
Answer:

DBE of C5H8 \(=\frac{5(4-2)+8(1-2)}{2}+1\) = 2

On hydrogenation, it consumes 1 mol of H2. So it contains one double bond and one ring.

Thus possible structures of the compounds are:

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques The Possible Structure Of Compounds

Question 128. Arrange the following carbocations in order of increasing stability and explain the order:
Answer:

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Increasing Stability Orders

Sequence of stability: (4) > (2) > (3) > (1) Carbocation (4) is a primary carbocation, but it is most stable due to resonance.

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Stable Due To Resonance

Question 129. Which of the carbocations is the most stable?

  1. CH3CH2+CH2,
  2. CH2=CH+CH2,
  3. C6H5 +CH2
  4. All are equally stable.

Answer:

(1), (2), and (3) are all primary carbocations. Cations (1), (2), and (3) have 0, 2, and 4 resonance structures respectively. So carbocation (3) is most stable

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Most Stable Is Carbocations

Question 130.  Which one between the two CH3CO and CH3 CH3COCHCOCH3 is more stable and why?

Negative charge CH3COCH2 is involved in delocalization with the n electrons of only one carbonyl group. On the other hand, the carbonation-carbon of on the carbanion-carbon of charge e -ve on n CH3COCHCOCH3 is involved in delocalization with the π -electrons of two carbonyl groups. Thus the second carbanion is more stable

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Second Carbanion Is More Stable

Class 11 Chemistry Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Short Question And Answers

Question 1. Why is impure glycerol purified by distillation under reduced pressure?
Answer:

The boiling point of glycerol is 563K under normal pressure and it undergoes decomposition below this temperature. Thus, simple distillation cannot be used for its purification. Under a reduced pressure of 12 mm Hg, the boiling point of glycerol is reduced and then at 453 K it can be distilled without getting decomposed.

Question 2. Why is it necessary to use acetic acid and not sulphuric acid for the acidification of sodium extract for testing sulfur by lead acetate test?
Answer:

To detect the presence of sulfur, sodium extract is acidified with acetic acid because lead acetate being soluble does not interfere with the test. If sulphuric acid is used, lead acetate will react with sulphuric acid to form a white precipitate of lead sulfate which will interfere with the test.

Pb(CH3COO)2  ( Lead acetate )+ H2SO4 →PbSO(Lead sulphate)↓(White) + 2CH3COOH

Question 3. The presence of N in hydroxylamine hydrochloride cannot be detected by Lassaigne’s test—why?
Answer:

When hydroxylamine hydrochloride (NH2OH.HCl) is fused with metallic sodium, NaCN is not obtained as the compound contains no carbon. Thus, the presence of nitrogen in this compound cannot be detected by Lassaigne’s test.

Class 11 Organic Chemistry

Question 4. How can it be possible to detect the presence of nitrogen in hydrazine hydrochloride?
Answer:

During fusion of the compound with metallic sodium if some starch or charcoal is added, carbon of starch or charcoal combines with nitrogen of the compound to form NaCN which will further indicate the presence of nitrogen in the compound a proton. On the other hand, no such sterlc inhibition occurs in N, N-dimethylaniline because the two orlp H-atoms are relatively much smaller in size. The unshared electron-pair on N-atom becomes involved In resonance interaction with the ring and therefore, is not fully available for taking up a proton. This explains why N,N ,2,6-tetramethylsilane is more basic than N,N -dimethylaniline

Question 5. Chloroform is more acidic than fluoroform. Explain.
Answer:

CF3, tire conjugate base of fluoroform (CHF3), is stabilised by -I effect of 3 F-atoms. But CCl3 the conjugate base of chloroform (CHCl3), is relatively more stabilized by the somewhat weaker -I effect of 3 Cl-atoms along with d-orbital resonance (Cl has vacant d-orbital). So chloroform is more acidic than fluoroform

Question 6. How can you separate benzoic acid and nitrobenzene from their mixture by the technique of extraction using an appropriate chemical reagent?
Answer:

The mixture is shaken with a dilute sodium bicarbonate solution when benzoic acid gets converted to sodium benzoate and dissolves in water leaving nitrobenzene behind. The mixture is extracted with ether or chloroform when nitrobenzene goes into the organic layer. After separating the organic layer, it is distilled to get nitrobenzene. The aqueous layer is acidified with dilute HCl when benzoic acid gets precipitated.It is obtained by filtration

Question 7. Why is impure glycerol purified by distillation under reduced pressure?
Answer:

The boiling point of glycerol is 563K under normal pressure and it undergoes decomposition below this temperature. Thus, simple distillation cannot be used for its purification. Under a reduced pressure of 12 mm Hg, the boiling point of glycerol is reduced and then at 453 Kit can be distilled without getting decomposed

Question 8. Why is it necessary to use acetic acid and not sulphuric acid for the acidification of sodium extract for testing sulphur by lead acetate test?
Answer:

To detect the presence of sulfur, sodium extract is acidified with acetic acid because lead acetate being soluble does not interfere with the test. If sulphuric acid is used, lead acetate will react with sulphuric acid to form a white precipitate of lead sulphate which will interfere with the test.

Class 11 Organic Chemistry

Question 9. The presence of N in hydroxylamine hydrochloride cannot be detected by Lassaigne’s test—why? p
Answer:

When hydroxylamine hydrochloride (NH2OH HCl) is fused with metallic sodium, NaCN is not obtained as the compound contains no carbon. Thus, the presence of nitrogen in this compound cannot be detected by Lassaigne’s tes

Question 10. How can it be possible to detect the presence of nitrogen in hydrazine hydrochloride?
Answer:

During fusion of the compound with metafile sodium if some starch or charcoal is added, carbon of starch or charcoal combines with nitrogen of the compound to form NaCN which will further indicate the presence of nitrogen in the compound.

Question 11. Can you separate two liquids A (b.p. 413 K) and B (b.p. 403 K) present in a mixture by simple distillation?
Answer:

The two components cannot be separated by simple distillation. This is because the vapors of both liquids will be formed simultaneously and will condense together in the receiver. The separation of these two liquids can be done by fractional distillation.

Question 12. Will CCl4 give a white precipitate of AgCl on heating it with silver nitrate solution? Give a reason for your
Answer.

When CCl4 is heated with AgNO3 solution, a white precipitate of AgCl will not be formed. This is because CCl4 being a covalent compound with a strong C— Cl bond does not ionize to give Cl” ions required for the formation of the precipitate of AgCl

Question 13. Is it possible to distinguish between phenylhydrazine hydrochloride and hydrazine hydrochloride by Lassaigne’s test? Give reason.
Answer:

Lassaigne’s test can be used to distinguish between phenylhydrazine hydrochloride (C6H5NHNH2 HCl) and hydrazine hydrochloride (NH2NH2 HCI). This is because the former containing carbon and nitrogen produces NaCN when fused with metallic sodium while the latter containing no carbon does not produce NaCN when fused with sodium

Question 14. Define Rf value. What is called descending paper chromatography
Answer:

If the solvent is placed at the top and the upper end of the chromatography paper is dipped in it, then the solvent moves downwards. This is called descending paper chromatography.

Class 11 Organic Chemistry

Question 15. Tendency of carbon to exhibit catenation is much higher than that of Si and S—why
Ans.

The C— C bond dissociation enthalpy (348.6 kj. mol-1) is much higher than that of Si—Si (228.4 kj -mol-1) and S—S (224.2 kj- mol-1) bond dissociation enthalpies and since the formation of C—C bond is thermodynamically much favorable, the tendency of carbon to exhibit catenation is much higher than that of silicon and sulfur

Question 16. Melting and boiling points of organic compounds are usually very low— Why?
Answer:

Covalent organic compounds usually exist as single molecules. The attractive forces operating among these less polar or non-polar molecules are very low. As a result of this, the melting and boiling points of these compounds are usually very low

Question 17. Write the IUPAC name of the compound,   Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Name Of The Compound mentioning the secondary prefix, primary prefix, a word root, primary suffix & secondary suffix respectively
Answer:

In the compound    Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Name Of The Compound, the secondary prefix: is bromo (at C-3); the primary prefix: is cyclo; the word root: is pent; the primary suffix: is ane (e is to be omitted), and the secondary suffix: is ol (at C-l). Therefore, the IUPAC name of the compound is

Class 11 Organic Chemistry

Question 18. Which one of them is more pure and why?
Answer:

The first sample (boiling range: 76-78°C) Is more pure because its boiling range is shorter

Question 19. The wind is on an azeotropic mixture? Give example.
Answer:

An azeotropic mixture is a mixture of two or more liquids having a constant boiling point. The most familiar example of an azeotropic mixture is a mixture of ethanol and water in the ratio of 95.6: 4.4. It boils at a temperature of 78.5°C.

Question 20. A mixture contains two organic solids, A and B. The solubilities of A and B in water are 12 g per 100 mL and 3 g per 100 mL respectively. How will you separate A and B from this mixture?
Answer:

The two components can be separated by fractional crystallization. When the saturated hot solution of this mixture is allowed to cool, the less soluble compound, B crystallizes out first leaving the more soluble compound, A in the mother liquor. The mother liquor is then concentrated and allowed to cool when the compound A crystallizes out.

Question 21. What is seeding?
Answer:

Seeding is a process of inducing crystallization by adding a crystal of the pure substance into its saturated solution.

Class 11 Organic Chemistry

Question 22. Suggest methods for the separation of the components in each of the following mixtures:

  1. A mixture of liquid A (b.p. 366 K) and liquid B (b.p. 355.5 K).
  2. A mixture of liquid C (b.p. 360 K) and liquid D (b.p. 420 K).

Answer:

  1. The two liquids, A and B can be separated by fractional distillation because the boiling points of them differ by just 10.5 K.
  2. The two liquids, C and D can be separated by simple distillation because the boiling points of them differ widely by 60 K.

Question 23. A mixture contains three amino acids. How can they be Identified?
Answer:

When the mixture is subjected to separation by paper chromatography, three spots on the paper become visible at different heights from the starting line by placing the paper under UV light. Then they can be identified by determining their Rf values and comparing these values with the Rf val of the pure compounds.

Question 24. The Rf values of X and Fin a mixture determined by TLC method in a solvent mixture are 0.75 and 0.52 respectively. If the mixture is separated by column chromatography using the same solvent mixture as the mobile phase, which of the two components, will elute first and why?
Answer:

The higher Rf value of X (0.75) indicates that it is less strongly adsorbed as compared to compound Y having a lower Rf value (0.52). Therefore, if the mixture is separated by column chromatography using the same solvent mixture as the mobile phase, X will be eluted first.

Question 25. Why is an organic compound fused with sodium for
Answer:

When an organic compound is fused with metallic sodium, these elements present in the compound are converted into water-soluble sodium salts (NaCN, NaX, and Na2S). The presence of cyanide ion (CN), halide ion (X), and sulfide ion (S2-) in the solution can then be 40 What is seeding? confirmed by using suitable reagents

Question 26.  What type of fission of a covalent bond produces free radicals? Give an example with proper sign.
Answer;

Homolytic fission of covalent bonds produces free radicals.

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Free Radicals

Question 27.

1. Write down the IUPAC name of the following compound

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques 2 Bromo 2 Chloroethanol

Question 28. Draw the structure of the following compound: 3,4-dimethyl pentanoic acid
Answer:

1. 2-bromo-2-chloroethanol.

2.

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques 3 And 4 Dimethylpentanoic Acid

Question 29. Draw the canonicals of CH3COOH and CH3COO. In which case resonance is more important?
Answer:

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Less And Most Stable Structures

Class 11 Organic Chemistry

Equivalent structures (more stable) Resonance is more important for CH3COO as it involves two equivalent resonating structures and the negative charge is always on the electronegative O-atom.

Question 30. Write the principle of estimation of carbon and hydrogen in an organic compound.
Answer:

A known amount of dry and pure organic compound is heated with cupric oxide(CuO) in a hard glass test tube. As a result, the carbon (C) and hydrogen (H) present in the compound are oxidized to carbon dioxide (CO2) and water (H2O ) respectively

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Heated On Cupric Oxide

Knowing the amounts of CO2 and H2O formed in the reaction it is possible to calculate the percentages of C and H present in the compound

Question 31.

  1. Write down the IUPAC name of the following compound: CH3COCH2CH – Cl – COCH3 sodium nit
  2. Write down the structural formula of the following compound: Hex-1 -en-4-yne

Answer:

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques 3 Chlorohexane 2And 5 dione And Hex 1 en 4 yne

Question 32.

  1. Arrange the following radicals in increasing order of-I effect: I, Br, Cl, F’
  2. Write the structural formula of the following compound: 5-amino pent-3-enoic acid

Answer:

1. I <Br<Cl<P

2.   \(\mathrm{HOO} \stackrel{1}{\mathrm{C}}-\stackrel{2}{\mathrm{C}} \mathrm{H}_2-\stackrel{3}{\mathrm{C}} \mathrm{H}=\stackrel{4}{\mathrm{C}} \mathrm{H}-\stackrel{5}{\mathrm{C}} \mathrm{H}_2-\mathrm{NH}_2\)

Question 33.

  1. Whyis(CH3)3C+ more stable than CH3CH+2?
  2. Indicate the electrophilic centre of the following compounds: CH3CHO, CH3CN

Answer:

1. Due to the +1 effect of three electron-donating CH3 groups, (CH3)3C+ is more stable than CH3+CH2 (which contains only one CH3 group attached to C+).  Furthermore (CH3)3 C+ is stabilized by 9 hyper conjugative structures, while CH3CH2 is stabilized by only three hyper conjugative structures

2.

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Electrophilic Centre

Question 34. Name IUPAC name of the following:

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Name Of The IUPAC

Answer:

  1. Propan-1,2,3-trio
  2. 3,3-dichlorobutanoic acid

Class 11 Organic Chemistry

Question 35. Explain the order of basicity of the following compounds:

  1. CH3—CH2— NH2
  2.  CH3 —CH=N H
  3. CH3—CH2—CN

Answer: CH3— CH2—CN < CH3—CH=N-H < CH3—CH2— NH2

Question 36. A compound having molecular formula CgH18 can form only one monobromo derivative. Draw the structure of the compound.
Answer:

Since, the compound forms only one monobromo derivative, all hydrogen atoms are equivalent. Electrophilic center CH3—C— H.

Thus the compound will be

Question 37. Is 2-hydroxypropanoic acid optically active? Explain.
Answer:

2-hydroxy propanoic acid \(\stackrel{3}{\mathrm{C}} \mathrm{H}_3-\stackrel{2 *}{\mathrm{C}} \mathrm{H}(\mathrm{OH})-\stackrel{1}{\mathrm{C}} \mathrm{OOH}\)1 is optically active as there is one chiral center situated at C-2

Question 38. Write the IUPAC names of the compound CH2=CHCH2CH2C=CH & CH3CH=CHCH2C=CH

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Hex 1 ene 5 yene And Hex 4 ene 1 yne

Question 39. Which of the two : O2NCH2CH2O or CH3CH2O is expected to be more stable and why?_
Answer:

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques More Stable  ion is more stable than the effect of the — NOz group causes the dispersal of ~ve charge on the O-atom. On the other hand, —CH2CH3 group has +1 effect which tends to intensify the -ve charge on the O -atom leading to the destabilization of the ion.

Question 40. Explain the reason for the fusion of an organic compound with metallic sodium for testing nitrogen, sulfur, and halogens.
Answer:.

Nitrogen, sulfur, and halogen atoms, present in organic Explain the reason for the fusion of an organic compound with metallic sodium for testing nitrogen, sulfur, and halogens. Ans. Nitrogen, sulfur, and halogen atoms, are present in organic

Question 41. Name a suitable technique to separate the components from a mixture of calcium sulfate & camphor.
Answer:

Camphor is sublimable but CaSO4 is not Therefore sublimation of the mixture gives camphor on the inner surface of the funnel while CaSO4 is left in the china dish

Question 42. Will CCl4 give a white precipitate of AgCl on heating it with silver nitrate? Give a reason for your answer.
Answer:

CCl4 is an covalent compound. Thus, it does not ionize to give Cl- ions. Hence AgNO3 does not react with CCl4 even under hot conditions to form a white precipitate of AgCl

Question 43. Why is a solution of potassium hydroxide used to absorb carbon dioxide evolved during the estimation of carbon present in an organic compound?
Answer:

CO2 is an acidic oxide. Thus, it reacts with the strong base KOH to form K2CO3 (salt). 2KOH + CO2 →K2 CO3 + H2 O

So, during the estimation of carbon, an increase in the mass of the U-tube containing KOH solution is produced from the organic compound. Thus % of carbon in the organic compound can be estimated by using the equation:

⇒ \(\% \text { of carbon }=\frac{12}{44} \times \frac{\text { Mass of } \mathrm{CO}_2 \text { formed }}{\text { Mass of organic compound }} \times 100\)

Question 44. Why is it necessary to use acetic acid and not sulphuric acid for the acidification of sodium extract for testing sulfur by lead acetate test?
Answer:

For testing sulfur, the sodium extract is acidified with acetic acid because lead acetate remains soluble in an acetic acid medium and hence does not interfere with the test. If H2SO4 is used, lead acetate itself will react with H2SO4 to form a white precipitate of lead sulfate.

Pb(OCOCH3) + H2SO4→PbSO4 ↓ (white ppt)+ 2CH3COOH

Question 45. Explain why chlorine but not nitrogen in hydroxylamine hydrochloride (NH2OH-HCl) can be detected by Lassaigne’s test
Answer:

Hydroxylamine hydrochloride (NH2OH-HCl) contains nitrogen but does not contain carbon as an element. So, on fusion with metallic sodium, it cannot form sodium cyanide. Cyanide ion is essential to produce Prussian blue. Thus nitrogen cannot be detected by Lassaigne’s test. However hydroxylamine hydrochloride contains chlorine as an element and so on fusion with Na, it forms NaCl. Thus, chlorine can be detected by Lassaigne’s test.

Question 46. Differentiate between the principles of Dumas method & Kjeldahl’s method.
Answer:

In Dumas’s method, the nitrogenous organic compound is decomposed to produce gaseous nitrogen. The measured volume of N2 is used to calculate the % of nitrogen in the given compound. In Kjeldahl’s method, the nitrogenous organic compound is decomposed to produce

(NH4)2 SO4 which is further decomposed to give NH3. The amount of NH3 so formed is used to calculate the % of nitrogen in the compound.

Class 11 Organic Chemistry

Question 47. 0.495 g of organic compound on combustion gave 0.99 g of CO2 and 0.405 g of water. Calculate the percentages of carbon and hydrogen in the compound
Answer:

Amount of C in die compound = \(\frac{12}{44} \times 0.99\) 0.99 = 0.27

Amount of H in die compound = \(\frac{2}{18} \times 0.405\) x 0.405 = 0.045

v % of C in the compound = \(\frac{12}{44} \times 0.99 \times \frac{100}{0.495}\) = 54.54

% of H in the compound = \(\frac{2}{18} \times 0.405 \times \frac{100}{0.495}\) = 9.09

Question 48. 0.50 g of an organic compound when analysed by Dumas method produced 62.0 mL of nitrogen at STP. Determine the percentage of nitrogen in the compound.
Answer:

Mass of 62.0 mL (STP) of N2 = \(\frac{28 \times 62.0}{22400}\)

-. % of N in the compound = \(=\frac{28 \times 62.0}{22400} \times \frac{100}{0.50}\)

= 15.5

Question 49. Is it possible to distinguish between hydrazine and phenylhydrazine by Lassaigne’s test? Give your reason.
Answer:

For the detection of nitrogen in an organic compound by Lassaigne’s test, the compound must contain both C and N, to permit the formation of NaCN.

Phenylhydrazine contains both C and N. So it gives a positive test for nitrogen in Lassaigne’s test. On the other hand, hydrazine contains nitrogen but does not contain carbon so it gives a negative test for nitrogen. Thus the two compounds can be distinguished by Lassaigne’s test

Question 50. Give an example of a ketone that does not exhibit tautomerism.
Answer:

2,2,4,4-tetramethylpentan-3-one

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques H Atom

Question 51. Arrange in the order of increasing enol content and give
CH3COCH3 , Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Increasing Enol Content  , CH3 COCH2COCH3
Answer:

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Increasing Enol Content

Question 52. Write the structure and the IUPAC name of the alkane having the lowest molecular mass and which on bromination produces three monobromo derivatives.
Answer:

Pentane (CH3CH2CH2CH2CH3) is the desired hydrocarbon with the lowest molecular mass which contains three types of non-equivalent H-atoms.

Question 53. How many types of non-equivalent H -atoms are there in each of the following compounds

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Non Equivalent H Atoms

Answer:

(1) 2 types (2) 3 types (3) 4 types (4) 6 types (5) 5 types (6) 7 types (7) 2 types.

Class 11 Organic Chemistry

Question 54.  Write the structure and the IUPAC name of an alkane (C18H36) which on bromination produces only 1 monobromo derivative.
Answer:

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Bromination Produce Only 1 Monobromo

Question 55. Mention the type of substitution reactions in which the attacking reagents are NO2+, OH-, or Cl
Answer:

Attacking reagent NO2+ : Electrophilic substitution

Attacking reagent OH : Nucleophilic substitution.

Attacking reagent Cl : Free-radical substitution

Question 56. Suggest a method to purify:

  1. Iodine containing traces of common salt,
  2. Kerosene containing a little of water and
  3. Camphor contains little benzoic acid.

Answer:

  1. On sublimation, I2 sublimes leaving behind NaCl. Alternatively, I2 can be extracted with CCl4 and the extract on evaporation gives I2.
  2. Kerosene and water are immiscible liquids having different densities. So they can be separated by using a separating funnel.
  3. On boiling with water, benzoic acid dissolves but camphor remains insoluble, which can be separated by filtration (under hot conditions).

Question 57.  Suggested method for the separation of each of the following mixtures:

  1. A mixture of liquidA (b.p. 365 K) and liquid B (b.p. 356K)
  2. A mixture of liquid C (b.p. 395 K) and liquid D (b.p. 360 K)

Answer:

  1. By fractional distillation
  2. By ordinary distillation.

Question 58. The Rj values of two compounds, X and Y in a mixture determined by TLC are 0.66 and 0.41 respectively. If the mixture is separated by column chromatography using the same solvent mixture as the mobile phase, which one of the two compounds will be eluted first and why?
Answer:

Compound X (Rj- = 0.66) will be eluted first. The component having a higher Rf value is adsorbed less strongly by the stationary phase (adsorbent) and hence it is eluted first.

Question 59. Give an example of each of

  1. Adsorption chromatography and
  2. Partition chromatography

Answer:

  1. Thin layer chromatography
  2. Paper chromatography

Question 60. Is it possible to get pure benzoic acid from a sample containing impurities of naphthalene through the process of crystallization using benzene asa solvent? Give reason.
Answer:

It is not possible to purify impure benzoic acid by recrystallization using benzene as a solvent because both naphthalene and benzoic acid are quite soluble in benzene. Purification is however possible if hot water be used as the solvent because benzoic acid is soluble in hot water but naphthalene is not

Class 11 Organic Chemistry

Question 61. Write down the bond-line structural formulas

  1. 2-methylbutane
  2. 3,3 -dimethyl hexane
  3. 2 -bromooctane and
  4. Chlorocyclopentane.

Answer:

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques And Line Structural Formulas

Question 62. Arrange in increasing order of strength and give reasons: CH2=CHCOOH, HC=CCOOH, CH3CH2COOH
Answer:

Electronegativity of the hybridized carbon atoms increases in the sequence Csp²<Csp²<Csp

The strength of carboxylic acid increases as the electronegativity of a carbon increases. This sequence of acid strength

⇒ \(\stackrel{\beta}{\mathrm{C}} \mathrm{H}_3 \stackrel{\alpha}{\mathrm{C}} \mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{COOH}<\stackrel{\beta}{\mathrm{C}} \mathrm{H}_2=\stackrel{\alpha}{\mathrm{C}} \mathrm{HCOOH}<\stackrel{\beta}{\mathrm{C}} \equiv \stackrel{\alpha}{\mathrm{C}} \mathrm{COOH}\)

Question 63.  Arrange the following free radicals in order of increasing stability and explain the order

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Free Radicals Stability

The stability of alkyl free radicals increases as the number of a -hydrogens increases. This is so because the extent of delocalization of the unpaired electron of any free radical increases with an increase in the number of or-H atoms. Since the number of or-H atoms in (1), (2), and (3) are 1, 5 and 0 respectively, the sequence of stability is given by: (3)< (1)< (2).

Question 64. Designate the species as electrophile or nucleophile obtained on heterolytic cleavage of C— C bond in ethane.
Answer: 

Ethane undergoes heterolytic bond fisssion to give a carbocation (methyl cation, +CH3) and a carbanion (methyl anion, CH3 ). Methyl cation is an electrophile, while methyl anion is a nucleophile

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Electrophile And Nucleophile

Class 11 Organic Chemistry

Question 65. Although BF4 is an anion, it is not a nucleophile—why?
Answer:

In BF4 ion the central boron atom is negatively charged but it does not have any unshared electron-pair to act as a nucleophile

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Not Nucleophile

Class 11 Chemistry Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. The ease of dehydrohalogenation of an alkyl halide with alcoholic KOH is—

  1. 3° <2° < 1°
  2. 3° < 2° > 1°
  3. 3° > 2° > 1°
  4. 3° > 2° < 1°

Answer: 2. 3° < 2° > 1°

Question 2. Which will exhibit optical isomerism

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Optical Isomerism Option

Answer: 2

Question 3. Which of the following is sec-butyl phenyl vinyl methane—

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Structure Of The Butyl Phenyl Vinyl Methane.

Answer: 3

Question 4. The correct states of hybridisation of C2 and C3 in compound H3C —CH=C=CH —CH3

  1. sp², sp³
  2. sp², sp
  3. sp², sp³
  4. sp, sp

Answer: 2. sp², sp

Question 5. Under identical conditions, the SN1 reaction will most efficiently with—

  1. Tert-butyl chloride
  2. 2-methyl-l-chloropropane
  3. 2-chloroquine
  4. Vinyl Chloride

Answer: 1. Tert-butyl chloride

Question 6. Which one of the following characteristics belongs to an electrophile—

  1. It is any species having electron deficiency which reacts at an electronrich C-centre
  2. It is any species having electron enrichment, that reacts at an electron deficientC-centre
  3. It is cationic in nature
  4. It is anionic in nature

Answer:  1. It is any species having electron deficiency which reacts at an electronrich C-centre

Class 11 Organic Chemistry

Question 7. The most stable enol tautomer of MeCOCH2CO2Et 

  1. CH2=C(OH)CH2CO2Et
  2. MeC(OH)—CHCO2Et
  3. MeCOCH=C(OH)OEt
  4. CH2=C(OH)CH=C(OH)OEt

Answer: 2. MeC(OH)—CHCO2Et

Question 8. Order of stability of the carbocations

1. Ph2C+CH2Me

2. PhCH2CH2C+HPh

3. PhCH+CHMe

4. Ph2C(Me)CH2  is

  1. 4 > 3 > 1 > 3
  2. 1 > 2 > 3 > 4
  3. 2 > 1 > 4 > 3
  4. 1>4>3>2

Answer: 2. 1 > 2 > 3 > 4

Question 9. MeCH2CH=CH2 is stable than Me2C=CH2 because—

  1. Inductive effect of group.
  2. Resonance effect of Me-group.
  3. Hyperconjugative effect of Me-group.
  4. Resonance and inductive effects of Me-group.

Answer: 3. Hyperconjugative effect of Me-group.

Question 10. (+) and (-)-Lactic acid has the same molecular formula, C3H6O3. They are related as

  1. Structure isomers
  2. Geometric isomers
  3. Optical isomers
  4. Homomers

Answer: 3. Optical isomers

Question 11. Which of the following statements is correct for 2-butene—

  1. The C1 —C2 bond is an sp³ —sp³ σ -bond
  2. The C2— C3 bond is an sp³—sp² σ -bond
  3. The C1—C2 bond is an sp³—sp³ σ-bond
  4. The C1— C2 bond is an sp²—sp² σ -bond

Answer: 3. The C1—C2 bond is an sp³—sp³ σ-bond

Class 11 Organic Chemistry

Question 12. Basicity of aniline is less than methyl amine, because—

  1. Hyperconjugation effect of Me-group in MeNH2
  2. Resonance effect of the phenyl group in aniline
  3. Molar mass of methylamine is less than that of aniline
  4. Resonance effect of Me-group in MeNH2

Answer: 2. Resonance effect of the phenyl group in aniline

Question 13. Tautomerism is exhibited by—

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Tautomerism

Answer: 1, 2 and 3

Question 14. Amongst the following, the one which can exist in free state as a stable compound is—

  1. C7H9O
  2. C8H12O
  3. C6H11O
  4. C10H17O2

Answer:  2. C8H12O

Question 15. The correct pair of compounds which gives blue colouration/ precipitate and white precipitate, respectively, when their Lassaigne’s test is separately done is—

1. NH2NH2 HCl and C1CH2COOH

2. NH2CSNH2 and PhCH2Cl

3. NH2CH2COOH and NH2CONH2

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Correct Pair Of Compounds

Answer: 4.

Question 16. The IUPAC name of the compound X is—

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques IUPAC Name Of The Compound X Is

  1. 4-cyano-4-methyl-2-oxopentane
  2. 2-cyano-2-methyl-4-oxopentane
  3. 2,2,-dimethyl-4-oxopentanenitrile
  4. 4-cyano-4-methyl-2-pentanone

Answer: 3. 2,2,-dimethyl-4-oxopentanenitrile

Class 11 Organic Chemistry

Question 17. The optically active molecule is

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Optically Active Molecule

Answer: 3

Question 18. (+) -2-chloro-2-phenylethane in toluene racemises slowly in the presence of small amount of SbCl5, due to the formation of—

  1. Carbanion
  2. Free-radical
  3. Carbene
  4. Carbocation

Answer: 4. Carbocation

Question 19. The order of decreasing ease abstraction of hydrogen atoms in the following Hb molecule is—

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Abstraction Of Hydrogen Atoms

  1. Ha>Hb>Hc
  2. Ha>Hc>Hb
  3. Hb>Ha>Hc
  4. Hc > Hb>Ha

Answer: 2. Ha>Hc>Hb

Question 20.The most likely protonation site in the given molecule is

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Protonation Site

  1. C-1
  2. C-2
  3. C-3
  4. C-6

Answer: 1. C-1

Question 21. The 4-th higher homologue of ethane is—

  1. Butane
  2. Pentane
  3. Hexane
  4. Heptane

Answer: 3. Hexane

Question 22. Among the following structures the one which is not a resonating structure of others is—

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Resonating Structure

Answer: 4.

Question 23. The correct order of decreasing length of the bond as indicated by the arrowin the following structures is—

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Bond Indicated By Arrow

Answer: 3

Question Question 24. IUPAC name ofthe molecule, is

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques IUPAC Name Of The Molecule

  1. 5,6-dimethylhept-2-ene
  2. 2,3-dimethylhept-5-ene
  3. 5,6-dimethylhept-3-ene
  4. 5-isopropylhex-2-ene

Answer:  1. 5,6-dimethylhept-2-ene

Class 11 Organic Chemistry

Question 25. The correct statementregarding the given compound is—

  1. All three compounds are chiral
  2. Only 1 and 2 are chiral
  3. 1 and 3 are diastereomers
  4. Only 1 and 3 are chiral

Answer: 4. Only 1 and 3 are chiral

Question 26. In Lassaigne’s test for the detection of nitrogen in an organic compound, the appearance of blue coloured

  1. Ferric ferricyanide
  2. Ferrous ferricyanide
  3. Ferric ferrocyanide
  4. Ferrous ferrocyanide

Answer: 3. Ferric ferrocyanide

Question 27. The reaction of methyl trichloroacetate (Cl3CCO2Me) with sodium methoxide (NaOMe) generates

  1. Carbocation
  2. Carbene
  3. Carbanion
  4. Carbon radical

Answer: 2. Carbene

Question 28. In a mixture, two ommtlomors are found to bo present in tho amount of 0f*% mu) 15% respectively. The enantiomeric excess (e,o) Is—

  1. 85%
  2. 15%
  3. 70%
  4. 60%

Answer: 3. 70%

Question 29. In the following compound, the number it ‘sp’ hybridised carbon is CH2=C=CH-CH-C≡CH –

  1. 2
  2. 3
  3. 4
  4. 5

Answer: 3. 4

Question 30. Which of the following statements Is/are correct

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Which Statement Is Correct Enatiomers

Answer: 2 and 4

Question 31. The correct order of add strengths of benzoic acid (X), hydroxybenzoic acid (Y) and p-nitrobenzoic acid (Z) is—

  1. Y> Z > X
  2. Z > Y > X
  3. Z > X > Y
  4. Y > X > Z

Answer:  3. Z > X > Y

Question 32. in the IUPAC system, PhCH2CH2CO2H is named as—

  1. 3-phenylpropanoid acid
  2. Benzoyl acetic acid
  3. Carboxyethyl benzene
  4. 2-phenylpropanoid acid

Answer: 1. 3-phenylpropanoid acid

Class 11 Organic Chemistry

Question 33. The major product(s) obtained in the reaction Is/are

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques The Major Product Obtained In the Reaction

Answer: 1 and 4

Question 34. The possible product (s) to be obtained from the reaction of cyclobutyl amine with HNOz is/are—

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Cyclobutyl

Answer:  1 and 3

Question 35.  Identify the compound that exhibits tautomerism—

  1. 2-pentanone
  2. 2-butene
  3. Lactic acid
  4. Phenol

Answer:  2. 2-butene

Question 36. How many chiral compounds are possible on monochlorination of 2-methylbutane—

  1. 2
  2. 4
  3. 6
  4. 8

Answer: 1. 2

Question 37. Identify the compound that exhibits tautomerism—

  1. 2-pentanone
  2. 2-butene
  3. Lactic acid
  4. Phenol

Answer: 1. 2-pentanone

Question 38. The order of stability of the following carbocations is—

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Stability Of The Following Carbocations

  1. 3>1>2
  2. 3>2>1
  3. 2>3>1
  4. 1>2>3

Answer: 1. 3>1>2

Class 11 Organic Chemistry

Question 39. Arrange the compounds in order of decreasing acidity—

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Arrange The Compounds In Order Decreasing Acidity

Answer: 4.

Question 40. A solution of (-)-l-chloro-l-phenylethane in toluene racemises slowly in the presence of a small amount of SbCl5, due to the formation of—

  1. Free radical
  2. Carbanion
  3. Carbene
  4. Carbocation

Answer:  4. Carbocation

Question 41. In SN2 reactions, the correct order of reactivity for the compounds: CH3Cl, CH3CH2Cl, (CH3)2CHCl and (CH3)3CCl is _____

  1. (CH3)2CHCl > CH3CH2Cl > CH3Cl > (CH3)3CC;
  2. CHgCl > (CH3)2CHCl > CH3CH2CI > (CH3)3CCI
  3. CH3Cl > CH3CH2Cl > (CH3)2CHCl > (CH3)3CCl
  4. CH3CH2Cl > CH3CI > (CH3)2CHCl > (CH3)3CCl

Answer: 3. CH3Cl > CH3CH2Cl > (CH3)2CHCl > (CH3)3CCl

Question 42. For the estimation of nitrogen, 1.4 g of an organic compounejÿwas digested by Kjeldahl method and the evolved ammonia was absorbed in 60 mL of M/10

  1. 5%
  2. 6%
  3. 10%
  4. 3%

Answer: 3. 10%

Question 43. In Carius method of estimation of halogens, 250 g of an organic compound gave 141 g AgBr. Percentage of Br in the compound(Ag = 108, Br = 80)

  1. 48
  2. 60
  3. 24
  4. 36

Answer: 3. 24

Question 44. Which of the following compounds will exhibit

  1. 2-phenyl-l-butene
  2. 1,1 – diphenyl 1 – propane
  3. 1-phenyl-2-buten
  4. 3 – phenyl – 1 – butene

Answer: 3. 1-phenyl-2-buten

Question 45. The increasing order of SN1 reactivity of the following compounds is—

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Increasing Order Of SN1 Reaction

  1. 1<3<2
  2. 2<3<1
  3. 3<2<1
  4. 2<1<3

Answer:  4. 2<1<3

Question 46. The resonance stability is minimum for the compound—

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Stability Is Minium For The Compound

Answer: 2.

Question 47. Which of the following compounds will be suitable for Kjeldahl’s method of nitrogen estimation—

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Kjeldahals Method Of Nitrogen Estimation

Answer: 4

Question 48. The increasing order of basicity of the following compounds is—

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Increasing Order Of Basicty

Answer: 1

Question 49 . Consider the reactions:

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Consider The Reactions

Answer: 3

Question 50. Which undergoes nucleophilic substitution most easily—

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Undergoes Nucleophilic

Answer: 1

Question 51. IUPAC name ofthe compound,

  1. Trans-2-chloro-3-iodo-2-pentene
  2. Cis-3-iodo-4-chloro-3-pentane
  3. Trans-3-iodo-4-chloro-3-pentene
  4. Cis-2-chloro-3-iodo-2-pentene

Answer: 1. Trans-2-chloro-3-iodo-2-pentene

Question 52. Considering the state of hybridisation of C-atoms, which one among the following is linear

  1. CH3—C2—CH2—CH3
  2. CH3—CH=CH—CH3
  3. CH3-C = C-CH3
  4. CH2=CHCH2C= C

Answer: 3. CH3-C = C-CH3

Question 53. Which is a nucleophilic substitution reaction—

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Nucleophilic Substitution Reaction

Answer: 4

Question 54. Which is most reactive towards an electrophilic reagent—

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Electrophilic Reagent

Answer: 3.

Question 55. The correct order of increasing bond length of C—H , C — O, C—C and C=C is _

  1. C—H < C—O < C—C < C=C
  2. C—H<C=C<C—O<C—C
  3. C—C < C=C < C—O < C—H
  4. C—O<C—H<C—C<C=C

Answer: 2. C—H<C=C<C—O<C—C

Question 56. RCHO + NH2NH2→RCH=N—NH2 What sort of reactions it—

  1. Electrophilic addition-eliminationreaction
  2. Free radical addition-eliminationreaction
  3. Electrophilic substitution-elimination reaction
  4. Nucleophilic addition-eliminationreaction

Answer: 4. Nucleophilic addition-eliminationreaction

Question 57. Which of the following acids do not exhibit optical

  1. Maleic acid
  2. Ammino acids
  3. Lactic acid
  4. Tartaric acid

Answer: 1. Maleic acid

Question 58. The correct order of decreasing acid strength of trichloroacetic acid (I), trifluoroacetic acid (n), acetic acid (in) and formic acid (IV) is—

  1. 2>1> 4>3
  2. 2>4>3 >1
  3. 1> 2>3>4
  4. 1>3>2>4

Answer: 1. 2>1> 4>3

Question 59. Which nomenclatureisnot according to IUPAC system

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Nomenclature Is Not Accoroding TO IUPAC System

Answer: 3

Question 60. Structure of the compoimd whose IlIPAC name is 3-ethyl- 2-hydroxy-4-methylhex-3-en-5-ynoic acid is

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques IUPAC Name Is 3 Ethyl 2 Hydroxy 4 Methylhex 3 en 5 ynoic Acid

Answer: 4

Question 61. Structure of isobutyl group an organic compound is —

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Isobutyl Group In Organic Compound

Answer: 2

Question 62. The order of stability of the following tautomeric forms is—

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Tautomeric Forms

  1. 2>3>1
  2. 1>2>3
  3. 3>2>1
  4. 2>1>3

Answer: 3. 3>2>1

Question 63. Which of the following compounds will undergo racemisation when solution of KOH hydrolyses—

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques KOH Hydrolyses

  1. 1 and 2
  2. 2 and 4
  3. 3 and 4
  4. 1 and 4

Answer: Nonn of  these

Question 64. Most reactive towards nucleophilic addition reaction is—

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Nucleophilic Addition Reaction

Answer:  4

Question 65. In the Kjeldahl’s metliod for estimation ofnitrogenpresent in a soil sample, ammonia evolved from 0.75 g of sample neutralised 10 mL of 1M H2SO4 The percentage of nitrogenin the soilis—

  1. 37.33
  2. 45.33
  3. 35.33
  4. 43.33

Answer: 1. 37.33

Question 66. The number of structural isomers possible from the molecular formula C3H9N is

  1. 4
  2. 5
  3. 2
  4. 3

Answer:  1. 4

Question 67.  In an SN1 reaction on chiral centres there is__________

  1. 100% racemisation
  2. Inversion more tlian retention leading to partial racemisation
  3. 100% retention
  4. 100%Inversion

Answer:  2. Inversion more tlian retention leading to partial racemisation

Question 68. Which of the following statements is not correct for a nucleophile—

  1. Nucleophile is a Lewis acid
  2. Ammonia is a nucleophile
  3. Nucleophiles attack low electrons density sites
  4. Nucleophiles are not electron seeking

Answer: 1, 2,3 and 4

Question 69. Two possible stereo-structures of CH3CHOH-COOH, which are optically active, are called—

  1. Diastereomers
  2. Atropisomers
  3. Enantiomers
  4. Mesotners

Answer: 3. Enantiomers

Question 70. In which of tire following molecules, all the atoms are copluuar—

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Atoms Are Coplanar

Answer: 4.

Question 71. The correct order of add strengtlis of the given carboxylic acid is—

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Carboxylic Acid

Answer: 3

Question 72. Which among the given molecules can exhibit tautomersim

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Molecule Can Exhibit Tatuomerism

Answer: 4

Question 73. The correct order of add strengtlis of the given carboxylic acid is—

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Byphenyls Is Optically Active

Answer: 2

Question 74. The pair of electrons in the given carbanion is presentin which ofthe following orbitals  Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Orbital

  1. sp
  2. 2p
  3. sp
  4. sp

Answer: 1. sp

Question 75. The correct statement about the basicity of aryl amines is—

  1. Aryi amines are in general more basic than alkyl amines because the N-atom in aryl amines is sp hybridised
  2. Aryi amines are in general less basic than alkyl amines because the unshared pair of electrons on nitrogen in aryi amines undergoes effective delocalisation with the ring π-electrons
  3. Aryi amines are in general more basic than alkyl amines because the unshared pair of electrons on nitrogen in aryi amines does not undergo delocalisation with the ring – -electrons
  4. Aryi amines are more basic than alkyi amines due to

Answer: 2. Aryi amines are in general less basic than alkyl amines because the unshared pair of electrons on nitrogen in aryi amines undergoes effective delocalisation with the ring π-electrons

Question 76.  Which one of the following statements for the given
reactions is correct—

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Which Statement Is Correct

  1. Is a substitution reaction but (2) and (3) are addition reactions.
  2. (1) and (2) are elimination reactions, but (3) is an addition reaction.
  3. (1) is an elimination reaction, (2) is a substitutionreaction and (3) is an addition reaction.
  4. (1) is an elimination reaction, but (2) and (3) are substimtion reactions.

Answer:  3. (1) is an elimination reaction, (2) is a substitutionreaction and (3) is an addition reaction.

Question 77. The IUPAC name ofthe compound 

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Name Of The Compound

  1. 5-formylhex-2-en-3-one
  2. 5-methyM-oxohex-2-en-5-al
  3. 3-keto-2-methylhex-5-enal
  4. 3-keto-2-methylhex-4-enal

Answer:  4. 3-keto-2-methylhex-4-enal

Question 78. Which one is the most acidic compound—

Class 11 Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Most Acidic Compound

Answer: 3

Question 79. The most suitable method of separation of 1 : 1 mixture of ortho andpara- nitrophenols is—

  1. Chromatography
  2. Crystallisation
  3. Steam distillation
  4. Sublimation

Answer:  3. Steam distillation

Question 80. The correct statement regarding electrophile is—

  1. Electrophile is a negatively charged species and can form a bond by accepting a pair of electrons from another electrophile
  2. Electrophiles are generally neutral species and can form a bond by accepting a pair of electrons from a nucleophile
  3. Electrophiles can be either neutral or positively charged species and can form a bond by accepting a pair ofelectrons from a nucleophile
  4. Electrophile is a negatively charged species and can form a bond accepting a pair of electrons from a nucleophile

Answer: 3.  Electrophiles can be either neutral or positively charged species and can form a bond by accepting a pair ofelectrons from a nucleophile

Question 81. Which of the following is correct with respect to -I effect of the substituents (R = alkyl) —

  1. —NR2 > —OR > —F
  2. —NH2 < —OR < —F
  3. —NH2 > —OR > —F
  4. —NR2 < —OR < —F

Answer: 2. —NH2 < —OR < —F

Question 82. Which ofthe following carbocations is expected to be most stable—

Class 11 Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Carbocations Is Expected To Be Most Stable

Answer: 3.

Question 83. 3. Which of the following molecules represents the order of hybridisation sp², sp², sp, sp fromleft to right atoms—

  1. CH3 —CH=CH —CH3
  2. HC=C —C=CH
  3. CH3=CH—CH=CH2
  4. CH2=CH-C=CH

Answer: 4. CH2=CH-C=CH

Question 84. SN2 reaction readily occurs in—

Class 11 Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques SN2 Reaction Readily

Answer: 1.

Question 85. The correct decreasing order of pKa is

Class 11 Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Decreasing Order Of PKa

  1. 2>4>1>3
  2. 4>2>3>1
  3. 3>2>4>1
  4. 4>1>2>3

Answer:  1. 2>4>1>3

Question 86.  The correct decreasing order of pKb is—

Class 11 Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques The Correct Decreasing Order

  1. 1>2>3>4
  2. 3>4>2>1
  3. 2>3>4>1
  4. 4>2>1>3

Answer: 4. 4>2>1>3

Question 87. Find the dihydroxycyclopentane—

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4

Answer: 3. 3

Question 88. Decreasing order ofnucleophilicity is—

  1. OH>NH>CH3O>RNH2
  2. NH>OH>CH3O>RNH2
  3. NH>CH3O>OH>RNH2
  4. CH3O>NH>OH>RNH2

Answer:  3. NH>CH3O>OH>RNH2

Question 89. pKa increases in benzoic acid when substituent “x” is bonded at para-position, then “x” is—

  1. —COOH
  2. —NO2
  3. —CN
  4. —OCH3

Answer: 4. —OCH3

Question 90. The IUPAC name of the given compound is (CH3)3CCH2C(CH3)3

  1. 2,3,4,4-tetramethylpentane
  2. 1,2,2,4-tetramethylpentene
  3. 2,2,4,4-tetramethylpentane
  4. 3,3-dimethylpentane

Answer: 3. 2,2,4,4-tetramethylpentane

Question 91. The purity ofan organic compound is determined by—

  1. Chromatography
  2. Crystallisation
  3. Melting orboilingpoint
  4.  Both (1) and (3)

Answer: 4.  Both (1) and (3)

Question 92. Lassaigne’s test for the detection ofnitrogen fails in—

  1. H2N—CO—NHNH2 .HCI
  2. NH2—NH2HCI
  3. C6H5—NH —NH2 . HCl
  4.  C6H5CONH2

Answer: 2. NH2—NH2HCI

Question 93. Among the following, the achiral amino acid is—

  1. 2-ethylalanine
  2. 2-methylglycine
  3. 2-hydroxymethylserine
  4. Tryptophan

Answer: 3. 2-hydroxymethylserine

Question 94. Arrange the following nucleophiles in the decreasing order of nucleophilicity—

Class 11 Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Nucleophiles In The Decreasing Order Of Nucleophilicity

Answer:  4

Question 95. Which ofthe following is an electrophile—

  1. CCl2
  2. CH3
  3. H2O
  4. NH3

Answer: 1. CCl2

Question 96. Give IUPAC name ofthe following compound—

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Give IUPAC Name Of The Following Compound

  1. 5-hydroxy cyclo hex-3-en-1-one
  2. 3-hydroxy cyclo hex-5-en-1-one
  3. 8-hydroxy cyclo hex-3-en-1-one
  4. 7-hydroxy cyclo hex-5-en-1-one

Answer:  1. 5-hydroxy cyclo hex-3-en-1-one

Question 97. Which of the following is the correct order of acidic strength of the following compounds

Class 11 Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Order Of Strength

  1. 1 > 2> 3
  2. 2 > 3> 1
  3. 1 > 3> 2
  4. 3 > 2> 1

Answer:  2. 2 > 3> 1

Question 98. IUPAC name ofthe given compound is

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques IUPAC Name Of The Given Compound Is

  1. 2-methoxy-4-bromonitrobenzene
  2. 3-bromo-6-nitro-l-methoxybenzene
  3. 3 -methoxy-4-nitrobromobenzene
  4. 5-bromo-2-nitro-l-methoxybenzene

Answer: 4. 5-bromo-2-nitro-l-methoxybenzene

Question 99. The number of <r- and n -bonds in pent-l-en-4-yne molecule is respectively—

  1. 8 and 2
  2. 10 and 3
  3. 6 and 4
  4. 7 and 2

Answer: 2. 10 and 3

Question 100. The hybrid orbitals involved in the formation of the C2— C3 bond in the following compound, CH2=CH — CH2—CH2—C≡CH are—

  1. sp-sp²
  2. sp-sp³
  3. sp²-sp³
  4. sp³-sp³

Answer: 3.  sp²-sp³

Question 101. The increasing order of electronegativity of the carbon atoms C-2, C-3 and C-4 in the compound CH3 — C=C — CH2 — CH=CH2 is—

  1. C-3 < C-2 < C-4
  2. C-4 < C-3 < C-2
  3. C-2 < C-4 < C-3
  4. C-3 < C-4 < C-2

Answer: 1.  C-3 < C-2 < C-4

Question 102. CH3CONH2→CH3CN; In this conversion, the change in hybridisation state of the carbon atom of the functional group is—

  1. sp³-sp
  2. sp³-sp
  3. sp-sp³
  4. sp³-sp³

Answer: 2. sp³-sp

Question 103. The correct shapes of CCl4 and CCl2=C=C=CCl2 molecules are respectively

  1. Linear and tetrahedral
  2. Planar and pyramidal
  3. Tetrahedral and planar
  4. Tetrahedral and linear

Answer: 3. Tetrahedral and planar

Question 104. The number of C and H-atoms that lie in the same plane in a toluene (C6H5CH3) molecule is respectively—

  1. 7 and 5
  2. 6 and 5
  3. 7 and 3
  4. 6 and 3

Answer: 1.  7 and 5

Question 105. The number of primary, secondary, tertiary and quaternary carbon atoms in 2,2,4-trimethylpentane is respectively—

  1. 5,1,1 and 1
  2. 1,1,1 and 5
  3. 4,1,1 and 2
  4. 1,5,1 and 1

Answer: 1. 5,1,1 and 1

Question 106. The number of primary, secondary and tertiary H-atoms in molecule is respectively—

  1. 14,9 and 2
  2. 15,9 and 1
  3. 15,8 and 2
  4. 15,8 and 1

Answer: 4.  15,8 and 1

Question 107. In which of the following molecules does all the atoms lie on the same straight line—

  1. HC = C—C = CH
  2. HC = C—CH3
  3. HC≡CN
  4. C3O2

Answer: 2. HC = C—CH3

Question 108. Hybridisation states of C-2, C-3, C-5 and C-6 in the com¬pound, (CH3)3CCH =CHCHC=CH are respectively—

  1. sp, sp³, sp² and sp³
  2. sp³, sp², sp² and sp
  3. sp, sp², sp² and sp³
  4. sp, sp², sp³ and sp²

Answer: 1.sp, sp³, sp² and sp³

Question 109. IUPAC name of the compound,

  1. 1,1-diethyl-2,2-dimethyl pentane
  2. 4,4-dimethyl-5,5-diethyl pentane
  3. 5,5-diethyl-4,4-dimethyl heptane
  4. 3-ethyl-4,4-dimethylheptane

Answer: 4.  3-ethyl-4,4-dimethylheptane

Question 110. IUPAC name of the compound,

Class 11 Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques 3 Methyl 4 Propylhex 5 ne 2 one

  1. 4-propyl-3-methylhex-5-en-2-one
  2. 3-propyl-5-methylhex-l-en-5-one
  3. 3-methyl-4-propylhex-5-en-2-one
  4. 3-methyl-4-vinylheptan-2-one

Answer:  3.  3-methyl-4-propyl hex-5-en-2-one

Question 111. Bond lengths of C—H, C—O, C—C and C=C follow the sequence—

  1. C—H < C — O < C—C < C=C
  2. C—H < C=C < C—O< C — C
  3. C—C<C=C<C—O<C—H
  4. C—O<C—H<C—C<C=C

Answer: 2. C—H < C=C < C—O < C — C

Question 1112. IUPAC name of the compound

 Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques 1 Chloro 4 Methyl 2 Nitrobenzene

  1. 1-chloro-2-nitro-4-methylbenzene
  2. 1-chloro-4-methyl-2-nitrobenzene
  3. 2-chloro-1-nitro-5-methylbenzene
  4. m-nitro-p-chlorotoluene

Answer:  2. 1-chloro-4-methyl-2-nitrobenzene

Question 113. The correct IUPAC name of the alkyl group is—

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Alkyl Group

  1. 2-ethyl-3-sec-butyl propyl
  2.  2,4-diethyl pentyl
  3. 2-etliyl-4-methylhexyl
  4. 2-methyl-4-ethylhexyl

Answer: 3.  2-etliyl-4-methylhexyl

Question 114. The hybridization states of the carbon atom of the amido and cyano group are respectively—

  1. sp³ and sp²
  2. sp² and sp
  3. sp and sp²
  4. sp³ and sp

Answer: 2.  sp² and sp

Question 115. Which of the following pair of compounds are isomers—

1. CH3CH2OH, CH3OCH3

2. CH3OC3H7, C2H5OC2H5 .

3. CH3CH2CHO, CH3COCH3

4.

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Pair Of Compound Isomers

Answer: 4.

Question 116. Two aliphatic compounds will not be considered isomers if they are—

  1. Aldehyde and ketone
  2. Ether and alcohol
  3. Ether and aldehyde
  4. Carboxylic acid and ester

Answer: 3.  Ether and aldehyde

Question 117. The number of organic compounds with molecular formula C4H10 are—

  1. 7
  2. 5
  3. 6
  4. 8

Answer: 1. 7

Question 118. Only a monosubstituted compound is obtained when an alkane reacts with chlorine in presence of UV light. The alkane is—

  1. Propane
  2. Pentane
  3. Butane
  4. Cyclohexane

Answer: 4.  Cyclohexane

Question 119. Two enantiomers rotate the plane of polarisation of plane polarised light

  1. In different directions but keeping the angle same
  2. In the same direction but with different angles
  3. In the same direction and in the same angle
  4. In different directions with different angles

Answer: 1.  In different directions but keeping the angle same

Question 120. Which of the following is an optically active compound—

  1. CH3CHClCH=:CH2
  2. CH3CHCl2
  3. Meso-tartaric acid
  4. CH3CH=C=CH2

Answer: 1.  CH3CHClCH=:CH2

Question 121. Which of the following compounds exhibit both geometrical and optical isomerism—

  1. CH3CHClCH=C(CH3)2
  2. CH3CH=CH — CHBrCH2CH3
  3. CH2=C=CH—CH=CHCH3
  4. CH3CH2CH=CH2

Answer: 2.  CH3CH=CH — CHBrCH2CH3

Question 122. Which of the following compounds does not exhibit tautomerism—

  1. CH3CH2N=O
  2. CH3NO2
  3. CH3COCH3
  4. (CH3)3CCOC6H5

Answer: 4.  (CH3)3CCOC6H5

Question 123. The enol content in which of the following compounds is maximum—

1. CH3COCH2COCH3

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Enol Content

3. CH3COCH3

4. CH3CHO

Answer: 1. CH3COCH2COCH3

Question 124. The optically active alkane of the lowest molecular mass which is also chiral is—

  1. 3-methyl hexane
  2. 2, 3-dimethyl pentane
  3. 2-methyl hexane
  4. 2,5-dimethyl hexane

Answer: 1.  3-methylhexanec

Question 125. Which of the following compounds possesses a center of symmetry—

  1. Trans-1,3-dimethylcyclobutane
  2. Cis-1,3-dimethylcyclobutane
  3. Trans-1-ethyl-3-methyl cyclobutane
  4. Cis-l-ethyl-3-methyl cyclobutane

Answer: 1.  Trans-1,3-dimethylcyclobutane

Question 126. The compounds ds-2-butene and frans-2-butene can be differentiated by

  1. The number of products obtained due to their chlorination
  2. The number of products obtained due to their bromination
  3. Their reaction with H2 in presence of nickel catalyst
  4. Their respective boiling points

Answer:  4. Their respective boiling points

Question 127. Which of the following is optically active—

Class 11 Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Optically Active

Answer: 4.

Question 128. Which of the following is non-superimposable on its mirror image—

Class 11 Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Non Superimposable On Its Mirror Image

Answer: 3

Question 129. The number of structural isomers that are formed when one H-atom of diphenylmethane  Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques H Atom Of Diphenymethane is substituted by chlorine is—

  1. 4
  2. 6
  3. 8
  4. 7

Answer: 1. 4

Question 103. The number of isomers formed by a compound whose molecular formula is C2BrClFI is—

  1. 3
  2. 4
  3. 5

Answer: 4. 6

Question 131. Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Hydroxyacid  In this reaction, the hydroxy acid obtained is—

  1. (+)-enantiomer
  2. (-)-enantiomer
  3. 50% (+) and 50% (-)- enantiomer
  4. 20% (+) and 80% (-)-enantiomer

Answer: 3.  50% (+) and 50% (-)- enantiomer

Question 132. Which of the following compounds will produce the most stable carbocation in the presence of an acid—

  1. (CH3)2CHCH2OH
  2. CH2=CH—CH2OH
  3. (CH3)2CHOH
  4. (CH3)3COH

Answer: 2. CH2=CH—CH2OH

Question 133. The correct order of stability of the given carbanions:

Class 11 Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Carbanions

  1. 1>2>3
  2. 2>1>3
  3. 3>2>1
  4. 2>3>1

Answer: 1. 1>2>3

Question 134. The most stable carbocation is—

Class 11 Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Most Stable Carbocation

Answer: 4.

Question 135. The most stable carbanion is—

Class 11 Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques The Stable Of Carbanion

Answer:  2

Question 136. Carbocation which does not undergo rearrangement is-

  1. (CH3)2CH+CH2
  2. (CH3)2CH+CHCH3
  3.  (CH3)3+C
  4. (CH3)3C+CH2

Answer: 3.  (CH3)3+C

Question 137. Which of the following carbocations is quite stable and can even be stored in the laboratory as a salt— in which hyperconjugation does not occur—

  1. (CH3)2 +CH
  2. (C6H5)3+C
  3.  CH2=CH-+CH2
  4. +CH2CH2C6H5

Answer: 2. (C6H5)3+C

Question 138. Which of the given alicyclic compounds is most active—

  1. C6H5C(CH3)3
  2. C6H5CH3
  3. (CH3)2C=CH2
  4. CD3CH=CH2

Answer: 1. C6H5C(CH3)3

Question 139.  Which of the given resonance structures is most stable—

Class 11 Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques The Resonance Structures Is Most Stable

Answer: 4

Question 140. Which ofthe given alicyclic compounds is most active—

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Alicyclic Is Most Active

Answer: 2.

Question 141.

  1. CH3
  2. CH3CH2
  3. CH2=CHCH2
  4. C6H5CH2

The correct order of stability of these free radicals is—

  1. 1>2>3>4
  2. 3>2>1>4
  3. 4>3>2>1
  4. 4>7>2>3

Answer: 3. 4>3>2>1

Question 142. The structures of carbocation and carbanion are respectively—

  1. Linear and planar
  2. Trigonal planar and trigonal pyramidal
  3. Tetrahedral and trigonal planar
  4. Trigonal pyramidal and tetrahedral

Answer: 2.  Trigonal planar and trigonal pyramidal

Question 143. Correct order of stability of the given three carbanions is—

Class 11 Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Stability Of The Given Three Carbanions

Answer: 3

Question 144. Which of the following alkenes is most stable—

  1. (CH3)2C=C(CH3)2
  2. (CH3)2C=CHCH2CH3
  3. CH3CH2CH=CHCH2CH3
  4. CH3CH2CH2CH2CH=CH2

Answer: 1.  (CH3)2C=C(CH3)2

Question 145. In which of the following compounds, the extent of resonance between the benzene ring and halogen atom is maximum—

Class 11 Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Benzene Ring And Halogen Atom

Answer: 1

Question 146. The compound whose basicity is maximum in gaseous and aqueous medium is—

  1. NH3
  2. CH3NH2
  3. (CH3)2NH
  4. (CH3)3N

Answer: 3. (CH3)2NH

Question 147. (+)-1-Chloro-1-phenylethane undergoes racemisation in presence of the small amount of SbCl5.The intermediate formed in this process is—

  1. A carbene
  2. A carbocation
  3. A carbanion
  4. A free radical

Answer: 2.  A carbocation

Question 148. In which of the following compounds, presence of nitrogen cannot be detected by Lassaigne’s test—

  1. NH2NH2.HCI
  2. C6H5NHNH2.HCI
  3. PhN≡NPh
  4. NH2CONH2

Answer: 1.  NH2NH2.HCI

Question 149. Which of the following compounds is responsible for the formation of Prussian blue during the detection of nitrogen by Lassaigne’s test—

  1. Na4[Fe(CN)6]
  2. Fe4[Fe(CN)6]
  3. Fe2[Fe(CN)6]
  4. Fe3[Fe(CN)6]2

Answer: 2.  Fe4[Fe(CN)6]

Question 150. The process by which essential oils can be extracted from flowers is—

  1. Distillation
  2. Crystallization
  3. Vacuum distillation
  4. Steam distillation

Answer: 4.  Steam distillation

Question 151. The process that is suitable for detecting two different types of ink in any handwritten ancient document is—

  1. Column chromatography
  2. Solvent extraction
  3. Distillation
  4. Thin layer chromatography

Answer: 4.  Thin layer chromatography

Question1 52. Detection of which of the following functional groups is required to confirm the presence of nitrogen in the corresponding compound—

  1. Amido
  2. Carboxyl
  3. Carbonyl
  4. Alkoxycarbonyl

Answer: 1.  Amido

Question 153. Which of the following compounds does not exhibit geometrical isomerism—

Class 11 Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Not Exhibit Geometrtical Isomerism

Answer: 3.

Question 154. The number of geometrical isomers of the compound, CH3CH=CH — CHCH3 is_____

  1. 3
  2. 2
  3. 4
  4. 5

Answer: 1.  3

Question 155. Types of non-equivalent H-atoms in CH3CH(OH)CH(OH)CH3

  1. 2
  2. 4
  3. 3
  4. 6

Answer: 3. 3

Question 156. The number of compounds formed on monobromination

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Monobromination  is_________ 

  1. 3
  2. 2
  3. 5
  4. 4

Answer: 4.  4

Question 157.  Types of non-equivalent H-atoms in 

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Type Of Non Equivalent H Atoms

  1. 2
  2. 4
  3. 3
  4. 6

Answer: 2. 4

Question 158. The double bond equivalent of C8H9CIO is—

  1. 4
  2. 6
  3. 3
  4. 2

Answer: 1.  4

Question 159. The correct order of basicity of

  1. CH3NH2
  2. (CH3)2NH and
  3. (CH3)3N

in chlorobenzene is—

  1. 1<3< 2
  2. 2 <3< 1
  3. 1< 2< 3
  4. 2< 1< 3

Answer: 3. 1< 2< 3

Question 160. The correct order of stability of 

1. (CH3)2+CH

2. CH3+CHOCH3

3. ClCH2+CHCH3 is—

  1. 1> 2 > 3
  2. 2 > 3 > 1
  3. 2 > 1> 3
  4. 3 > 2 > 1

Answer: 3.  2 > 1> 3

Question 161. The correct order of stability of these carbanions is—

1. CH3CH —CO —CH3

2. CH3CH2-CO- CH2 and

3.  CH2CH2— CO — CH

  1. 3<1<2
  2. 1<3<2
  3. 2<3<1
  4. 3<2<1

Answer: 1. 3<1<2

Question 162. In Kjeldahl’s method, CuSO4 is used to—

  1. Catalyze the reaction
  2. Oxidise the reaction
  3. Reduce the reaction
  4. Increase boiling point

Answer: 1. Catalyse the reaction

Question 163. The number of optically active isomers among five probable alcohols of molecular formula C4H10O is—

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4

Answer: 2. 2

Question 164. Which compound gives most unstable enol—

Class 11 Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Most Unstable Atom

Answer: 1.

Question 165. If 3.4% sulfur is present in insulin, then the minimum molecular mass of insulin will be—

  1. 350
  2. 470
  3. 560
  4. 940

Answer: 4. 940

Question 166. The number of enantiomer pairs formed on monochlorination of 2,3-dimethylbutane is—

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4

Answer: 1. 1

Question 167. There are three different asymmetric carbon atoms in a compound. The number of possible stereoisomers of this compound is—

  1. 8
  2. 3
  3. 9
  4. 6

Answer: 1. 8

Question 168. In which of the following compounds, the nucleophilic character of N-atom is maximum—

Class 11 Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Nucleophilic Character Of N Atom

Answer: 1

Question 169. Which of the following resonance structures is incorrect 

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Correct Order Of Acidity

  1. x>z>y
  2. z>x>y
  3. x>y>z
  4. z>x>y

Answer: 3. x>y>z

Question 170. Number of electrons in the p-orbital of methyl cation is—

  1. 2
  2. 3
  3. 4
  4. None of these

Answer: 4. None of these

Question 171. Which compound can exhibit geometrical isomerism—

  1. Acetone-oxime
  2. Isobutene
  3. Acetophenone-oxime
  4. Benzophenone-oxime

Answer: 3. Acetophenone-oxime

Question 172. In the given compound, hydrogen atom linked to which carbon atom is most acidic in nature—

  1. Cα
  2. Cβ
  3. Cγ
  4. Cδ

Answer:   4. Cγ

Question 173. In which oi the following molecules, all the constituent carbon atoms have the same state of hybridisation—

  1. HC≡C —C≡N
  2. CH3—C≡C —CH2CH3
  3. CH2=C=C=CH2
  4. CH2=CH —CHO

Answer: 4.  CH2=CH —CHO

Question 174. In which of the following molecules, all the atoms lie in the same plane—

  1. CH2=C=CH2
  2. CCI2=C=C=CH2
  3. C6H5C=CH
  4. CH2=CH—C=CH

Answer: 2 and 3

Question 175. Which of the following express a homologous series—

  1. Methanol, ethanol, 1-propanol
  2. 1-hexene, 2-hexene, 3-hexene
  3. Formic acid, acetic acid, propionic acid
  4. Methane, methanol, methanal

Answer: 1 and 3

Question 176. Which of the following statements are incorrect—

  1. Heat of hydrogenation of CH3CH2CH=CH2 is less than that of (CH3)2C =CH
  2. CCl3 is more stable than CF3
  3. Bond lengths of three carbon-oxygen bonds in carbonate (CO2-3) ion are not equal
  4. Free radicals are paramagnetic

Answer: 1 and 3

Question 177.  Which of the following orders of stability are correct—

  1. CH3+CHOCH3 > CH3+CHCH2OCH3
  2. F+CH2>FCH2+CH2
  3. PhCH2+CH2>Ph+CH2
  4. FCH2COO< CH3COO

Answer:   a and 2

Class 11 Organic Chemistry

Question 178. Which process is not represented correctly—

Class 11 Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Which Process Is Not Represented

Answer: 1 and 3

Question 179. Which ofthe following sets represent only electrophiles ______

  1. BF3, NH3, H2O
  2. AICI3, SO3, +NO2
  3. +NO2, +CH3, CH3+CO
  4. C2H5, C2H5, C2H+5

Answer:  2 and 3

Question 180. Delocalisation in hyperconjugation occurs—

  1. In case of rr -bond electrons of C — H bond of any alkyl group directly linked to a double bond (f)
  2. In case of cr -bond electrons of C — H bond of any alkyl group directly linked to a positive carbon atom
  3. In case of a-electrons of C=C
  4. In case of lone pair of electrons

Answer:  1 and 2

Class 11 Organic Chemistry

Question 181. Which of the following statements are incorrect—

  1. Sodium extract is first boiled with dilute HC1 during detection of halogens by Lassaigne’s test
  2. If in an organic compound, both nitrogen and sulphur are present, then blood-red colouration is observed during detection of nitrogen by Lassaigne’s test
  3. Organic compounds which dissociate at their melting points are purified by vacuum distillation
  4. In paper chromatography, the stationary phase is solid while the mobile phase is liquid

Answer: 1 and 4

Question 182. Which of the following compounds give a red colouration in Lassaigne’s test during detection of nitrogen

Class 11 Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Detection Of Nitrogen Atom

Answer:  3 and 4

Question 183. Which of the following mixtures is responsible for blue colouration in Lassaigne’s test during detection of N—

  1. NH2NH2 + charcoal
  2. NH4Cl + NaNO3
  3. C6H5COOH + NaNO3
  4. NH2NH2 + NH4Cl

Answer: 1 and 3

Question 184. In which of the following structures, the arrangement of the four groups/atoms is different from that of  _________ 

Class 11 Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques 4 Group Atoms Different From That I

Answer:   1 and 3

Class 11 Organic Chemistry

Question 185. Which ofthe following are optically active compounds ___________

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Optically Active Compounds

Answer:  2 and 3

Question 186. In which of the following compounds, the number of hyperconjugable hydrogen atoms are same—

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Hypercongugable Hydrogen Atoms

Answer:  2 and 4

Question 187. For which of the following compounds, the number of compounds formed on monobromination are same—

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques MonoBromination Are Same

Answer:   1 and 2.

Class 11 Organic Chemistry

Question 188. The carbocations which attain stabilityby resonance are___

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Carbocations Which Attain Stability By Resonance

Answer: 1,3,and 4

Question 189. Mixtures that can be separated by simple distillation are

  1. A mixture of ether and toluene
  2. A mixture of hexane and toluene
  3. A mixture of benzene and chloroform
  4. A mixture of 95% ethanol and 5% water

Answer:  1 and 3

Question 190. Compounds that can be purified by steam distillation are—

  1. Acetic acid
  2. o-nitrophenol
  3. Ethanol
  4. Nitrobenzene

Answer:  2 and 4

Question 191. Which of the following statements are incorrect—

  1. Quantitative estimation of nitrogen in any compound can be done by kjeldahl’s method
  2. Quantitative estimation of sulphur in organic compounds can be done by Dumas method
  3. Quantitative estimation of halogens in organic compounds can be done by Carius method
  4. In Liebig’s method of detecting carbon and hydrogen in organic compounds carbon is converted into carbon dioxide while hydrogen is converted into water

Answer: 1 and 3

Question 192. In which of the following processes, any organic liquid vapourises below its boiling point—

  1. Vacuum distillation
  2. Distillation
  3. Steam distillation
  4. Sublimation

Answer: 1 and 3

Class 11 Organic Chemistry

Question 193. Which exhibit optical and geometrical isomerism—

  1. CH3CHCICH=CH2
  2. CH3-CHCI —CH=CH2
  3. CH3CH=CH— CH(CH3)2
  4. CH3CH=CH—CH=C=CHCH3

Answer: 2 and 4

Question 194. Which of the following are correct statements—

  1. (CF3)3C+ is more stable than (CH3)3C+ ,
  2. Na+does not act as an electrophile
  3. Ph3C+ can be stored in the form of Ph3C+BF4 salt
  4. CH3CH2O is less stable than O2NCH3CH2O

Answer:  2 and 3

Question 195.  The nucleophilic reagents are—

  1. OH
  2. :NH3
  3. CCl2
  4. CN

Answer: 1,2 and 4

Question 196. The electrophilic reagents are—

  1. +NO2
  2. Cl+
  3. H2O
  4. SO3

Answer: 1, 2, 4

Class 11 Organic Chemistry

Question 197. Which of the following statements regarding Lassaigne’s test are correct—

  1. N, S and halogens are detected by converting them into their corresponding inorganic salts
  2. This test is done to detect N, S and hydrogen
  3. Organic compounds are fused with sodium metal
  4. Different halogens can be distinguished

Answer:  1,3 and 4

Question 198. Which of the following exhibit keto-enol tautomerism—

  1. C6H5COC6H5
  2. C6H5COCH=CH2
  3. C6H5COCH2COCH3
  4. CH3COCH2COCH3

Answer:  2. C6H5COCH=CH2

Question 199. Which of the following do not exhibit optical activity—

  1. 3-methyl-l-pentene
  2. 2-methyl-2-pentene
  3. 4-methyI-l-pentene
  4. 3-methyl-2-pentene

Answer: 2,3, and 4

Question 200. The correct statements are—

  1. Racemic mixture is an equimolecular mixture of a pair of enantiomers
  2. Configuration of a molecule means stable three¬dimensional arrangement of the groups attached to a specific atom of the molecule
  3. Melting & boiling points of 2 enantiomers are different
  4. A molecule may be optically active or inactive if more than one asymmetric carbon is present in the molecule

Answer: 1,2 and 4

Question 201. Which of the following are planar—

  1. Ferf-butyl radical
  2. Ferf-butyl carbocation
  3. Ferf-butyl carbanion
  4. Allyl carbanion

Answer: 1,2 and 4

Class 11 Organic Chemistry

Question 202. Which can act as both electrophile and nucleophile—

  1. CH3OH
  2. CH3Cl
  3. CH3CN
  4. HCHO

Answer: 3 and 4

Question 203. Which of the following can act neither as an electrophile nor as a nucleophile

  1. H3O+
  2. R4N+
  3. CN
  4. SO3

Answer: 1 and 2

Question 204. Which of the following conditions favour E2 reaction—

  1. A strong base of high concentration
  2. A solvent of low polarity
  3. 3° alkyl halide as the substrate
  4. Alkyl iodide

Answer: 1,2,3,4

Question 205. Compounds that will not exhibit geometrical isomerism—

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Not Exhibit Geometrtical Isomerism

Answer:  1,2,3,

Class 11 Organic Chemistry

Question 206. In which ofthe following, a plane ofsymmetryis present—

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Plane Of Symmetry

Answer: 1,2,4

Question 207. Three stereoisomers of CH2YZ are possible if tire structure of methane be—

  1. Reactangular planar
  2. Square planar
  3. square pyramidal
  4. Octahedral

Answer: 1 and 2

Class 11 Chemistry Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Very Short Question And Answers

Question 1. Which property of carbon is responsible for forming straight chains, branched chains, or rings?
Answer: Catenation property of carbon.

Question 2. Wind are the reason fort the existence of a large number of organic compounds.
Answer:

Reasons are: 

  1. Catenation property of carbon
  2. Its tendency to combine with other non-metals and
  3. Phenomenon of isomerism exhibited by carbon compounds.

Class 11 Organic Chemistry

Question 3. Find the number of <r -and ;r -boud(s) in the molecule: CH3CH2CH==CH—C = 
Answer: Number of σ -bonds = 13 and number of π-bonds = 3

Question 4. Predict the state of hybridization of the starred carbon atoms: 

1. H*C ≡ CCH3

2. 

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Hybridisation Of The Starred Carbon Atoms

Answer:

  1. sp
  2. sp².

Question 5. What is the shape of the molecule: C6H6CN?
Answer: Planar.

Question 6. Give the shape of the molecule: HC ≡ C — C ≡CCl
Answer: Linear

Question 7. What is the state of hybridization of a carbon atom linked to two other atoms by two double bonds?
Answer: Sp -hybridization.

Question 8.  Arrange the following in order of increasing carbon-carbon bond length: ethane, ethylene, and acetylene.
Answer:

Acetylene (HC ≡ CH) < Ethylene (CH2=CH2) < Ethane (CH3—CH3).

Class 11 Organic Chemistry

Question 9. What will be the shape of a hydrocarbon molecule containing two sp² – & one sp³ -hybridized C-atom?
Answer: Three-dimensional.

Question 10.  Arrange in order of increasing bond dissociation enthalpy:  Csp— Csp  —Csp³ – Csp³ —, Csp² —Csp² 
Answer:

Csp³ — Csp³ < Csp² — Csp²  < Csp— Csp

Question  11. Arrange the starred C-atoms in the following compound in order of increasing s -character of their hybridization states:
1C*H32CH=3C*H—4CH=5*C=6CH—7CH28CH3
Answer:

C-1 <C-3<C-5.

Question  12. Which is the correct bond-line structural formula of CH2=CH—C = CCH2CH3 ?

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Bond Line Structureal Formula

Answer:

No. 2 s the correct bond-line structural formula.

Question 13. Write the names of an alicyclic compound and a heterocyclic compound.
Answer:

Cyclohexane and pyridine, respectively.

Class 11 Organic Chemistry

Question 14. Give one example of each benzenoid and non-benzenoid aromatic compound.
Answer: Toluene  Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Tolueneand azulene Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Azulene

Question 15. Write down the IUPAC name of the compound represented by the swastika sign.
Answer: 3,3-diethyl pentane

.Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Swastika Or 3 And 3 Diethylpentane

Question 16. Which one is the correct name of an alkyne containing five carbon atoms? Pent-2-yne or Pent-3-yne
Answer: Pent-2-yne.

Question 17. Mention the name of the alkyl group that may be obtained by removal of one 2° H-atom from propane.
Answer: 
Isopropyl.

Class 11 Organic Chemistry

Question 18. How many alkyl groups are expected to be obtained from CH3CH2CH2CH(CH3)CH2CH3 by the removal of different non-equivalent H -atoms?
Answer: Seven alkyl groups because there are seven types of non-equivalent H -atoms.

Question 19. Which of the following has no existence? 

  1. 1° H – atom
  2. 3° C -atom
  3. 2° H -atom
  4. 4°H -atom

Answer: 4°H-atom has no existence

Class 11 Organic Chemistry

Question 20. How many 4°C-atoms are there in 2,2.3,3- tetramethylbutane?
Answer:. The number of 4°C- atoms is 2.

Question 21. How many 3°H-atoms are there in 4-ethyl-2- methylhexan e?
Answer: The number of 3° H-atoms is 2.

Question 22. Write the bond-line structural formula of an alkane with five carbon atoms which has only primary hydrogen atoms.
Answer: Bond-line structure of the alkane:

Question 23. Give examples of two terminal functional groups.
Answer: . —COOH, — CHO

Class 11 Organic Chemistry

Question 24. How many univalent groups are expected to be obtained from toluene?
Answer: 4 univalent groups can be expected

Question 25. What are the primary suffixes used to write IUPAC names of CH3CH3, CH2=CH2, and HC ≡CH?
Answer: ‘anej ‘ene’ and ‘yne’ respectively.

Question 26. Give an example of a saturated hydrocarbon that can be represented by the general formula, CnH2n.
Answer: Cyclopentane

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Cyclopentane

Question 27. How many 7r -bonds are there in 3-methylidene-l, 4- pentadiene?
Answer: The number of n -bonds is 3.

Question 28. Write the names of the alkyl group(s) that may be obtained from (CH3)4C.
Answer: Neopentyl or 2,2-dimethylpropyl.

Class 11 Organic Chemistry

Question 29. Write the IUPAC name of a hydrocarbon containing one sp, two sp² & two sp³ -hybridized C-atoms
Answer: Penta-2,3-diene or 3-methyIbuta-l,2-diene.

Question 30. How many alkyl groups are possible having the molecular formula, C4H9?
Answer: 4 different alkyl groups are possible.

Question 31. Which type of isomerism is exhibited by n-pentane and neopentane?
Answer: Chain isomerism.

Question 32. Write down the structure and the IUPAC name of the tautomer of butanal
Answer: CH3CH2CH=CH— OH (But-l-en-l-ol).

Question 33. How many structural isomers will be obtained by the displacement of two H-atoms of propane by two Cl- atoms? Write their structures.
Answer: Question 65. A compFour (ClCH2CH2CH,Cl, ClCH2CHClCH3 , Cl2CHCH2CH3 and CH3CCl2CH3).

Question 34. Write structures and names of two compounds which are position isomers as well as metamers
Answer:

Class 11 Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Position Isomers As Metamers

Question  35. How are the two compounds, CH2=CHCH2CH3 and related to each other?
Answer: These two compounds are ring-chain isomers.

Question 36. Which two of the following are geometrical isomers?

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Which Two Of The Geometrical Isomerisms
Answer: 2 and 4 are geometrical isomers.

Question 37. Which of the following compounds do not exhibit geometrical isomerism

1. 
Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Not Geometrical Isomerism

2. PhCH=CHPh

3. Me2C=NOH

4. CH2=CH—CH=CH —CH=CH2

Answer:  1 and 3 do not exhibit geometrical isomerism

Class 11 Organic Chemistry

Question 38. Which of the given compounds are optically active?

Class 11 Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Witch Two Of The Optically Active

Answer: 3 and 4 are optically active compounds

Question 39. Mention the type of the following reaction: Me3CCH2OH + HBr Me2CBrCH2CH3 + H2O
Answer: It is a substitution and rearrangement reaction.

Question 40. How many types of non-equivalent H-atoms are present in the given compound?

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Non Equivalent H Atoms
Answer: Two types of non-equivalent H-atoms are present

Question 41. In which of the given compounds, all the H-atoms are; equivalent?

Class 11 Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Which Two Equivalent H Atoms

Answer: 1 and 3

Question 42. Calculate the double bond equivalent (DBE) of the compound having the molecular formula, C6H8 Is the compound aromatic?
Answer: DBE = 3 ; The compound is not aromatic

Question 43. How many monobrow derivatives are possible for each of Ortho, meta, and para-xylene?
Answer: Three, four, and two respectively

Question 44. Arrange the following groups in order of decreasing strength of -I effect groups in order of decreasing — +NR3, —NO2, —F, —CN.
Answer:  — +NR3 >NO2>—CN >—F

Question 45. Arrange the following free radicals in the decreasing order of their stability:

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Free Radical In The Decreasing Order

Answer: 5 >4>1>2>3

Question 46. In which C—C bond of CH3CH2CH2Br, the inductive effect is expected to be the least?
Answer: C-2 —C-3 bond.

Question 47. Arrange the following carbocations in increasing order of stability

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Carbocations In Increasing Order Of Stability

Answer: 4<2<1<3

Question 48. Arrange the following compounds in increasing order of number of hypercoagulable hydrogen atoms:

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Hyperconjugable Hydrogen Atoms

Answer: 6<2<3<5 <4<1

Question 49. Arrange the following compounds in order of increasing bond dissociation enthalpy:

  1. CH3 — H
  2. (CH3)2CH-H
  3. (CH3)3C—H
  4. CH3CH2 —H

Answer: 3<2<4<1

Question 50. Arrange the following in increasing order of stability:

Class 11 Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Following Increasing Order Stability

Answer: 4<2<3<1< 5

Question 51. How can aniline be purified?
Answer: By steam distillation as well as vacuum distillation.

Question 52. How can glycerol be purified?
Answer: By distillation under reduced pressure.

Class 11 Organic Chemistry

Question 53. Suggest a method to separate a mixture of o-hydroxybenzaldehyde and p-hydroxybenzaldehyde.
Answer: Steam distillation.

Question 54. How will you separate a mixture of two solid pounds of different solubilities in the same solvent?
Answer: By fractional crystallization.

Question  55. An organic liquid decomposes below its boiling point. How can it be purified?
Answer: By distillation under reduced pressure.

Question 56. Which technique can be used to purify iodine-containing traces of common salt?
Answer: Sublimation.

Question 57. Suggest a method for the purification of a liquid containing non-volatile Impurities.
Answer: Simple distillation

Question 58. How can aniline (b.p. 184°C) be separated from petroleum ether (b.p. 40-60°C)?
Answer: By simple distillation

Question 59. Out of water and benzene, which can be used to purify benzoic acid containing naphthalene by fractional crystallization?
Answer: Water (because both are soluble in benzene).

Question 60. Give an example of a chromatographic technique in which both the mobile and stationary phases are liquids
Answer: Paper chromatography.

Question 61. Mention two distillation processes in which organic liquids boil at temperatures below their respective boiling points. 
Answer: Distillation under reduced pressure & steam distillation.

Question 62. Explain why the Lassaigne’s extract should not be prepared by using tap water.
Answer: Because tap water contains chloride ion (Cl )

Question 63. Give an example of a compound that does not contain halogen but gives Beilstein’s test
Answer:  Pyridine (C6H5N)

Question 64. In Carius’s method for estimation of phosphorus, the precipitate of which compound is finally obtained?
Answer: Ammonium phosphomolybdate [(NH4)3PO4-12MoO3] or magnesium pyrophosphate (Mg2P2O7).

Question 65. Give an example of a nitrogenous organic compound to which Kjeldahl’s method for the estimation of nitrogen is not applicable.
Answer: Azobenzene (C6H5— N=N—C6H5)

Question 66. What is the C — C=C bond angle value in a benzene (C6H6) molecule?
Answer: 120°

Question 67.  What is the H — C = C bond angle value in an acetylene (C2H2) molecule?
Answer: 180°

Question 68.  Mention the state of hybridization of C and N-atoms in
Answer: sp, sp²

Question 69. Mention the state of hybridization of the carbon atoms present in the molecule, CH3CH =C =CHCH2CH3.
Answer: sp, sp, sp, sp, sp, sp

Question 70.  Give the name of a simple organic molecule that has a cylindrical n -electron cloud.
Answer: Acetylene

Question 71.  Give an example of a molecule in which all atoms lie in the same plane.
Answer: CH2=CH2

Question 72.  Give an example of a molecule in which all the atoms lie in a straight line.
Answer: HC = CH

Question 73. Calculate the number of cr and n -bonds in the molecule, CH3CH=CH—C = C —CHO.
Answer: σ -bond:12, π -bonds

Question 74. What are the possible values of n if CH2=(C)n—CH2 is a planar molecule?
Answer: n = 0,2,4, — etc

Question 75. What are the possible values of n if CH2— (C)nn=CH2 is a non-planar molecule?
Answer: n = 1, 3, 5, etc.

Question 76. Write the structure of a hydrocarbon molecule that contains one 4° carbon atom.
Answer:  (CH3)4C;

Question 77. Give an example of a compound that contains primary (1°), secondary (2°), and tertiary (3°) H -atoms.
Answer: CH3CH2CH(CH3)2

Question 78. How many alkyl groups can be derived from the alkane, CH3(CH2)3CH3?
Answer: Three

Question 79.  Write the group prefix used for the — COOH group.
Answer: ‘oic acid’;

Question 80.  Write the IUPAC name:
Answer: (3-ethyl-l-methyl)-pentyl -CH(CH3)CH2C(C2H5)CH2CH3

Question 81.  Write the IUPAC name: CH2=CH—CH=CH — C = CH
Answer: 
Hexa-l,3-dien-5-yne

Question 82.  Write the structure and name of an alkane having five C- atoms which on bromination gives only one monobromo derivative.
Answer: 
Neopentane [(CH3)4C];

Question 83. Write structures of two compounds which are metamers as well as position isomers.
Answer: CH3CO(CH2)2CH3, C2H5COC2H5

Question 84. Give an example of a carbonyl compound in which tautomerism does not take place.
Answer: Benzaldehyde (C6H5CHO)

Question 85.  Give an example of a 3° free radical containing six hyperconjugable hydrogens.
Answer: (CH3CH2)3C

Question 86.Which is the most stable carbocation having the formula,
Answer: Terf-butyl cation, Me3C

Question 87. Which has greater resonance stabilization—PhNH2 or PhNH3?
Answer: PhNH2

Question 88. Write the name of a cyclic compound that is isomeric with but-l-ene.
Answer: Cyclobutane

Question 89.  Write the names of two non-polar solvents that are commonly employed for crystallization.
Answer: Benzene and carbon tetrachloride

Question 90.  What type of furnace is used in the Carius method for the estimation of halogens?
Answer: Bomb furnace

Question 91. Mention the type of chromatography in which both the mobile and stationary phases are liquid.
Answer: Paper chromatography

Question 92. With the help of which type of distillation process glycerol can be purified?
Answer: Distillation under reduced pressure

Class 11 Chemistry Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Fill In The Blanks

Question 1. When four alkyl groups are attached to a carbon atom, that particular C-atom is called _______________
Answer:

Question 2. The shape of the molecule containing only sp² -hybridized carbon atoms is _______________
Answer: Planar

Question 3. The C-2 atom ofpropa-1,2-dieneis ________hybridised.
Answer: sp

Question 4. The shape of the molecule containing only sp-hybridized carbon atoms is_______________
Answer: Linear

Question 5. The successive members of a homologous series differ by _______________ mass units.
Answer: 14

Question 6. The molecule, HC = C—CH —CH — CH3 contains _______________ a -bonds.
Answer: 10

Question 7. The molecule contains_______________ 2°H -atoms.
Answer: 4

Question 8. The general formula of dihydric alcohol is _______________
Answer: CnH2n(OH)2

Question 9. The compound, 5-(l,2-dimethylpropyl)-6-ethyldecane contains _______________ 3° carbon atoms.
Answer: 4

Question 10. Stereoisomers have _______________ atom-to-atom bonding sequence or connectivity.
Answer: Same

Question 11. The number of isomers of a benzenoid aromatic compound having molecular formula, C7H8O is _______________
Answer: 5

Question 12. Ethoxyethane and 2-methoxy propane are related as _______________
Answer: 12 metamers

Question 13. The amount of negative charge present on each O-atom of carbonate ion is _______________
Answer: =-2/3

Question 14. The homolytic fission of a covalent bond requires _______________ energy than that required by its heterolytic c fission.
Answer: Less

Question 15. _______________ involves delocalization of σ -electrons of C — H bond of an alkyl group directly attached to an unsaturated system or to an atom with a vacant or singly p-orbital.
Answer: Hyperconjugation

Question 16. In paper chromatography, both the stationary and mobile phases are _______________
Answer: Liquid

Question 17. An impure sample of benzoic acid containing a little sodium chloride can be purified by _______________
Answer: Sublimation

Question 18. In steam distillation, the organic liquid boils at a _______________ temperature than its normal boiling point.
Answer: Lower

Question 19. In Cariu’s method of estimation, chlorine present in an organic compound is converted into _______________.
Answer: AgCl

Question 20. _______________ distillation is used to remove water from rectified spirit.
Answer: Azeotropic

Class 11 Chemistry Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Warm-Up Question And Answers

Question 1. Why are the four C —Cl bonds in CCI, equivalent?
Answer:

In the formation of a CCI4 molecule, a carbon atom with sp³ -hybridization (containing four equivalent sp³ – hybrid orbitals) uses its hybrid orbitals to form four C — Cl bonds with four Cl -atoms. So these C— Cl bonds are all equivalent.

Question 2. Which atoms in each of the following molecules lie in the same line and why?
Answer:

1. SP -carbon atoms and the atoms attached to them lie in the same line  Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Lie In Same Line

2. Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Lie In Same Line.

Question 3. A π-bond is weaker and more reactive than a σ-bond. sp -carbon atoms and the atoms attached to them lie in
Answer: 

End-on overlap gives rise to σ -bonds, and lateral overlap gives rise to n -bonds. Die lateral overlap in a π-bond cannot be as effective as the overlap in a σ bond. Hence, a σ -bond is always stronger than a π -bond.

Question 4. What is the shape of each of the given compounds?

  1. H2C=O
  2. CH3CI
  3. HCN

Answer:

  1. Planar trigonal
  2. Tetrahedral
  3. Linear

Question 5. Arrange Csp—Csp, Csp² —Csp², and Csp³ —Csp³ σ -bonds in order of increasing bond length and explain the order.
Answer:
Csp—H < Csp²— H < Csp³ —H. For an explanation, see bond lengths

Question 6. Arrange Csp—Csp, Csp² —Csp², and Csp³ —Csp³ σtrbonds in order of increasing bond dissociation enthalpy and explain the order
Answer:

Csp³—Csp³, Csp² —Csp², and Csp —Csp  – For explanation see bond strength

Question 7. Which is the correct bond-line structural formula of CH3CH2C ≡ CCH2CH3Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Correct Bond Line Structural
Answer:

Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Correct Bond Line Structural

Question 8. Identify the saturated compounds:

  1. CH3CH2CH=O
  2. C2H5OH

Answer:

  1. CH3CH2CHO and
  2. CH3CH2OH

Question 9. Write down the structure of an alkane that contains only primary (1°) carbon atoms and primary (1°) hydrogen atoms.

⇒ \(\mathrm{H}_3 \stackrel{\mathrm{l}^{\circ}}{\mathrm{C}}-\stackrel{1^{\circ}}{\mathrm{C}} \mathrm{H}_3\) – Ethane

Question 10. Give examples of the following:

  1. A mixed ether
  2. A tertiary alcohol,
  3. An aromatic aldehyde
  4. A mixed anhydride and (v)a secondary amine

Answer:

  1. Ethyl methyl ether (CH3CH2OCH3)
  2. Tert-butyl alcohol [(CH3)3COH]
  3. Benzaldehyde (C6H5CHO)
  4. Dimethylamine [(CH3)2NH]

Question 11. Arrange the following functional groups in order of preference as the principal functional groups:
Answer:  —CONH2,—NH2,—CHO, —CN, —COOH, —O

Question 12. Write the structures and IUPAC names of two metamers having molecular formula, C5H10O.
Answer: CH3COCH2CH2CH3 (but-2-one) and CH3CH2COCH2CH3 (pentan-3-one)

Question 13. Arrange the following atoms or groups in increasing order of -l effect: — L, —Br, —Cl, —F
Answer:
—I < —Br < —Cl < — F.

Question 14. Arrange in decreasing order of their strength and give Newtons; CH3CH2COOH > Me2CHCOOH > Me3CCOOH
Answer:

The strength of carboxylic acid decreases as the electron-releasing effect of the alkyl group attached to the —COOH group increases. Thus, acid strength decreases in the order: CH3CH2COOH > Me2CHCOOH > Me3CCOOH

Question 15. Why is BU3N more basic than BuNH2, in the C6H5Cl medium?
Answer:

Chlorobenzene is an aphotic solvent. In such solvents, the basic strength of the amine increases as the number of electron-donating alkyl groups on the amino nitrogen increases.

Question 16. Explain the following observation
Answer:

Resonance is inhibited due to steric hindrance. So, electrophilic substitution at p -position does not occur.

Question 17. Label the following carbonations as 1°, 2° or 3°:

 Organic Chemistry Basic Principles And Techniques Carbocations
Answer:

(1)2° (2) 3° (3) 2° (4) 1°

Question 18. Which one of the two carb anions is less stable and why?
Answer:
The second one is less stable as it is antiaromatic in nature 4π -electron system).

Question 19.  What are the shapes of the free radicals CH3, CF3 and why?
Answer:

CF3: Pyramidal (sp³ -hybridised C-atom),

CH3 : Planar (sp² -hybridised C-atom)

Question 20. Why does: CCl2 act as an electrophile?
Answer: Dichlorocarbene is an electron-deficient molecule. There is only a sextet of elections in the valence shell of the carbon atom of this molecule (: CCl2). So this molecule acts as an electrophile (to fulfill the octet of carbon)

Question 21. Which one out of the SN1 and SN2 reactions is more susceptible to steric effect and why?
Answer:
The SN2 reaction is susceptible to steric effect because, in the transition state, the carbon atom undergoing nucleophilic attack is attached to five atoms or groups.

Question 22. Which of the following reactions do not involve an intermediate and why?— SN1, SN2, E1, E2
Answer: SN2 and E2 reactions are one-step processes and hence intermediate is not involved in such reactions

Question 23. Explain the reason for the fusion of an organic compound with metallic sodium in Lasagne’s test
Answer: The purpose of the fusion of an organic compound with metallic sodium is to convert nitrogen, sulfur, and halogen present in the organic compound to water-soluble sodium cyanide, sodium sulphide, and sodium halide respectively

Question 24. How will you purify a sample of benzoic acid that contains traces of common salt? 
Answer: By sublimation. Benzoic acid sublimes by, leaving behind NaCl.

Question 25. Explain why glycerol cannot be purified by simple distillation. Mention a method that can be useful.
Answer: Glycerol cannot be purified by simple distillation because it decomposes at its boiling point. It can however be purified by distillation under reduced pressure.

Question 26. How do you separate a mixture of o-nitro phenol and p-nitro phenol?
Answer: o -and p -nitro phenol can be separated from a mixture by steam distillation.

Note: o-nitro phenol is steam volatile

Question 27. In the fusion test of organic compounds, the nitrogen of an organic compound is converted to—sodium nitrate, sodium nitrify,  sodium amide, and sodium cyanide.
Answer: Sodium cyanide

Question 28. Why is Lasagne’s extract not prepared with tap water?
Answer: Tap water often contains chloride ions, which will interfere in the test for halogen.

Question 29. Write down the formula of Prussian blue.
Answer: Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3

Class 11 Organic Chemistry

Question 30. Why do diazonium salts not respond to Lasagne’s test?
Answer: Under hot conditions, diazonium salts decompose to liberate N2 gas, and hence they do not respond to Lasagne’s test for nitrogen.

Question 31. Beilstein test cannot be considered as a confirmatory test for the presence of halogen in a compound—why?
Answer: Many halogen-free compounds,

For example – Certain derivatives of  Pyridine and quinoline, purines, acid amides, urea, thiourea, cyano compounds, etc. Give this test, presumably owing to the formation of volatile copper cyanides

Question 32. What is the role of CuSO4 and K2 SO4 used in Kjeldahl’s method for the estimation of nitrogen?
Answer: Potassium sulfate increases the boiling point of H2 SO4 and thus ensures a complete reaction, while copper sulfate catalyzes the reaction.

Question 33. Which method is used to estimate N in foodstuffs
Answer: Kjeldahl’s method is largely used for the estimation of nitrogen in foodstuffs, drugs, and fertilizers

Question 34. For which compounds, Kjeldahl’s method is not applicable for the estimation of nitrogen?
Answer: Kjeldahl’sand Techniques method does not apply to compounds] containing nitrogen in the ring

For example –  Pyridine, quinoline, etc.) and compounds containing nitrogen directly linked to an oxygen atom, NO2, or another nitrogen atom i.e., azo (— N=N— ) compounds.

Question 35. The weight of which compound is finally taken in the Carius method for the estimation of phosphorus
Answer: In this method, the amount of ammonium phosphomolybdic formed is weighed in the final step

WBCHSE Class 11 Chemistry Hydrocarbons Question And Answers And Multiple Choice Questions

Class 11 Chemistry Hydrocarbons Long Questions And Answers

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A

Question 1. How can an eclipsed conformation of ethane be converted into a staggered conformation?
Answer:

In an ethane molecule, if one carbon atom is kept fixed around the C—C bond axis and the other carbon atom is rotated at a minimum angle of 60°, then the eclipsed conformation is converted to the staggered conformation.

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons Staggered Conformation

Question 2. Give examples of a chiral conformation and an achiral conformation of n-butane.
Answer:

Gauche-staggered conformation of n-butane is chiral because it cannot be superimposed on its mirror image.

However, the fully eclipsed conformation of n-butane is achiral as it can be superimposed on its mirror image.

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons Superimposed On Its Mirror Image

WBCHSE Class 11 Chemistry Hydrocarbons Question And Answers And Multiple Choice Questions

Question 3. Arrange the following conformations of n-butane according to their increasing stability:

  1. Gauche-staggered
  2. Fully eclipsed
  3. Eclipsed and
  4. Ante-Mggered

Answer:

When 2-iodopropane is used as the alkyl halide in the Wurtz reaction, the alkane obtained is 2,3-dimethylbutane.

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons 2 And 3 Dimethylbutane

Question 4. Which of the following alkanes cannot be prepared by the Wurtz reaction in good yield?

  1. (CH3)2CHCH2CH(CH3)2
  2. (CH3)2CHCH2CH2CH(CH3)2
  3. (CH3)3CCH2CH2CH2CH3
  4. CH3CH2C(CH3)2CH2CH3
  5. (CH3)3C-C(CH3)3

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A

Answer:

(1), (3) and (4) are three unsymmetrical alkanes. So, these cannot be prepared by Wurtz reaction in good yield. Again, for preparing alkane (5), a 3° alkyl halide is required. So, in spite of being a symmetrical alkane, (5) cannot be prepared by the Wurtz reaction.

Question 5. How will you prepare methane and ethane starting from ethanoic acid?
Answer:

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons Wurtz Reaction

Class 11 Physics Class 12 Maths Class 11 Chemistry
NEET Foundation Class 12 Physics NEET Physics

Question 6. How many monochloro derivatives are obtained on chlorination of n-pentane, isopentane and neopentane? Write down their structures.
Answer:

There are three and four types of non-equivalent hydrogen atoms in n-pentane (CH3CH2CH2CH2CH3) and isopentane [CH3CH(CH3)CH2CH3] respectively. Whereas, in neopentane [(CH3)4C], all H -atoms are equivalent.

Therefore, chlorination of n-pentane, isopentane and neopentane form three, four and one monochloride derivatives respectively.

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons Monochloro Derivatives

Question 7. Chlorination of cyclohexane to prepare chlorocyclohexane is more practicable than the chlorination of methylcyclohexane to prepare l-chloro-l-methylcyclohexane— explain.
Answer:

There are five types of non-equivalent H -atoms in methylcyclohexane

Hydrocarbons Methylcyclohexane

When it undergoes chlorination, four other monochloride derivatives are formed along with 1-chloro-1-methylcyclohexane

Hydrocarbons 1 Chloro 1 Methylcyclohexane

As a result, the yield of the desired product is low’—’ and Low it is difficult to separate the product from the mixture. On the other hand, all H -atoms in cyclohexane are equivalent and thus, only chlorocyclohexane

Hydrocarbons Chlorocyclohexane

Is formed as the product for this reason, Achlorination of cyclohexane to prepare chlorocyclohexane is more feasible than the chlorination of methylcyclohexane to prepare 1-chloro-l-methylcyclohexane.

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A

Question 8. Write the IUPAC names of the following compounds:

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons Write The IUPAC Name Of The Compounds

Answer:

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons 3 Isopropyl 4 ANd 4 Dimethylpent 2 ene And 2 Ethyl 3 Methybut1 ene

Question 9. Write the structural formula:

  1. 3-(1- methyl ethyl) hex-2-ene; 
  2. 4-ethyl- 2, 4- dimethyl hept-1- ene

Answer:

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons Structural Formulas Answers

Question 10. Write the IUPAC names and structures of the alkenes having the molecular formula C5H10.
Answer:

IUPAC names and structures of the alkenes having the molecular formula C5H10 are as follows

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons Alkenes Molecular Formulas

Question 11. Write the mechanism of acid-catalysed dehydration of butyl alcohol.
Answer:

Dehydration of isopropyl alcohol in the presence of concentrated H2SO4 is an El reaction. The reaction occurs in three steps. The second step of the reaction is the slowest, i.e., it is the die rate-determining step of the reaction.

Step 1: Protonation of the alcohol.

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons Protonation Of The Alcohol

Step 2: Elimination of water molecules and formation of carbocation

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons Elimination Of Water Molecule

Step 3: Elimination of proton from carbocation

Hydrocarbons Elimination Of Proton From Carbocation

Question 12. Write the structures of A and B obtained in from given reactions
Answer:

Hydrocarbons Write Structure Of A And B Obtained In Given Reactions

Answer:

A is R —CHBr —CH3 and B is RCHBrCH2Br. The alkene, HBr and the formed alkyl bromide (A) are all colourless. So, the left reaction cannot be used to detect ethylenic unsaturation.

On the other hand, the alkene and the formed dibromoalkane (B) are colourless but bromine has a reddish-brown colour.

So, the right reaction can be used to detect ethylenic unsaturation because decolourisation of bromine takes place in this reaction.

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons Decolourisation Of Bromine Place

Question 13. How can a double bond be created in a molecule of a compound which has a carbon-carbon single bond?
Answer:

A double bond is created in a molecule of a compound containing a carbon-carbon single bond by the can given method.

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons Compound Containing Carbon Carbon

Question 14. Which reaction is used to detect ethylenic unsaturation and why? Write the structures and IUPAC names of the compounds expected to be obtainedin thegiven reactions:

⇒ \(\mathrm{CH}_3-\mathrm{CH}=\mathrm{CH}_2+\mathrm{HCl}→{\text { Peroxide }}\)

⇒ \(\mathrm{CH}_3-\mathrm{CH}=\mathrm{CH}_2+\mathrm{HBr}→{\text { Peroxide }}\)

Answer:

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons Given Reactions Answers

Question 15. Write the product of the given reaction. Explain its formation:

Hydrocarbons Write The Product of Reaction

Answer:

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons Product Of Given Reactions

Due to -R and -I -effect of — NO2 group, carbocation [I] is less stable than carbocation [II]. So the reaction proceeds through carbocation [II] and the major product formed is

Hydrocarbons Major Products Of Carbocations

Question 16. State Markownikoffs rule. Explain with an example. How would you convert ethylene to acetylene? Identify the compound in the reaction—

Hydrocarbons A In The Reaction

Answer:

Markownikoffs rule and example: Conversion of ethylene to acetylene

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons Ethylene To Acetylene

Question 17. Ethane can be dried by passing through concentrated H2S04 but not ethylene—why?
Answer:

Ethane being a saturated hydrocarbon does not react with concentrated H2SO4

CH3 —CH3  (Ethane) + cone. H2SO4 . So, ethane can be dried by passing through concentrated H2SO4.

On the other hand, ethylene being an unsaturated hydrocarbon, when passed through concentrated H2SO4 gets absorbed by the acid and forms ethyl hydrogen sulphate. So, ethylene cannot be dried by passing through concentrated H2SO4.

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A

Hydrocarbons Acetylene Prepared By Passing A Stem Of Pure Hydrogen

Question 18. Identify the compounds A, B and C in the following reaction and write their names:

Hydrocarbons Reaction And Write Their Names

Answer:

Carbonyl compounds B and C contain three and two carbon atoms respectively. There are also three carbon atoms on one side of the double bond and two carbon atoms on the other side of the double bond in the alkene.

Therefore, two alkenes with molecular formula C5H10 are: 2-methylbut-2-ene [CH3 —C(CH3)=CHCH3] and pent-2-ene (CH3CH2CH=CHCH3) . If A (C5H10) is 2-methylbut-2-ene, thenB (C3H6O) &C(C2H4O) areacetone (CH3COCH3) and acetaldehyde (CH3CHO) respectively.

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons 2 Methylbut 2 Form Of Acetone And Acetaldehyde

If A is pent-2-ene, then B and C are propanal (CH3CH2CHO) and acetaldehyde (CH3CHO) respectively.

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons Propanal And Acetaldehyde

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A

Question 19. An alkene on ozonolysis produces propanone and propanal. The alkene is—

  1. 2-methyl pent-2-ene
  2. 3-methyl pent-2- ene
  3. A-methyl pent-2-ene
  4. Hex-3-ene.

Answer:

The products formed on ozonolysis are propanone and propanal. Therefore, the alkene can be determined as—

Hydrocarbons 2 Methylpent 2 ene

The alkene is (1) 2-methylpent-2-ene.

Question 20. How can cis- and trans-hydroxylation of cis-2-butene be carried out? Comment on the optical activity of theformed products.
Answer:

Osmium tetroxide adds to the double bond of cis-2- butene to form osmic ester which is hydrolysed by an aqueous ethanolic solution of sodium bisulphite. In this case, the two —OH groups get attached to the doubly bonded carbon atoms from the same side of the double bond and form 1,2-diol.

So, cis-hydroxylation takes place in case of this reaction. On the other hand, cis-2-butene reacts with peracids to form the corresponding epoxide. The resulting epoxide on hydrolysis with dilute acid or alkali yields 1,2-diol.

Epoxidation followed by hydrolysis causes the addition of two —OH groups from the opposite sides of the double bond. So, trans-hydroxylation takes place in case of this reaction.

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons Racemic Mixture Optically Inactive

Question 21. What product would you expect from the following reaction?

Hydrocarbons Product Of Bromide

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A

Answer:

An alkyne should be formed when a vicinal dihalide is refluxed with ethanolic KOH. However, in the given case, an alkyne docs not form because a six-membered ring system cannot accommodate a linear portion like C—C=C —C. So, the compound formed is 1,3-cyclohexadiene.

Hydrocarbons Cyclohexadiene

Question 22. Identifyhand B in the following reactions

Hydrocarbons Identify A And B Reactions

Answer:

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons Identify A And b Following Reactions

Question 23. Give IUPAC names of the following compounds:

1. CH3CH2-CH=C=CH2

2.

Hydrocarbons IUPAC Names Of The Following Compounds Option 2

3.  CH2=CH-CH(CH3)-(CH3)C=CH2

Answer:

IUPACname: 1,2-pentadiene.

IUPAC name: 1-methyl-1,4-cyclohexadiene.

IUPAC name: 2,3-dimethyl-1,4-pentadiene

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A

Question 24. What are the two planar conformations of 1,3-butadiene? Which conformation is less stable and why?
Answer:

The two planar conformations of1,3-butadiene are—

Hydrocarbons Two Planar Conformations

Due to steric hindrance or strain, s-ds-conformation is less stable.

Question 25. Between 1,3- and 1,4-cyclohexadiene, which compound has a lower value of heat of hydrogenation and why?
Answer:

1,3-cyclohexadiene being a conjugated diene is more stable than 1,4-cyclohexadiene which is a nonconjugated diene. So, heat of hydrogenation of 1,3- cyclohexadiene has a lesser value than that of 1,4- cyclohexadiene.

Hydrocarbons Cyclohexadiene

Question 26. Calculate the double bond equivalent of benzene from its molecular formula.
Answer:

Double bond equivalent (DBE) of compound,

⇒ \(\mathrm{DBE}=\frac{\sum n(v-2)}{2}+1\)

Where, n is the number of different atoms present in the molecule and v is the valency of each atom. The molecular formula of benzene is C6H6.

So, DBE of benzene = \(\frac{6(4-2)+6(1-2)}{2}+1=4\)

Question 27. What knowledge about the carbon-carbon bond length in benzene may be obtained from valence bond theory?
Answer:

Hydrocarbons Hybrid Structure

The benzene molecule is a resonance hybrid of Kekule structures (1) and (2) and the contribution of each hybrid structure is 50% i.e., equal.

The single bonds (C—C) and the double bonds (C—C) in structure (1) become double and single bonds respectively in structure (2). As the two equally stable resonance structures (1) and (2) contribute equally to the hybrid.

it may be said that, any two adjacent carbon atoms of a benzene molecule are linked by a bond intermediate between a single and a double bond. So, all the carbon-carbon bonds of benzene are equivalent and their lengths are equal (1.39A).

Again, the bond order of each bond is the same (1.5). So, it can be said that all carbon-carbon bonds are equal in length.

⇒ \(\text { Bond order }=\frac{\text { Double bond }+ \text { Single bond }}{2}=\frac{2+1}{2}=1.5\)

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A

Question 28. Which of the following representations is correct and why?

Hydrocarbons Representation Is Correct Answer

Answer:

According to representation

(1), it seems that structures (1) and (2) have a separate existence. There is no separate existence of structures (1) and (2).

So, (1) and (2) cannot be related by ’. Thus, the representation (i) is incorrect. Since (1) and (2) are two resonance structures which have no separate existence. So, (1) and (2) can be related by’ •*-»ÿ ‘. Thus, the representation

(2) is correct.

Question 29. What is the basic difference between aromatic and anti¬ aromatic compounds?
Answer:

Monocyclic planar conjugated polyene systems containing (4n + 2) delocalised; π-electrons (n = 0, 1,2,3, are called aromatic compounds.

Hydrocarbons 6 Pi Electron System

Monocyclic planar conjugated polyene systems containing 4n delocalised π- electrons (n = 1,2,3,…) are called antiaromatic compounds.

Hydrocarbons 4 Pie Electron System

Question 30. Will cyclooctatetraene exhibit aromatic character? Explain.
Answer:

Since cyclooctatetraene does not contain (4n + 2)n electrons, it does not exhibit an aromatic character.

As cyclooctatetraene has 4n – electrons (n=2), it should be an antiaromatic compound. However, the ring of this compound is very large in size and so it does not exist in the unstable planar shape, rather it forms a tub shaped structure. As a result, conjugation is lost and so cyclooctatetraene is a non-aromatic compound.

Hydrocarbons Cyclooctatetraene Is A Non Aromatic Compound

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A

Question 31. Using the theory of aromaticity, explain the finding that A and B are different compounds, but Cand D are identical.
Answer:

As A is an antiaromatic compound (4nπ -electron system, n = 1 ), it becomes unstable due to the delocalisation of π electrons. As delocalisation of π -electrons does not take place for A, B is not the resonance structure of A.

B is the structural isomer of A. So, A and B are two different compounds. Again, C is an aromatic compound [(4n + 2)π electron-system, n = 1 ] which attains stability due to the delocalisation of electrons. So, delocalisation of electrons takes place for C. D is the resonance structure of C, i.e., Cand D are same compound.

Hydrocarbons Same And Separete Compounds

Question 32. Classify each of the given species aromatic, antiaromatic and nonaromatic

Hydrocarbons Aromatic And Antiaromatic And Nonaromatic

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A

Answer:

  1. Is an antiaromatic compound because the B atom contains a vacant p -orbital,
  2. Is a non-aromatic compound because one carbon atom of the ring does not have a p -orbital.
  3. Behaves as an aromatic compound with (4n + 2)π-electrons (n = 1) because of the vacant d -orbital and lone pair of electrons of the sulphur atom

Hydrocarbons Lone Pair Of Electron Of the Sulphur

Is an aromatic ion with (4n+2)π- electrons, n = 0

Question 33. Which is the smallest aromatics species?
Answer:

The smallest aromatic species is cyclopropenyl cation.

Hydrocarbons Structural Formulae Of Isomeric Nitrotoluenes

Question 34. Writestructuralformulae of isomeric nitrotoluenes.
Answer:

Structural formulae ofisomeric nitrotoluenes are

Hydrocarbons Structural Formulae Of Isomeric Nitrotoluenes

Question 35. Write structural formulae of isomeric dibromophenols.
Answer:

Structural formulae of isomeric dibromo phenols are

Hydrocarbons Structural Formulae Of Isomeric Dibromophenols

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A

Question 36. More than three dibromobenzenes are not possible—explain.
Answer:

Considering the resonance structures of benzene, it is easy to understand that positions 1,2- and 1,6- are indistinguishable. Similarly, positions 1,3- and 1,5- are indistinguishable. Thus, in case of bromobenzene, only three isomers are possible which are as follows

Hydrocarbons Dibromobenzene

Question 37. Write the IUPAC names of the given compounds

Hydrocarbons IUPAC Names Of The Given Compounds

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A

Answer:

  1. 1,2-dihydroxybenzene
  2. 1-phenylpropanoid-l-one
  3. 2-hydroxybenzoic acid
  4. Al-phenylethylamine
  5. l-bromo-3-chlorobenzene
  6. 3-phenylpropanoid acid
  7. 2,4,6-trinitrotoluene
  8. 4-hydroxy-3-methoxy benzaldehyde

Question 38. Write structures and IUPAC names:

  1. Mesitylene
  2. Styrene
  3. Pyrogallol
  4. Picric acid
  5. Salicylaldehyde
  6. Benzophenone
  7. TNT
  8. Phthalic acid
  9. Anthranilic acid.

Answer:

Hydrocarbons Write Structures And IUPAC Names

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A

Question 39. Classify the following groups as o-/p-or m- directing group and activating or deactivating group:

  1. -NO2
  2. -Cl
  3. -C2H5
  4. -CP3
  5. OH
  6. — NHCOCH3
  7. —NH3
  8. — O
  9. —COCH3

Answer:

  1. — NO2 (deactivating and m -directing),
  2. —Cl (deactivating and o/p -directing),
  3. —C2H5 (activating and o-lp- directing),
  4. — CF3 (deactivating and m -directing),
  5. —OH (activating and o-lp- directing),
  6. — NHCOCH3 (activating and o-lp- directing),
  7. — NH3 (deactivating and m directing),
  8. — Oe (activating and o-lp-directing
  9. — COCH3 (deactivating and m -directing).

Question 40. Explain each of the following observations:

  1. Although —Cl is a deactivating group, it is o-lp-directly.
  2. The —CH3 group is an o-/p- directing group, even though the carbon atom contains no unshared pair of electrons.
  3. The —OCH3 group is an activating and o-/p directing group.
  4. The — CCl3 group is a m -directing group, even though the carbon atom is not bonded to a more electronegative atom bya double or triple bond.

Answer:

3. —OCH3  group is an o-/p-directing group because an unshared pair of electrons on O-atom participate in resonance (+R -effect) and increase the electron density of the ring at ortho- and para-positions.

So, electrophiles (E) preferably enter the ortho- and para-positions. Due to an increase in electron density, the ring becomes more activated than the unsubstituted benzene towards an electrophilic substitution reaction. Thus, — OCH3 is an activating group.

4. —CCl3 is an electron-withdrawing group because of its -I effect which is attributed to the presence of three highly electronegative Cl -atoms. Consequently, it decreases the electron density of the benzene ring, especially at the ortho- and para-positions.

So, —CCl3 is a deactivating group which makes the ring less reactive towards electrophilic substitution and substitution occurs preferably at meta-position.

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A

Question 41. How will you prepare benzene from the given compounds?

  1. C6H5COOH
  2. C6H5CMe3 
  3. C6H5CH2Cl
  4. C3H5Br

Answer:

Hydrocarbons Prepare benzene From The Given Compounds

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A

Question 42. Write two processes to convert C6H6 into C6H5D.
Answer:

Hydrocarbons Write Two Process To Convert

Question 43. Write the Hydrocarbons Write The Formula And Name Of The Productsformed.

 

Answer:

Hydrocarbons Formula Name Of The Products Formed

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A

Question 44. Why groups like — CHO, — NO2, — B(OR) — PBr3 and — SR2 act as meta-directing groups?
Answer:

Since the carbon atom of the:

  1. — CHO group is bonded to the oxygen atom by a double bond, the nitrogen atom of the
  2. — NO2 group is linked with the oxygen atom by a double bond, the boron atom of the
  3. —B (OR)3 group contains a vacant p -orbital and the phosphorus and sulphur atoms of the groups

+ PBr3 and — +SR2-, have vacant d-orbitals, all of these groups reduce the electron densities of ortho- and para- positions by their -R effect. Consequently, the electron density at the metaposition becomes relatively higher and the electrophile preferably enters the meta-position. Thus, these groups behave as meta-directing groups

Question 45. Arrange the compounds in increasing order of their rate of nitration and give reason: Benzene, Toluene, Nitrobenzene, Hexadeuterobenzene (C6D6).
Anwer:

Increasing order of rate of nitration of given compounds is: nitrobenzene < benzene = hexadeuterobenzene < toluene. The electron-attracting nitro (— NO2) group decreases the electron density of the nitrobenzene ring and as a result, its nitration occurs at a rate slower than that of benzene.

On the other hand, the electron-repelling methyl (— CH3) group increases the electron density of the toluene ring and as a result, its nitration proceeds at a rate faster than that of benzene. Benzene and hexadeuterobenzene (C6D6) undergo nitration at the same rate because in aromatic electrophilic substitution reaction, cleavage of C — H or C — D bond does not occur at the rate-determining step.

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A

Question 46. A mixture of benzene and bromine solution remains unchanged for indefinite period oftime, but ifan iron nail is added to the solution, bromination of benzene occurs rapidly—explain.
Answer:

Benzene is an aromatic compound having no ethylenic unsaturation. So benzene does not participate in addition reaction with bromine. Again, substitution reaction of benzene does not take place with the poor electrophile bromine alone.

So a solution of bromine in benzene remains stable (f.e., unchanged) for indefinite period of time. However, when an iron nail is added to the solution, bromination of benzene occurs to yield bromobenzene because iron then acts as a halogen carrier. The red solution of bromine becomes colourless

2Fe + 3Br2→2FeBr3; Br2 + FeBr3 → Br+ FeBr

C6H6 + Br+ FeBr4 →C6H5Br + HBr + FeBr3

Question 47. Write the monosubstituted compounds formed in each of the following reactions and state whether each reaction is faster or slower than that of benzene.

  1. Nitration of C6H5NHCOCH3,
  2. Bromination of C6H5CBr3
  3. Chlorination of C6H5CMe3
  4. Nitration of C6H5—C6H5
  5. Nitration of C6H5—COOCH3
  6. Sulphonation of C6H5CHMe2
  7. Nitration of C6H5CN,
  8. Bromination of C6H5I,
  9. Nitration of C6H5-C6H4C6H5

Answer:

1. p-O2NC6H4NHCOCH3 (for this compound nitration occurs faster than benzene).

2. m-BrC6H4CBr3 (for this compound bromination occurs slower than benzene)

3. p-ClC6H4CMe3 (for this compound chlorination occurs faster than benzene)

4. p-O2NC6H4C6Hg (for this compound nitration occurs faster than benzene)

5. m-O2NC6H4COOMe (for this compound nitration occurs slower than benzene)

6. p-HSO3C6H4CHMe2 (for this compound sulphonation occurs faster than benzene)

7. m-O2NC6H4CN (for this compound nitration occurs slower than benzene)

8. p- BrC6H4I (reaction occurs slower than benzene)

9.

Hydrocarbons Faster Than Benzene In The Middle Ring

(reaction occurs faster than benzene in the middle ring because it is attached to two activating — CgH5 groups on both sides.)

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A

Question 48. Write three methods by which alkyl side chains can be introduced into the benzene ring
Answer:

The: methods by which alkyl side chains, can’ be introduced into the benzene ring are—

1. By using (a) CH3CH3X, AlCl3CH2=CH2 HF and CH3CH2OH, BF3 or concentrated H2SO4 in Friedel-Crafts alkylation reaction.

2. By acylation of benzene using CH3COCI or (CH3CO)2O, AlCl3 followed by . Clemmensen reduction Hydrocarbons Clemmensen Reduction the formed ketone.

4. By reacting CH3CH2Br with Ph2CuLi according to Corey-House synthesis.

Question 49. Classify the following groups based on their orientation and reactivity:

Hydrocarbons Orientation And Reactivity

Answer:

1,4 and 5 are activating and ortho-/para- directing groups. 3 and 6 are deactivating and meta-directing groups. 2 is a deactivating group (due to — NO2 ) and is ortho-/para directing >C=C<

Question 50. 1-butyne and 2-butyne are allowed to react separately with the reagents given below:

  1. Na, liquid NH3
  2. H2 (1 mole), Pd-BaSO4, quinoline,
  3. H2SO4,H2O, H2SO4
  4. H2/Pt.

Which reagent(s) will produce the same product in both cases? Write the structures, of products formed in these cases
Answer:

Both 1-butyne & 2-butyne react separately with reagents 1 and 2 to produce 1-butene and 2-butene respectively

However, reagents(3 & 4 react with 1-butyne & 2-butyne separately to yield same products (2-butanone & butane)

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A

Hydrocarbons 2 Butanone And Butane

 

Question 51. Ethyne reacts with dil. H2S04 in presence of Hg2+ salts to give acetaldehyde, but with HC1, under similar conditions, it gives vinyl chloride. Account for such observation.
Answer:

In the first step, ethyne reacts with Hg2+ in to form cyclic complex (I) . This is then attacked by more nuleophilic H2O , 2— rather than, weakly nucleophilic SO4, to form unstable vinyl alcohol which then tautomerism to give acetaldehyde

Hydrocarbons Tautomerises To Give Acetaldehyde

It HCl is used instead of H2SO4 then the complex (I) is attacked by more nucleophilic Cl-, rather than weakly nucleophilic H2O, to give vinyl chloride

Hydrocarbons Vinyl Chloride

An alkane has a molecular mass of 72. Give structure of all the possible isomers along with their IUPAC OH names

Let the alkane be CnH2n+2. Its molecular

=12n + (2n + 2) = 14n + 2

.*. 14n + 2 = 72 , thus n – 5 and hence the alkane is C5H12

The isomers of the alkane C5H12 are—

Hydrocarbons Isomers Of The Alkenes

Question 52. Find the number of structural and configurational isomers of a bromo compound C5H9Br formed by the addition of HBR to 2-pentyne.
Answer:

Addition of one molar proportion of HBr to CH3—CH2—C=C—CH3 produces two structural isomers 1 and 2

Hydrocarbons Structural Isomers Of A And B

Each of these structural isomers can exist as a pair of geometrical isomers (cis and trans) and hence there are four possible configurational isomers

Hydrocarbons Four Possible Configurational Isomers

Question 53. Identify the products P and Q in the following reaction:

Hydrocarbons Identify The Products P And Q

Answer: In absence of light, the reaction occurs via polar mechanism

Hydrocarbons In Absence And Presence Of Light Reactions

Question 54. Identify the product ‘T’ in the following reaction and the major product. account for its formation.
Hydrocarbons Identify The Product Of T
Answer:

The product‘T is iodobenzene.

Explanation: Since I is less electronegative than Cl, so I+ is the effective electrophile that takes part in the reaction

Hydrocarbons Sigma Complex And Iodobenzene

Question 55. Identify the major product obtained on; monobromination (Br2/FeBr3) of meta methyl anisole and account for its formation
Answer:

Hydrocarbons Monobromination Of Meta Methylanisole

Both —CH3 and —OCH3 are o-/p-directing groups. Therefore, the possible positions of attack which are facilitated by these groups are indicated by arrows as shown below

Hydrocarbons Indicated By Arrows Of Possible Positions

Attack by the’electrophile (Br+) is disfavoured at C2 because this position is most crowded. Again -I effect of — OCH3 group does not favour attack at C6 . So most favourable attack occurs at C4 , thereby producing 4-bromo-3-methylanhole as

Question 56. The enthalpy of hydrogenation of cyclohexene is -119.5 kj. mol-1 ,. If the resonance energy of benzene is 150.4 kj. mol-1 , estimate its enthalpy of Br2/FeBr3 hydrogenation.
Answer:

Enthalpy of hydrogenation of cyclohexene

=-119.5 kj- mol-1

So enthalpy of hydrogenation of hypothetical cyclohexatriene

= 3 × -119.5 kj- mol-1,

In otherwards, the calculated (or theoretical) enthalpy of hydrogenation of benzene =-3 × -119.5 kj- mol-1,

Let the actual (i.e., experimental) enthalpy of hydrogenation of benzene = × kj- mol-1

Now, R. E. of benzene = calculated enthalpy of hydrogenation of benzene- actual enthalpy of hydrogenation of benzene

o,-150.4 = -3 X 119.5 —x

x = -3 ×119.5 + 150.4 = -208.1 kj. mol-1

Question 57. How low will you prove:

  1. Acidic character of acetylene.
  2. Presence of terminal =CH2 group in 1-pentene.
  3. Presence of acetylenic hydrogen in 1-butyne.
  4. 2-butene is a symmetrical alkene. 1-butyne

Answer:

When acetylene is added to water and shaken, the resulting solution does turn blue litmus red. The following reactions in which the H-atoms of acetylene are replaced by metal atom prove the acidic character ofacetylene.

  1. HBr (a) Acetylene (HC=CH) reacts with sodium in two steps to form monosodium acetylide (HC = CNa) and disodium acetylide (NaC = CNa) respectively and in each case, H is evolved.

Hydrocarbons Disodium Acetylide

2. When acetylene gas is passed through ammoniacal Cu2Cl2 or AgNO3 solution, metallic acetylide is precipitated in each case

Hydrocarbons Metallic Acetylide Is Precipitated

3. Ozonolysis of 1-pentene leads to the formation of formaldehyde (HCHO) as one of the products. This proves that there is a terminal =CH2 group present in 1-pentene

Hydrocarbons Ozonolysis Of 1 Pentene

When 1-butyne is treated with ammoniacal cuprous chloride, a red precipitate of cuprous 1-butynide is obtained. Again, when an aqueous solution of silver nitrate is added to the alcoholic solution of1-butyne, a white precipitate of silver 1-butynide is obtained

Hydrocarbons 1 Butyne Is Treated With Ammoniacal Cuprous Chloride

Ozonolysis of any symmetrical alkene results in the formation of only one carbonyl compound (2 moles). Since 2-butene, on ozonolysis, produces two moles of acetaldehyde (CH3 CHO), it must be a symmetrical alkene. Its structure is: CH3 CH=CH CH3

Question 58. Identify the major product obtained in each of the following reactions and explain its formation

Hydrocarbons Following Reactions And Explain Its Formation

Answer:

1. 

Hydrocarbons 1 Bromo 1 Phenylpropane Of Major

Although the alkene is an unsymmetrical one, Markownikoff’s rule is not directly applicable here because there are same number of H-atoms attached to double-bonded carbons. Out of the 2 carbocations ( C6H5CHCH2CH3 & C6H5CH2CHCH3 ) obtained in the first step of the reaction, the first one (a benzylic carbocation) is more stable because it is stabilised by resonance involving the benzene ring. So, this carbocation is formed more easily and readily and in the second step, it combines with Br ion to give 1-bromo-l-phenylpropane as the major product

2. 

Hydrocarbons 2 Chloro 1 Iodo 2 Methylpropane

This reaction occurs according to Markownikoff’s rule. Chlorine is more electronegative than iodine. So, in Iδ+– Clδ- molecule, the I-atom with a partial positive charge combines first with the alkene as an electrophile. Between the two carbocations, (CH3)2+CCH2I and  (CH3)2+CICH2 formed in the first one being a 3° carbocation is relatively more stable. So, it is formed more easily and readily and in the  second step, it combines with Cl to give 2-chloro-liodo-2-methylpropane as the major product

3. 

Hydrocarbons 2 Methylpropane

Double bond is more reactive than triple bond towards electrophilic addition reactions. For this reason, bromine (1 mole) is added mainly to the double bond of the compound to produce 4, 5 -dibromopent-1-yne as the major product.

Question 59. Write the names and structures of the two alkenes (molecular formula: C4H6) which give the compound when added to HBr in the absence of organic peroxide but different compounds when added to HBr in the presence of peroxide
Answer:

When but-1-ene (CH3CH2CH=CH2) and but-2-ene (CH3CH=CHCH3) react with HBr in absence of an organic peroxide, the same product is obtained.

Hydrocarbons React With HBr In Absence Of An Organic Peroxide

However, in the presence of an organic peroxide, the addition of HBr to but-1-ene occurs contrary to Markownikoff’s rule and hence differences are obtained from these two cases

1.

Hydrocarbons Different Producers Are Obtained In These Two Cases But 1 ene

2.

Hydrocarbons Different Producers Are Obtained In These Two Cases But 2 ene

Question 60. Mention two reactions in which ethylene and benzene behave differently and two reactions in which they behave similarly.
Answer:

Benzene, unlike ethylene, fails to discharge the red colour of bromine in CCl4 or the reddish-violet (purple) colour of potassium permanganate solution because, unlike ethylene the π -electron system of benzene possesses extraordinary
O2 stabilisation.

So, in these two reactions ethylene and benzene behave differently.

Hydrocarbons Ethylene And Benzene

In the following two reactions, ethylene and benzene behave similarly.

1. Both ethylene and benzene bums with sooty flame to produce CO2 and H2O

⇒ \(\mathrm{C}_2 \mathrm{H}_4+3 \mathrm{O}_2 \longrightarrow 2 \mathrm{CO}_2+2 \mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{O}\)

⇒  \(2 \mathrm{C}_6 \mathrm{H}_6+15 \mathrm{O}_2 \longrightarrow 12 \mathrm{CO}_2+6 \mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{O}\)

2. Both ethylene and benzene react with ozone to form ozonide (an additional

⇒ \(\mathrm{C}_2 \mathrm{H}_4+\mathrm{O}_3 \longrightarrow \mathrm{C}_2 \mathrm{H}_4 \mathrm{O}_3\) (Ethylene (ozonides)

⇒  \(\mathrm{C}_6 \mathrm{H}_6+3 \mathrm{O}_3 \longrightarrow \mathrm{C}_6 \mathrm{H}_6 \mathrm{O}_9\) (Benzene tri ozonide)

Question 61. Distinguish between:

Hydrocarbons Toluene
Answer:

1. Toluene (C6H5CH3), on oxidation by alkaline KMnO4 solution followed by acidification gives a white crystalline precipitate of benzoic acid (C6H5COOH). On the other hand, terf-butylbenzene does not undergo such an oxidation reaction by an alkaline KMnO4 solution.

Hydrocarbons Toluene.

2. O -xylene and m -xylene, on oxidation by alkaline KMnO4 solution, produce phthalic acid and isophthalic acid respectively. Phthalic acid, when heated, forms phthalic anhydride which responds to phthalein test On the other hand, isophthalic acid on heating does not produce any anhydride.

Hydrocarbons O-xylene And M-Xylene On Oxidation By Alkaline

Question 62. Write the name & structure of the following compounds:

  1. An unsaturated aliphatic hydrocarbon which forms monosodium salt.
  2. An organic compound which causes depletion of the ozone layer.
  3. An alkane which is used as a fuel for household cooking.
  4. An alkyl bromide which reacts with alcoholic KOH to form only 1-butene.
  5. An alkene which reacts with HBr in the presence or absence of peroxide to give the same product.
  6. A compound containing iodine which, when heated with silver powder, produces acetylene.
  7. An alkyl bromide (C4H9Br) does not participate in Wurtz reaction.
  8. An alkene which on ozonolysis forms glyoxal and formaldehyde.

Answer:

  1. Propyne (CH3C= CH).
  2. Dichlorodifluoromethane (CF2Cl2).
  3. Butane(CH3CH2CH2CH3).
  4. 1-bromobutane (CH3CH2CH2CH2Br).
  5. 2-butene (CH3CH=CHCH3).
  6. Iodoform (CHI3).
  7. Tert-butylbromide (Me3CBr).
  8. 1,3-butadiene (CH2=CH—CH=CH2)

Question 63. Identify A … G in the following reaction sequence

Hydrocarbons Identify A ..G In The Following Reaction Sequence

Answer:

Hydrocarbons Identify A ... G In The following Reaction Sequence Answer

Question 64. Write structures and names of the compounds A to Q in the following reaction sequences:

Hydrocarbons The Structures And Names Of The Compounds A To Q

Answer:

Hydrocarbons The Structures And Names Of The Compounds A To Q .

Hydrocarbons The Structures And Names Of The Compounds A To Q..

Question 65. How will you distinguish between each of the given pairs of compounds by a single chemical test? 

  1. Ethylene and acetylene
  2. Ethane and acetylene
  3. 1-butyne and 2-butyne
  4. Ethane and ethylene.
  5. Propene and propyne
  6. 1-butene and 2-butene
  7. 2-pentene and benzene
  8. Benzene and cyclohexene.

Answer:

The distinction between two compounds should be written in a tabular form. A reagent which either causes a colour change, or evolution of a gas or the appearance of a precipitate should be selected for this purpose.

Hydrocarbons The distinction Between Two Copounds Sholub be Witten In A Tabualr Form

Hydrocarbons The distinction Between Two Copounds Sholub be Witten In A Tabualr Form 3

Hydrocarbons The distinction Between Two Copounds Sholub be Witten In A Tabualr Form 4

Question 66. How will you carry out the following transformations:

  1. Acetylene → Acetone
  2. Acetylene →Dldeuteroacetylene(C2D2)
  3. Acetylene → Acetylenedicarboxyllc acid
  4. 1-butyne → 2-butyne
  5. Propene → 1-propanol  Propyne →  Propanal

Answer:

Hydrocarbons Acetylenes Acetone

Hydrocarbons Acetylenes Acetone2

Question 67. Boiling points of three isomeric pentanes are 36.2°C, 28°C and 9.5°C respectively. Identify the compounds and give reason.
Answer:

Strength of van der Waals forces depends on the area of products, A and B obtained in the following reactions: contact between molecules. Area of contact between straight-chain n -pentane (CH3CHCH2CH2CH3) molecules is maximum. So, the extent of van der Waals’ attraction among its molecules is maximum. For’this reason, its boiling point is highest (36.2°C) . On the other hand, area of contact between spherical neopentane [(CH3)4C] molecules is minimum.

So, _ the extent of van der Waals’ attraction among its molecules is the minimum. For this reason, its boiling point is the lowest (9.5°C) . Again, the area of contact between isopentane [(CH3)2CHCH2CH3] molecules is intermediate between n-pentane and neopentane and so, its boiling point (28°C) is intermediate between the other two isomers.

Question 68. Write the structure and the name of the monobromoderivative which is obtained as the major product when n-butane reacts with bromine in the presence of light. Why is it produced in larger amount?
Answer:

n -butane reacts with bromine in the presence of light to give 2-bromobutane as the major product.

Hydrocarbons 1 Bromobutane And 2 Bromobutane

The reaction occurs through free radical mechanism. As 2° free radical (CH3CH2CHCH3) is relatively more stable than 1° free radical (CH3CH2CH2CH2) , displacement of 2° H-atom occurs rapidly to give 2-bromobutane as major product

Question 68. Possible methods for preparation of 4-methyl-2- pentyne arc given. Which method in desirable & why?

Hydrocarbons Desirable Reactions

Answer:

In both the methods given, the reaction in the second step (reddish-brown) proceeds through SN2 pathway and it is known that an SN2 reaction is very susceptible to steric effect So, the product will be obtained in good yield if in the second step, methyl or primary alkyl bromide is used. In the second step of the second method, methyl bromide (CH3Br) has been used. Hence, the second method is desirable.

Question 70.  Three separate cylinders contain methane, ethylene acetylene respectively. How will you identify them?
Ana.

The three gases are first separately passed through the ammoniacal solution of cuprous chloride. The gas, which gives a red precipitate, is acetylene. The gases in the remaining two cylinders are separately passed through a solution of bromine in CCl4. The gas, which decolourises the reddish-brown solution of bromine, is ethylene. Hence, the remaining gas in the other cylinder is methane.

Hydrocarbons Cylinder Methane

Question 71. Give example alkene which on oxidation by acidic solution of KMn04 or on ozonolysis gives the same compound. Give reason.
Answer:

A terminal =CR2 group of an alkene gets converted into a ketone when the alkene is heated with an acidic solution of KMnO4 or subjected to ozonolysis. Hence, an example of such an alkene is 2,3-dimethyl but-2-ene

Hydrocarbons 2 And 3 Dimethylbut 2 ene

Question 72. Write the formulas and names of the alkenes which on hydrogenation form 2-methylpentane.
Answer:

The carbon skeleton of the probable alkenes is

Hydrocarbons Probable Alkenes

As there are four different positions of the double bond in the given carbon skeleton, four alkenes are possible which form 2-methylpentane on hydrogenation. The probable alkenes are:

Hydrocarbons 2 Methylpentane On Hydrogenation

Question 73. Write two possible methods of preparing 2-methylpropane by Corey-House synthesis. Out of these two methods, which one is better and why?
Answer:

Two possible methods of preparing 2-methylpropane by Corey-House synthesis are as follows-

Hydrocarbons 2 Methylpropane By Corey House Synthesis

In Corey-House synthesis, the third step is an SN2 reaction (sensitive to steric effect). So, this step is highly favourable for methyl or primary halides, less’ favourable for secondary alkyl halides arid1does not occur in case of tertiary alkyl halides. In methods (1) and (2), a secondary halide and methyl halide have been used respectively In ease of the third step. So, method

(1) Is better than the method

(2) for preparing 2-methyl propane by Corey-House synthesis.

Question 74. A or B Hydrocarbons A And B Geometrical Isomers A and B are the two geometrical isomers. Identify them.
Answer:

The alkene which gives only acetaldehyde on ozonolysis is 2-butene (CH3– CH —CH CH3).

CH3CH=O+O=CHCI ⇒ CH3CH=CHCH3

So, A and B are the two geometrical isomers of 2-butene:

Hydrocarbons Two Geometrical Isomers

Question 75. Dlazomethane (CH2N2), on decomposition forms singlet methylene (: CH2) which gets attached to different non-equivalent C—H bonds of alkanes to form various alkanes. Name the alkanes formed when pentane (CH3CH2CH2CH2CH3) reacts with singlet methylene. Assuming methylene to be highly reactive and less selective, calculate the probable amounts of the formed alkanes.
Answer:

Three alkanes are formed when pentane reacts with singlet methylene because there are three non-equivalent C—H bonds in pentane molecules. So, the alkanes formed are:

Hydrocarbons Singlet Methylene Form Of The Alkanes

As methylene is highly reactive and less selective, its insertion occurs a random fashion. So, the amounts of the formed compounds are calculated the basis of probitblllity factor and number ofequivalent C— H bonds. For example, Percentage of hexane,

(CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2CH3) = \(\frac{6}{12}\) × 100 = 50

Percentage of 2-methyl pentane

CH3—CH – CH3—CH2CH2CH3  =\(\frac{6}{12}\) × 100 = 50

percentage of 3-methyl pentane = \(\frac{2}{12}\) × 100 = 16.7

Question 76. How will you prepare (CH3)2CD14 CH3 from propane (CH3CH2CH3) ?
Answer:

Hydrocarbons How Will You Prepare Form Of Propane

Question 77. How will you prepare \({ }^{14} \mathrm{CH}_3{ }^{14} \mathrm{CH}_2{ }^{14} \mathrm{CH}_3\) taking \({ }^{14} \mathrm{CH}_3 \mathrm{I}\) as the only source of carbon?
Answer:

Hydrocarbons Source Of Carbon

Question 78. In the reaction of 2-pentene with HI, the two isomeric iodopentanes are produced in almost equal amounts —why?
Answer:

The two doubly bonded carbon atoms in 2-pentene are bonded to the same number (one) of H-atoms. So, the two isomeric iodopentanes are produced in nearly equal amounts.

Hydrocarbons 2 Idopentane And 3 Iodopentane

The two 2° carbocations (CH3CH2CH2CHCH3 and CH3CH2CHCH2CH3 ) obtained on the addition of proton at C-2 or C-3 are almost equally stable. So, the reaction proceeds through the two routes nearly at the same rate and consequently, the two isomeric iodopentanes are formed in nearly equal amounts.

Question 79. From the following two reactions, arrange HC = CH, NH3 and H2O in the increasing order of their acidic character.

  1. HC = CH + NaNH2→ HC = CNa + NH3
  2. HC = CNa + H2O → HC = CH + NaOH

Answer:

In reaction no. , HC ≡ CH exhibits its acidic character and produces NH3 from NaNH2. So HC = CH is more acidic than NH3.

On the other hand, in reaction (2), water exhibits its acidic character and produces HC = CH from HC = CNa. So, H2O is more acidic than HC = CH. Thus, the increasing order of acidic character: NH3 < HC=CH < H2O

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A

Question 80. Unlike acetylene, ethylene dissolves in concentrated sulphuric acid—why?
Answer:

In the first step of the reaction with concentrated H2SO4, ethylene forms an ethyl cation (CH3C+H2) and acetylene forms a vinyl cation (CH2 =+CH) by accepting a H® ion.

Since vinyl cation is less stable than ethyl cation, in the case of acetylene, the first step (rate-determining step) of the reaction does not occur easily. Thus, unlike ethylene, acetylene fails to dissolve in concentrated H2SO4

Question 81. Write the structure of the product expected to be formed when CH2=CH—CH3(C = 14C) is subjected to free radical chlorination.
Answer:

Hydrocarbons Chlorination

Question 82. Identify the products obtained when ethylene gas is passed through bromine water in the presence of sodium chloride.
Answer:

Hydrocarbons Bromine Water Presence Of Sodium Chloride

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A

Question 83. Which alkenes are formed on dehydrating the following alcohols in the presence of acid? Give the reaction mechanism.

Hydrocarbons Dehydrating The Following Alcohols

Answer:

Hydrocarbons Alkenes Are Formed On Dehydrating

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A

Question 84. The conjugated dienes are more reactive than alkenes which in turn are more reactive than alkynes towards electrophilic addition reactions —explain.
Answer:

The reactivity of alkenes, alkynes or conjugated dienes towards electrophilic addition reaction depends on the stability of the intermediate carbocation obtained in the rate-determining step by addition of the electrophile (E+).

Hydrocarbons Electrophilic Addition Reactions

Out of the three carbocations (la, Ila and IUa), (IlIa) is the most stable because it is stabilised by resonance. Again, out of (la) and (Ila), (IIla) is less stable because the positive charge in it is placed on a more electronegative sp2 -hybfiflis6d carbon atom.

Thus, the stabilities of these carbocations follow the order IIIa> la > Ila. Therefore, the order of activity of these compounds is: conjugated diene > alkene > alkyne.

Question 85. Calculate the resonance energy of 1,3-butadiene from the following data

Hydrocarbons 1 And 3 Butadiene

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A

Answer:

The heat liberated due to hydrogenation of one double bond = 30 kcal – mol-1

The heat liberated due to hydrogenation of two double bonds = 30 × 2 = 60 kcal – mol-1 .

Heat liberated due to hydrogenation of 1,3-butadiene (CH=CH—CH=CH2) = 57 kcal -mol-1 .

Therefore, resonance energy of 1,3-butadiene = 60- 57 = 3 kcal – mol-1

Question 86. Dehydration of alcohols to alkene is carried out by treating with cone. H2SO4 but not with cone. HCl or HNO3. Give reasons.
Answer:

Dehydration of alcohol proceeds via the formation of a carbocation intermediate. If HCl is used as the dehydrating agent then chloride ion (Cl), being a good nucleophile, attacks at carbonium ion carbon (Cl+) thereby producing alkyl chloride as the substitution product together with the alkene as the elimination product.

Hydrocarbons Dehydration Of Alcohols

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A

If cone. H2SO4 Is used as the reagent then H2SO4 ion derived from H2SO4 does not act as a nucleophile. Instead the carbocation loses a proton from the β -carbon atom to give alkene (R—CH=CH2) as the elimination product.

Hydrocarbons Elimination Of Products

If cone. HNO3 is used as the reagent then it being a strong oxidising agent, brings about oxidation of the alcohol first to an aldehyde or a ketone and then to a carboxylic acid.

Hydrocarbons Ketone And Then Carboxylic Acid

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A

Question 87. How will you prepare ethylbenzene by using ethyne as the only organic substance and any other inorganic substance of your choice?
Answer:

Ethylbenzene (C6H5C2H5) may be prepared from ethyne (acetylene) through the following steps:

Hydrocarbons Prepare Ethylbenzene By Using Ethyne

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A

Question 88. Explain why bromination of benzene requires FeBr3 as a catalyst, while bromination of anisole (C6H5OCH3) does not require any catalyst.
Answer:

Since the benzene molecule is not so reactive,© for bromination it requires more reactive bromine cation (Br) or the complex Br— Br—FeBr3 as the electrophile. Due to the presence of electron-donating (+R) methoxy (— OCH3) group.

The anisole ring becomes much more reactive towards an electrophilic substitution reaction. When the non-polar bromine molecule comes in contact with the anisole ring, it 6+ 6 — becomes partially polarised (Br— Br)and its positive end (weak electrophile) undergoes easy attack by anisole. Therefore, due to the greater reactivity of anisole, its bromination requires no catalyst.

Question 89. Neither vinyl chloride (CH2=CH—Cl) nor chlorobenzene (C6H5 —Cl) can be used as an alkylating agent in the Friedel-Crafts reaction—why?
Answer:

In vinyl chloride or chlorobenzene, the unshared pair of electrons on the Cl atom is involved in resonance interaction with the σ -electron system and as a result, the C—Cl bond in both cases acquires some double bond character.

The Lewis acid AlCl3 is incapable of breaking such a strong C—Cl bond. Moreover, even if the C— Cl bond breaks, the carbocations produced would be unstable (due to a positive charge on an sp² – hybridised carbon atom).

Hence such a bond is very much reluctant to undergo cleavage. For this reason, vinyl chloride or chlorobenzene cannot be used as an alkylating agent in the Friedel-Crafts reaction.

Question 90. Two methods for the preparation of propylbenzene are given below-

Hydrocarbons Propylbenzene Methods Given In Below

Question 91. Which one of the two methods is more effective for the preparation of propylbenzene? Give reason.
Answer:

Method 2 is more effective for the preparation of propylbenzene. This is because in method 1, the alkylating agent containing a chain of three carbon atoms isomerises to give isopropyl benzene as the principal product.

Hydrocarbons Isopropylbenzene

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A

Moreover, the alkyl group activates the benzene ring towards further substitution. So, there is a possibility of polyalkylation of benzene. However, although method 2 involves two steps, the desired propylbenzene is obtained as the only product in a higher yield. In the first step of the reaction.

The CH3CH2CO — group is introduced into the ring. Since the acyl group has no possibility of isomerisation, no other isomeric group can enter the ring.

Furthermore, the acyl group being an electron-attracting one deactivates the ring and consequently, polyacylation cannot take place. Hence in the first step, only propiophenone (C6H5COCH2CH3) is produced and in the second step, it is reduced by Clemmensen method to give only propylbenzene.

Question 92. Which ring (A or B) is in each of the following! compounds will undergo nitration readily and why?

Hydrocarbons Propylbenzene

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A

Answer:

  • Ring A is attached to the electron-donating or activating group — :O:COPh, whereas ring B is attached to the electron-attracting or deactivating — COOPh group. So, ring A is more reactive than ring B towards electrophilic substitution reaction. Hence, ring A will undergo nitration readily.
  • Since a deactivating — N02 group is attached to ring A, it is relatively less reactive than ring B towards electrophilic substitution. Consequently, ring B undergoes nitration readily.
  • Ring A is attached to an electron-donating or activating — CH3 group while ring B is linked to an electron-attracting or deactivating — CF3 group. So, ring A is relatively more reactive than ring B towards electrophilic substitution. Hence, ring A undergoes nitration at a faster rate.
  • Ring B undergoes nitration readily. The reason is similar to that given in the case of compound (1).

Question 93. Write the names and structures of the compounds formed during the Friedel-Crafts reaction of benzene with

  1. CH2Cl2
  2. CHCl3 and
  3. CCl4

Answer:

Hydrocarbons Friedel Crafts Recation Of Benzene

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A

Question 94. Show the formation of the electrophile in each case:

  1. Cl3/AlCl3
  2. Br2/Fe
  3. Conc.HNO3 + conc.H2SO4

Answer:

Hydrocarbons Electrophile In Each Case

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A

Question 95. How will you prepare the following compounds from benzene?

  1. PhCH2CH2Ph,
  2. PhCH2CH2CH2Ph and
  3. PhCH2CH2CH2CH2Ph

Answer:

Hydrocarbons Compounds From Benzene

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A

Question 96. An optically active compound A (C10H4) gets oxidised to benzoic acid (C6H5COOH) by alkaline KMnO4 However, compound B, which is an optically inactive isomer of A does not get oxidised by alkaline KMn04. Identify A and B.

Answer:

As A is oxidised to C6H5COOH, A is a substituted benzene which has only one side chain consisting of four carbon atoms. Again, as A is optically active, there must be an unsymmetric carbon atom present in the side chain.

So, the side chain is —CH(CH3)CH2CH3 and A is sec-butylbenzene, C6H5CH(CH3)CH2CH3. B, an isomer of A does not get oxidised by alkaline KMnO4.

Thus, there is no benzylic hydrogen in the compound. So, the side chain is — C(CH3)3. The compound B is tert-butylbenzene, C6H5C(CH3)3

Question 97. Considering the stability of <r -complex, explain why — OCH3 is o-lp- orienting while —NO2 is mefa-orientlng.
Answer:

Electrophilic substitution reaction in anisole proceeds via the following reaction mechanism:

Hydrocarbons Electrophilic Substitution Reacyion In Anisole

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A

There is an extraordinarily stable (every atom has its octet fulfilled) resonance structure in both ortho- and para-a -complex, but there is no such resonance structure in the meta-σ- complex. So, ortho- and para-cr -complex are more stable than meta-cr complex. Consequently, electrophilic substitution proceeds easily and rapidly via ortho- and para-a -complex resulting in ortho and para- substituted compounds as major products. Thus, — OCH3 is ortho-/para-orienting group.

Electrophilic substitution reaction in nitrobenzene proceeds via the following reaction mechanism:

Hydrocarbons Nitrobenzene Proceeds

Both ortho- and para- complexes are extraordinarily unstable resonance structures (due to the presence of a positive charge on two adjacent atoms). However, in meta-σ -complex there is no such resonance structure and so it is more stable than ortho- and para- σ -complex.

Thus, the reaction proceeds rapidly via the meta- σ -complex and the meta- substituted compound is obtained as the major product Thus, — NO is /nefa-orienting group.

Question 98.

Identify (A)-(F) in the following reaction

Hydrocarbons Draw The Eclipsed And Staggered Conformations

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A

Answer:

Hydrocarbons Identify The Following Reaction

Question 99.

1. What will be the major product when propyne is treated with aqueous H2SO4? Explain the equation.

2. An organic compound (A), C7H8O is insoluble in aqueous NaHCO3 but soluble in NaOH. (A), on treatment with bromine water rapidly forms compound (B), C7H5OBr2. Give structures of (A) & (B). What will be (A) if it does not dissolve in NaOH solution but shows the reaction given above?

Answer:

Propyne does not react with aqueous H2SO4 in the absence of Hg2+ ion. In the presence of an Hg2+ ion, propyne reacts with aqueous H2SO4 to give the unstable compound prop-2-enol (according to Markownikoff’s rule) which tautomerism to give acetone.

Hydrocarbons Among benzene and toluene,

The problem is solved by assuming that the compound ‘B’ has the molecular formula C7H6OBr2

Hydrocarbons Compound B Molecular Formula

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A

Question 100.  Write the structural formula of the compounds A to F:

Hydrocarbons Write The Structural Formula OfThe Compound A To F
Answer:

Hydrocarbons Compounds A To F

Question 101. Both Br2(g) and NO2(g) are reddish-brown gaseous substances. How will you chemically distinguish between them?
Answer:

Hydrocarbons Reddish Brown Gaseous

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A

Question 102. Draw the structural formula of the compound from A toF.
Answer:

Hydrocarbons Draw Structural Formula Of The Compound From A to F

Question 103. Convert:

  1. 2-propanol → 1-propanol
  2. 2-butene→Ethane

Answer: 

Hydrocarbons Convert Reactions

Question 104. Write the IUPAC names of the following compounds:

Hydrocarbons IUPAC Names Of The Following Compounds

Answer:

Hydrocarbons Write IUPAC Names Of The Following Compounds Answer

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A

Question 105. For the Riven compounds write structural formulas and IUFPAC names for all possible isomers having the number of double or triple bonds as indicated:

  1. C4H8 (one double bond)
  2. C5H8 (one triple bond)

Answer:

Hydrocarbons Double Bond And Triple Bond

Question 106. Write IUPAC names of the products obtained by the ozonolysis of the following compounds:

  1. Pent-2-ene
  2. 3,4-dimethyIhept-3-ene
  3. 2-ethyl but-1-ene
  4. I-phenyl but-1-ene

Answer:

Hydrocarbons OZonolysis Of The Following Compounds

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A

Question 107. Explain why the following systems are not aromatic.

Hydrocarbons Systems Are Not Aromatic

Answer:

1.

Hydrocarbons Systems Are Not Aromatic 1

There are no p-orbitals on one of the H H CH3H CH3 carbon atoms forming the ring structure of this system and It is not a cyclic conjugated polyene containing (4n + 2)n -electrons. So, the system is not aromatic.

2.

Hydrocarbons Ring Structure

There are no p-orbitals on one of the carbon atoms forming the ring structure of this system and it is not a cyclic conjugated polyene containing (4n + 2)n -electrons. So, the system is not aromatic.

3.

Hydrocarbons CyclooctatetraeneCyclooctatetraene has a non-planar structure and there are 8π -electrons in it. So, cyclooctatetraene is a non-aromatic compound.

Question 108.  How will you convert benzene into

  1. p-nitrobromobenzene
  2. m-nltrochlorobenzene
  3. p-nitrotoluene
  4. Acetophenone

Answer:

Hydrocarbons Convert To Benzene

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A

Question 109. In H3C—CH2—C(CH3)2—CH2CH(CH3)2, identify 1°, 2°, and 3° carbon atoms and give the number of H atoms bonded to each one of these.
Answer:

Hydrocarbons In H Atoms Bonded

Number of H-atoms attached to 1° carbon atom = 15

Number of H-atoms attached to 2° carbon atom = 4

Number of H-atoms attached to 3° carbon atom = 1

Question 110. Write down the products of ozonolysis of 1,2-dimethylbenzene (o-xylene). How does the result support Kekule structure for benzene?
Answer:

Hydrocarbons Kekule Structure

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A

As the products A, B and C cannot be obtained from any one of the two Kekule structures, this confirms that o-xylene is a resonance hybrid of the two Kekule structures 1 and 2.

Hydrocarbons Kekule Structure Resonance Hybrid

Question 111. Arrange benzene, n-hexane and ethynein decreasing order of acidic behaviour. Also give reason for this behaviour.
Answer:

The hybridisation state of carbon in the compounds benzene, n-hexane and ethyne are as follows—

Hydrocarbons n Hexane And Ethyne

The nucleus. Thus, the correct order of decreasing acidic behaviour is: ethyne > benzene > n-hexane.

Question 112. How would you convert the given compounds into benzene?

  1. Ethyne
  2. Ethene
  3. Hexane

Answer:

Hydrocarbons Compounds Into Benzene

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A

Question 113. Write structures of all the alkenes which on hydrogenation give 2-methylbutane.
Answer:

The structural formula of 2-methyl butane is—

Hydrocarbons 2 Methylbutane

The structures of different alkenes by putting double bonds at different positions along with satisfying the tetravalency of each carbon atom which gives 2-methyl butane on hydrogenation are as follows-

Hydrocarbons 2 Methylbutane On Hydrogenation

Question 114. Arrange the following set of compounds in order of their decreasing relative reactivity with an electrophile, E+.

  1. Chlorobenzene, 2,4-dinitrochlorobenzene, p-nitrochlorobenzene
  2. Toluene, p-H3C —C6H4—NO2, P-O2N—C6H4—NO2

Answer:

The electron density of the benzene nucleus increases in the presence of an electron-donating group (activating group). Consequently, electrophiles can easily attack the benzene nucleus. On the other hand, the electron density of the benzene nucleus decreases in the presence of the electron-withdrawing group (deactivating group). This makes electrophilic substitution difficult for the benzene nucleus.

Therefore, the order of the different compounds according to their decreasing relative reactivity with an electrophile E+ is—

Chlorobenzene > p-nitrochlorobenzene > 2,4-dinitrochlorobenzene

Toluene > p-CH3C6H5NO2 > p-O2NC6H4NO2

Class 11 Chemistry Hydrocarbons Short Question And Answers

Question 1. Propane may be obtained by the hydrolysis of n-propyl magnesium bromide and another alkyl magnesium bromide. Write the name and structure of that alkylmagnesium bromide.
Answer:

Propane can be obtained by hydrolysis of isopropyl magnesium bromide (Me2CHMgBr)

Hydrocarbons Isopropyl Magnesium Bromide

Question 2. When a concentrated aqueous solution of sodium formate is used in Kolbe’s electrolysis method, no alkane is obtained—why?
Answer:

In Koibe’s electrolysis method, two— R groups of two RCOONa molecules combine to form the alkane, and R— R and two CO2 molecules are obtained from two COONa groups. As, there is no alkyl group in the salt, sodium formate (HCOONa), no alkane is formed on electrolysis of its concentrated aqueous solution.

Hydrocarbons Concentrated Aqueous Solution

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A

Question 3. Prepare 2,2-dimethylpropane by Corey-House synthesis.
Answer:

Hydrocarbons 2 And 2 Dimethylpropane

Question 4. How will you convert: \(\left(\mathrm{CH}_3\right)_2 \mathrm{CHBr} \longrightarrow \mathrm{CH}_3 \mathrm{CHDCH}_3\)
Answer:

Hydrocarbons Mg And Dry Ether Heated

Question 5. Identify RI and R’l in the following reaction \(\mathrm{RI}+\mathrm{R}^{\prime} \mathrm{I} →{\mathrm{Na} / \text { ether }} \text { Butane + Propane + Ethane }\). What is the role of ether in this case?
Answer:

When the Wurtz reaction is carried out with a mixture of HI and R’l, two hydrocarbons with an even number of carbon atoms (R— R and R’—R’) and one hydrocarbon with an odd number of carbon atoms (R—R’) are formed. Among the formed alkanes, butane (CH3CH2CH2CH3) and ethane (CH3CH3) are respectively R— R and R’—R’ whereas, propane (CH3CH2CH2) is R — R’.

So, it is evident that R is an alkyl group containing two carbon atoms, i.e., ethyl group (CH3CH2 — ) and Rr is a one carbon atom-containing alkyl group, i.e., methyl group (—CH3). Therefore, RI is ethyl iodide (CH3CH2I) and R’l is methyl iodide (CH3I). The role ofether in this case is that it acts as a solvent.

Question 6. How will you convert methyl bromide to (1) methane and (2) ethane in one step.
Answer:

1.

Hydrocarbons Methyl Bromide

2.

Hydrocarbons Methyl Bromide And Ethane

Question 7. Arrange the following compounds in order of their increasing stability and explain the reason: 2-butene, propene, 2-methyl but-2-ene
Answer:

The order of increasing stability of the given alkenes is— propene < 2-butene < 2-methyl but-2-ene

The number of hypercoagulable hydrogen in propene, 2-butene and 2-methylbut-2-ene molecules are 3, 6 and 12 respectively. With an increase in several hypercoagulable hydrogens, stability due to the hyperconjugation effect of the molecules increases.

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A

Question 8. Between the position isomer and chain isomer of but-1ene, which one exhibits geometrical isomerism and why?
Answer:

Position isomer of but-1-ene is but-2-ene (CH3CH=CHCH3) and chain isomer of but-1-ene is 2-methylpropene [(CH3)2C=CH2] . In a molecule of but-2-ene, different groups are attached to the C-atom which is linked to the double bond.

So, but-2-ene exhibits geometrical isomerism. On the other hand, in a molecule of 2-methylpropene, two similar atoms (H-atom) are attached to the C-atom linked to the double bond. So, 2-methylpropene does not exhibit geometrical isomerism.

Question 9. Write the structures of the two alkenes obtained when 2-butanol is heated with excess ofconcentrated H2SO4. Which is obtained predominantly?
Answer:

Hydrocarbons Stability Due To Hyperconjugation

Stability due to hyperconjugation is higher in the case of but-2-ene compared to that of but-1-ene. so, but-2-ene is obtained predominantly.

Question 10.

Hydrocarbons Identify A Reaction
Answer:

Hydrocarbons Identify A Answer

Question 11. Identify the compounds obtained on heating (CH3)4NOHO
Answer:

Hydrocarbons Trimethyl Amine

Compounds formed: trimethyl amine and methyl alcohol.

Question 12. What is the major product formed in the reaction between CH2=CH—NMe3Ie and HI ? Write its structure.
Answer:

Hydrocarbons Anti Markowinkoff Product

Question 13. What happens when a mixture of ethylene and O2 gas is passed through a solution of PdCI2 in the presence of CuCl2  at high pressure and 50°C?
Answer:

When a mixture of ethylene and O2  gas is passed through a PdCl2  solution in the presence of CuCl2  at high pressure and 50°C, acetaldehyde is formed as the product.

Hydrocarbons Acetaldehyde Is Formed

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A

Question 14. Write the IUPAC names of the following compounds:

  1. HC=C-CH(CH3)2
  2. CH3-C=C-C(CH3)3

Answer:

Hydrocarbons IUPAC NAme Of 3 Methylbut 1 yne

IUPAC name: 3 – Methylpent-1-yen

Hydrocarbons 4 And 4 Dimethylpent 2 yne

IUPAC name: 4,4-dimethylpent-2-yen

Question 15. C = C bond length is shorter than C and C —C —why?
Answer:

The σ -bond In C≡C is formed due to the overlapping of two small sp -hybridised orbitals. In C—C, the σ -bond is formed due to the overlapping of two bigger sp² -hybridised orbitals whereas in C — C.

the σ –bond is formed due to the overlapping of two even bigger sp³ -hybridised orbitals. Again, the multiplicity of the bond between two atoms increases, and the atoms come closer to each other leading to a decrease in bond length. So, bond length follows the order: C=C < C=C < C— C.

Question 16. Write structures and IUPAC names of the alkynes having molecular formula C5H8.

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A
Answer:

Structures and IUPAC names of the alkynes having molecular formula C5Hn are-

⇒ \(\stackrel{5}{\mathrm{C}} \mathrm{H}_3 \stackrel{4}{\mathrm{C}} \mathrm{H}_2 \stackrel{3}{\mathrm{C}} \mathrm{H}_2 \stackrel{2}{\mathrm{C}} \equiv \stackrel{1}{\mathrm{C}} \mathrm{H} \quad \text { (Pent-1-yne) }\)

⇒ \(\stackrel{5}{\mathrm{C}} \mathrm{H}_3 \stackrel{4}{\mathrm{C}} \mathrm{H}_2 \stackrel{3}{\mathrm{C}} \equiv \stackrel{2}{\mathrm{C}} \stackrel{1}{\mathrm{C}} \mathrm{H}_3 \quad \text { (Pent-2-yne) }\)

Question 17. What happens when the ethanolic solution of 1,1,2,2-tetrabromoethane is heated with zinc dust?
Answer:

When the ethanolic solution of 1,1,2,2-tetrabromoethane is heated with Zn dust, acetylene is formed as the product.

Hydrocarbons 1 And 1 And 2 And 2 Tetrabromoethane

Question 18. What happens when the gas obtained by the action of water on calcium carbide is passed through an ammoniacal AgNO3 Solution? Identify the solution through which acetylene gas is passed to form a red precipitate.
Answer:

Acetylene is formed by die action of water on calcium carbide. When acetylene gas is passed through ammoniacal silver nitrate solution, a white precipitate of silver acetylide (Ag2C2) is obtained.

Hydrocarbons Pewsipitate Of Silver Acetylide

Question 19. Which gas is used in carbide lamps or Hawker’s lamps? How does the gas produce a bright illuminating flame in the lamp?
Answer:

Acetylene gas is used in carbide lamps or Hawker’s lamps for producing bright illuminating flame. The percentage of carbon in acetylene is greater than in saturated hydrocarbons having the same number of carbon atoms.

As a result, incomplete combustion of acetylene gas takes place and the heated carbon particles thus formed produce Hluminating flame and bright light.

Question 20. What is Lindlar’s catalyst? Mention its use.
Answer:

Use of Lindlar’s catalyst:

This catalyst is used to add 1 molecule H2 i.e., for partial hydrogenation of an alkyne. As cis-hydrogenation takes place in this case, a cis-alkene can be prepared from a non-terminal alkyne by using this catalyst.

Hydrocarbons Use Of Lindlars Catalyst

Question 21. Which out of ethylene & acetylene is more acidic and why?
Answer:

The greater the s -the character of a hybridised carbon atom, the greater will be its electronegativity. The s -character of sp hybridised carbon atom of acetylene is greater than that of the sp² -hybridised carbon atom of ethylene.

so the electronegativity of the carbon atom of acetylene (CH=CH) is greater than the carbon atom of ethylene (CH2=CH2).

The tendency of H -atom attached to the more electro¬ negative carbon atom to be removed as a proton (H+) is relatively higher. So, the acidity of ethylene is less than that of acetylene, i.e., acetylene is more acidic than ethylene.

Question 22. How will you convert ethyne into ethanol?
Answer:

Hydrocarbons Ethanol

Question 23. Which out of ethyne and propyne is more acidic and why?
Answer:

In ethyne (HC=CH), there are two terminal hydrogen atoms whereas, in propyne (CH3C=CH) there is only one. Apart from this, one electron-donating —CH3 group is attached to the carbon atom present on the other side of the triple bond in the propyne molecule.

This decreases the acidity of the alkynyl hydrogen atom. So, ethyne is more acidic than propyne

Question 24. How will you distinguish between but-1-yne and but-2-yne?
Answer:

But-1-yne (CH3CH2C=CH) being a terminal alkyne reacts with a solution of ammoniacal stiver nitrate (AgNO3) to form a white precipitate of silver 1-butynide.

However, but-2-yne (CH3C=CCH3) being a non-terminal alkyne does not undergo this type of reaction. So, but-1-yne and but-2-yne can be distinguished by observing the result of the above-mentioned test using ammoniacal stiver nitrate solution.

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A

Hydrocarbons Ammonical Silver Nitrate Solution

Question 25. How will you convert propylene into propylene?
Answer:

Hydrocarbons Propyne

Question 26. What is the expected shape ofa benzene molecule in the absence of resonance?
Answer:

In the absence of resonance, benzene will be considered as the compound, 1,3,5-cyclohexatriene. The structure of this hypothetical compound is—

Hydrocarbons 1 And 3 And 5 Cyclohexatriene

The structure will be such because each carbon-carbon bond length will be unequal. As, C=C is shorter than C—C, the structure of the molecule will appear as an irregular hexagon instead ofa regular one.

Question 27. Write structures of two aromatic ions in which there is a p-orbital containing 2 electrons and the other in which there is a vacant-orbital.
Answer:

Cyclopentadienyl anion Hydrocarbons Cyclopentadienyl Anion has two electrons in one of its p -orbital whereas, cyclopropenyl cation  Hydrocarbons Cyclopropenyl Cationhas a vacant p -orbital.

Question 28. Write the name and structural formula of the dibromobenzene which forms three mononitro compounds.
Answer:

Hydrocarbons 1 And 3 Dibromobenzene

Question 29. What happens when each of the following compounds is heated with acidified K2Cr2O7 solution—
Answer:

Ethylbenzene:

Ethylbenzene gets oxidised to benzoic acid.

Hydrocarbons Ethylbenzene

Question 30. Benzene exhibits a greater tendency towards substitution reactions but a lesser tendency towards addition reactions — Explain.
Answer:

Benzene attains stability by resonance. If benzene undergoes addition reactions, then it no longer participates in resonance. The aromaticity of benzene is no longer retained due to loss of conjugation.

Consequently, the extra stability of benzene is lost. So, benzene has a lower tendency to undergo an addition reaction. However, during the formation of the substitution product, the aromaticity and stability of benzene remain intact. So, benzene has a higher tendency towards substitution reactions.

Question 31. Benzene burns with a luminous sooty flame but methane bums with a non-luminous flame with no black smoke. Why?
Answer:

Due to the high percentage of carbon, elementary carbon is produced during the burning of benzene. As a result, black smoke is formed. The presence of hot carbon particles in the flame makes the flame luminous. In methane, the percentage of carbon is low so no elementary carbon is produced during the burning of methane. Thus, methane burns with a non-luminous flame with no black smoke.

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A

Question 32. Name the electrophiles which participate in the following reactions: nitration, chlorination, Frieclel-Crafts alkylation, Friedel-Crafts acylation and sulphonation.
Answer:

Electrophiles which participate in nitration, chlorination, Friedel-Crafts alkylation, Friedel-Crafts acylation and sulphonation reactions are nitronium ion (+NO2), positively charged chlorine ion (Cl+) or chlorine-iron (III) Chloride complex (Cl — Cl+FeCl3), carbocation (R), B: acylium ion (R+CO) and sulphur trioxide (SO3) respectively.

Question 33. Why iodobenzene cannot be prepared directly by combining benzene and iodine in the presence of iron filings? Why is this reaction possible in the presence of nitric acid?
Answer:

Iodobenzene cannot be directly prepared by combining benzene and iodine because the reaction is reversible. However, in the presence of nitric acid, this reaction becomes possible because nitric acid oxidises the hydrogen iodide as it is formed and so drives the reaction to the right.

Question 34. Write the structure of the compound 4-(1-isopropyl butyl)-3-propyl undecane.
Answer:

Hydrocarbons 4 And 1 Isopropylbutyl 3 Propylundecane

Question 35. Write the structure of 2,2,3-trimethylpentane and label the 1°, 2°, 3° and 4° carbon atoms.
Answer:

Hydrocarbons 2 And 2 and 3 Trimethylpentane

Question 36. Write the IUPAC names of two different optically active alkanes with lowest molecular mass.
Answer:

2 optically active alkanes with the lowest molecular masses-

Hydrocarbons Lowest Molecular Masses

Question 37. What is the state of hybridisation of the quaternary carbon atom present in the neopentane molecule? Write the IUPAC name and structure of the alkane formed by the combination of neopentyl and tert-butyl groups.
Answer:

The state of hybridisation of the quaternary carbon atom In a nooporitanu molecule is sp³

The alkane formed by the combination of neopentyl and terf-butyl groups Is—

Hydrocarbons IUPAC Names 2 And 2 And 4 And 4 Tetramethylpentane

IUPAC name: 2,2,4,4-tetramethylpentane

Question 38. How many chain isomers will be obtained on replacement of different H-atoms of n-pentane? Write their structures and IUPAC names.
Answer:

Three non-equivalent H-atoms are present in a pentane (CH3CH2CH2CH2CH3) molecule. Thus, the replacement of these H-atoms by —CH3 groups results in three isomeric alkanes. These are as follows —

CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2CH3 (hexane)

CH3CH2CH2CH(CH3)2(2-methylpentane)

CH3CH2CH(CH3)CH2CH3(3-methylpentane)

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A

Question 39. Write the trivial and IUPAC names of the branched chain alkane with the lowest molecular mass.
Answer:

The trivial name of the branched chain alkane with the lowest molecular mass is isobutane and its IUPAC name is 2-methylpropane.

Hydrocarbons Isobutane

Question 40. Write the IUPAC name and structure of the alkane having formula C8H18 and containing a maximum number of methyl groups.
Answer:

The alkane of formula C8H18 containing the maximum number of methyl groups is

Hydrocarbons IUPAC Name Of 2 And 2 And 3 And 3 Tetramethylbutane

IUPAC name: 2,2,3,3-tetramethylbutane

Question 41. Benzene cannot be used as a solvent in ozonolysis of unsaturated hydrocarbons—why?
Answer:

Benzene itself reacts with ozone to form a triozonide. So, benzene cannot be used as a solvent in ozonolysis of unsaturated hydrocarbons

Question 42. Which one of the following three alkyl halides does not undergo Wurtz reaction and why?

  1. CH3CH2Br
  2. CH3I
  3. (CH3)3CB

Answer:

  1. The second step of the Wurtz reaction is an SN2 reaction.
  2. An SN2 reaction is very susceptible to steric effect so, a 3° alkyl halide does not take part in SN2 reaction.
  3. So, (CH3)3CBr being a 3° alkyl halide does not undergo Wurtz reaction

Question 43. Which compound is the strongest acid and why?

  1. HC ≡CH
  2. C6H6
  3. C2H6
  4. CH3OH

Answer:

CH3OH is the strongest acid because here the H-atom is bonded to oxygen which is more electronegative titan carbon irrespective of its state of hybridisation

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A

Question 44. Give two equations for the preparation of propane from Grignard reagent.
Answer:

Hydrocarbons Grignard Reagent

Question 45. How can CH3D be prepared from CH4 ?
Answer:
Hydrocarbons Prepared From Methane

Question 46. The preparation of which of the following alkanes by Wurtz reaction is not practicable?

  1. (CH3)3C-C(CH3)3
  2. CH3—CH(CH3)—CH2CH3
  3. (CH3)2CHCH2CH2CH(CH3)2

Answer:

  1. Not practicable. Although it is a symmetrical alkane, prepared from a carboxylic acid? its preparation requires a f-alkyl halide, (CH3)3CX, which does not participate in Wurtz reaction.
  2. Not practicable. It is an unsymmetrical alkane.
  3. Practicable, because it is a symmetrical alkane

Question 47. When a concentrated aqueous solution of a mixture of sodium salts of two monocarboxylic acids is subjected to electrolysis, ethane, propane and butane are liberated at the anode. Write the structures and names of the two starting sodium salts
Answer:

Ethane may be produced from two CH3COONa molecules, propane from 1 CH3COONa molecule and one CH3CH2COONa molecule and butane (CH2CH2CH2CH3) from 2CH3CH2COONa molecules. Evidentlyethane, propane & butane may be obtained from the mixture of sodium ethanoate (CH3COONa) & sodium propionate (CH3CH2COONa)

Question 48. How can an alkane having one carbon atom less be prepared from a carboxylic acid?
Answer:

Hydrocarbons Carboxylic Acid

Question 49. Arrange the following compounds in the increasing order of their acidic character.

  1. H2O, CH2=CH2, NH3
  2. HC≡CH, CH3OH, CH3CH3

Answer:

1. Increasing order of acidic character: CH2=CH2 < NH3 < H2O [Because, the increasing order of electronegativity: C2 < N < O ]

2. Increasing order of acidic character: CH3CH3 < HC = CH < CH3OH [increasing order of electronegativity: c ,<C. <ol

Question 50. An alkane (molecular mass 72) produces only one monochloro derivative. Give IIJPAC name of the compound. Give reasons.
Ana.

As the alkane (CnH2n+2) on monochlorination produces only one monochloride derivative, so all of its hydrogens are equivalent. The molecular mass of the alkane is 72, i.e.,12 × n +{2n + 2) = 72, or n = 5. Hence, the alkane contains a carbon atoms, l.e., it is one of the isomeric pentanes. Ihe pentane in which all the H-atoms are equivalent is neopentane, (CH3)4 C. The IUPAC name of the compound is 2,2-dimethylpropane.

Question 51.  Hydrocarbons Identify ABC And D
Answer:

A = CH3CHO (Acetaldehyde);

B= CHCHOH

(Ethyl alcohol); C = CHCl3

D = HCOONa (Sodium formate)

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A

Question 52. Acetylene does not react with NaOH or KOH, even though it possesses acidic character —why?
Answer:

Acetylene (HC = CH) is a weaker acid than water (H2O) and OH- is a weak base than HC=C. As a result, weak acid HC=CH does not react with weak base OH to form strong acid H2O and strong base HC≡C. So acetylene fails to react with NaOH or KOH

Hydrocarbons Weaker Acid And Stronger Acid

Question 53.  Write the products obtained when propyne ion (CH3C = C:) is allowed to react with

  1. H2O,
  2. CH3OH
  3. H3 (liquid)
  4. 1-hexene and
  5. Hexane.

Also mention, where no reaction occurs
Answer:

  1. CH3C = CH + OH
  2. CH3C = CH + CH3O
  3. No reaction
  4. No reaction
  5. No reaction.

(Propyne is a weaker acid than H2O and CH3OH but it is a stronger acid than, NH3 1-hexene and hexane.]

Question 54. Write the names of the products obtained in the following cases
Answer:

Hydrocarbons Products Obtained In The Following Cases

Answer:

  1. Br CH2CH2 COOH (3-bromopropanoic acid).
  2. C6H5 COCH3 (Acetophenone).

Question 55. How can allyl chloride be prepared from1-propanol?
Answer:

Hydrocarbons Ally Chloride

Question 56. trans-pent-2-ene is polar but frans-but-2-ene is non-polar —why
Answer:

In a trans-but-2-ene molecule, the two C-—CH3 bond moments, oriented in opposite directions cancel each other and so the net dipole moment in a trans-but-2-ene molecule is zero. On the other hand, in trans-pent-2-ene molecule, although the C-*-CH3 and C—C2H5 bond moments act in opposite directions, they are not equal in magnitude and so they cannot cancel each other. Hence, the molecule possesses a net dipole moment

Hydrocarbons Non Polar And Polar

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A

Question 57. Convert acetylene into but-2-one.
Answer:

Hydrocarbons Acetylene Into But 2 ene

Question 58. Ozonolysis of an alkene leads to the formation of an aldehyde and an isomeric ketone having molecular formula, C3H6O. Identify the alkene.
Answer:

The aldehyde and the ketone having molecular formula, C3H6O are CH3CH2CHO and CH3COCH3 respectively.

Therefore, the starting alkene is 2-methylpent-2-ene. (CH3)2C= O + O=CHCH2CH3-(CH3)2C =CHCH2CH

Question 59. An alkene having molecular formula, C4H8 reacts with HBr to form a tertiary alkyl bromide. Identify the alkene and the alkyl bromide.
Answer:

Hydrocarbons Alkene And Alkyl Bromide

Question 60. Carry out the following transformation (in two steps): Methyl acetylene →1-bromopropan
Answer:

Hydrocarbons Methyl Acetylene Of 1 Bromopropane

Question 61. H How can butan-2-one be prepared from acetylene?
Answer:

Hydrocarbons Butan 2 One

Question 62. Write the IUPAC names of the products obtained when buta-1,3-diene reacts with bromine in1:1 molar ratio
Answer:

Hydrocarbons Buta 1 And 3 Diene Reacts With Bromine

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A

Question 63. Distinguish between buta-1,3-diene and but-1-yne?
Answer:

But-1-yne (CH3CH2C = CH) reacts with ammoniacal cuprous chloride solution to give a red precipitate. Buta-1,3- diene, however, does not respond to this test

Hydrocarbons Buta 1And 3 Diene And But 1 Yne

Question 64. Prove that benzene is insoluble in water and is lighter than water.
Answer:

Benzene is taken in a separating flask and water is added to it. The mixture is shaken and then allowed to stand until two layers are separated. The upper layer contains benzene while water settles at the bottom. This observation proves that benzene is insoluble in water and is lighter than water.

Question 65. Why does benzene burn with a sooty flame?
Answer:

As the carbon content in benzene molecule (C6H6, C: H = 1 : 1 ) is relatively higher as compared to the saturated hydrocarbon, hexane (C6H14 C: H = 1:2.3), elementary carbon is formed during burning of benzene. So, benzene bums with a sooty flame

Question 66. Nitration of aniline with 98% H2SO4 and cone. [Anilinium sulphate (water soluble)] HNO3 occurs very slowly and mainly metasubstitution occurs —why?
Answer:

In the presence of 98% H2SO4, the — NH2 group of aniline takes up a proton (H) and is converted to an electronattracting (-1) and meta-directing — NH3 group. Electron lectrophilic attack of —NO2 group occurs very slowly. This accounts for the extremely slow rate of nitration of aniline and formation of mainly mefa-substituted product under strongl acidic conditions

Question 67. Activating groups are ortho-/para- directing, while; the deactivating groups are meta- directing—why?
An8.

The activating groups by exerting their electron-donating +1 and/or +R effects increase electron densities at the orthoand para- positions to a larger extent than the meta- position. So, the electrophiles (E+) enter preferably the ortho- and parapositions. On the other hand, the deactivating groups by exerting their electron withdrawing -I and I or -R effects decrease electron densities of meta-positions to a lesser extent than the ortho- and para- positions. So the electrophile enters preferably the relatively more electron-rich meta- position.

Question 68. How will you remove traces of aniline present in benzene?
Answer:

If benzene containing traces of aniline (basic in nature) is shaken with cone. H2SO4 then aniline dissolves in the acid forming a salt.- The acid layer is thus removed. In this way traces of aniline present in benzene can be removed

Hydrocarbons Anilinium Sulphate

Question 69. How can traces of phenol present in a sample of benzene be removed?
Answer:

If the sample of benzene containing traces of phenol (acidic in nature) is shaken with 10% NaOH solution then phenol reacts with NaOH to form sodium phenoxide which dissolves in the aqueous layer. The aqueous layer is then removed. In this way traces of phenol present in a sample of benzene can be removed.

Hydrocarbons Sodium Phenoxide

Question 70. How will you distinguish between benzene and hexane by a simple test in the laboratory?
Answer:

Percentage of carbon in benzene is much higher than corresponding alkane, hexane. So benzene bums with the formation ofelementary carbon and as a result, a sooty flame is produced. During burning of hexane no such sooty flame is produced. Thus, by observing the nature of the flame produced, the two compounds can be easily distinguished

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A

Question 71. Aniline does not undergo Friedel-Crafts reaction, though it contains an electron-donating group—why?
Answer:

Aniline (Lewis base) combines with AlCl3 (Lewis acid) by donating the unshared electron pair on nitrogen, to form a complex. As a result, the N-atom of — NH2 group acquires a positive charge and this, being converted into an electronattracting group, decreases the electron density of the ring to such an extent that the Friedel-Crafts reaction does not occur

Hydrocarbons Lewis Acid Lewis Base Complex

Question 72.  How much trisubstituted benzene may be obtained from o-, m- and p-chlorotoluene and why?
Answer:

Each of o – and m -chlorotoluene will give 4 trisubstituted benzenes, while p -chlorotoluene will give two trisubstituted benzenes. This is because there are 4 types of non-equivalent hydrogens (or positions) in each of the ortho- and meta¬ isomers and two types of non-equivalent hydrogens (or positions) in the para-isomer

Question 73. C5H12 and C8H18 are two alkanes which form one monochloride each on reacting with chlorine. Write the names of the alkanes and structural formulas of the chlorides.
Answer:

As both the alkanes form one monochloride, it can be said that all H-atoms in these two alkanes are equivalent. Therefore, the alkane with molecular formula C6H12 is (CH3)4C and the alkane with molecular formula C8H18 is (CH3)3C-C(CH3)3

Hydrocarbons Structural Formulas Of The Chloride

Question 74. How can you convert methyl acetylene to acetone?
Answer:

At 60-80°C temperature, when methyl acetylene or propyne is passed through a dilute (20%) solution of sulphuric acid containing 1% H2SO4 , it combines with one molecule of water to form the unstable compound, 2-propanol. Addition of water molecule to unsymmetrical alkyne (propyne in this case) through the Markownikoff’s rule. 2-propenol! rapidly tautomerises to acetone

Hydrocarbons Convert Methyl Acetylene To Acetone

Question 75. Mention two reactions of benzene to show its behaviour is different from that of the open chain unsaturated hydrocarbons.
Answer:

  1. Benzene does not decolourise bromine-water.
  2. Benzene does not react with halogen acids such as HCl, HBr etc

Question 76. Is it possible to isolate pure staggered ethane or pure eclipsed ethane at room temperature? Explain.
Answer:

The energy difference between eclipsed and staggered conformations of ethane is only 2.8kcal .mol-1, which is easily achieved by collisions among the molecules at room temperature. So it is not possible to isolate either pure staggered or pure eclipsed form of ethane at room temperature

Question 77. Explain why rotation about carbon-carbon double bond is hindered?.
Answer:

Carbon-carbon double bond consists of a σ -and a π bond. The π-bond is formed by lateral overlap of unhybridised p -orbitals of two carbon atoms above and below the plane of the carbon atoms. Ifan attempt be made to rotate one of the Catoms of the double bond with respect to the other, the p orbitals will no longer overlap, thereby causing fission of the n bond. Since breaking of a π -bond requires considerable amount of energy, which is not available at room temperature, so rotation about the carbon-carbon double bond is hindered.

Question 78. Arrange the following carbanions in order of their Hg+ decreasing stability

Hydrocarbons Arrange The Following Carbanions
Answer:

Due to greater s -character sp -hybridised carbon is more electronegative than sp³ -hybridised carbon and hence can accomodate the -ve charge more effectively. So 1 and 2 are more stable than 3. Again —CH group has electrondonating +1 effect, therefore it interacts with the -ve charge on carbanion carbon and hence destabilises 1 relative to 2. Thus, stability of the given carbanions decreases in the sequence: B> 1> 3

Question 79. Explain why ferf-butylbenzene cannot be oxidised to benzoic acid by treatment with alkaline KMnO4
Answer:

Alkylbenzenes can be oxidised to benzoic acid provided that the side chain contains one benzylic {hydrogen atom. Since terf-butylbenzene does not contain any benzylic hydrogen, so the alkyl chain cannot be oxidised to — COOH group.

Hydrocarbons Benzylic Carbon

Question 80. Explain why HF forms hydrogen bonding with acetylene even though it is non-polar in nature
Answer:

Due to sp -hybridisation of carbon, the electrons of the C —H bond of acetylene are attracted considerably towards carbon. Consequendy, each carbon carries a partial negative charge and each hydrogen carris a partial positive charge. Owing to the presence of partial positive charge on hydrogen, acetylene forms H -bond with the F -atom of the HF molecule

⇒ \(\begin{array}{r}
\delta+\delta-\delta-\delta+\delta-\delta+ \\
\cdots \mathrm{H}-\mathrm{C} \equiv \stackrel{\delta}{\mathrm{C}}-\mathrm{H} \cdots \mathrm{F}-\mathrm{H}
\end{array}\)

Question 81. One mole ofa symmetrical alkene on ozonolysis gives two moles of an aldehyde having a molecular mass of 44u. Identify the alkene
Answer:

Let, the aldehyde be CnH2n+1CHO

Molecular mass of this aldehyde

=[12n + (2n +1) + (12 +1 + 16)]u

= (14n + 30)u

Thus, 14n + 30 = 44

n = 1

So the aldehyde is CH3CHO.

Obviously, the alkene is CH3CH=CH— CH

Question 82. The addition of HBr to 1 -butene gives a mixture of mechanisms: A and B as the main products together with a small amount of another compound C. Identify A, B and C
Answer:

Hydrocarbons HBr To 1 Butene Gives Mixture

Question 83. An alkene, C6H12, reacts with HBr in the absence as well as in the presence of peroxide to give the same product. Find its structure.
Answer:

Symmetrical alkenes react with HBr in the presence or absence of peroxide to give the same product. Hence the given alkene may have the structure (1) or (2)

Hydrocarbons Symmetrical Alkenes React

Question 84. How will you prepare a sample of propane free from other alkanes using ethyl bromide, methyl bromide and diethyl ether as the organic compounds, together . The product‘T is iodobenzene. with other inorganic materials
Answer:

It can be prepared by Corey-House synthesis:

Hydrocarbons Corey House Synthesis

Question 85. The catalytic hydrogenation of which of the following is most exothermic?

Hydrocarbons Exotherimic

Answer:

Least substituted alkene, having the lowest number of hyperconjugative structures, has the least thermodynamic stability (i.e., highest energy content) and so it has the highest heat of hydrogenation. Now, out of the given compounds, (C) is the least substituted alkene and so it has the highest heat of hydrogenation

Question 86. Identify A, B, C & D in the following reaction—

Hydrocarbons Identify ABCD Following Reactions

Answer:

  1. H —C≡C —H
  2.  H —C ≡ CNa
  3. H—C ≡ C—CH3
  4. H2C=CH—CH3

Question 87. Identify A, B, C Si D in the following reaction

Hydrocarbons Identify ABCD Following Reactions.

Answer:

  1.  CH2=CH2
  2. CH= CH
  3. CH3CHO
  4. CH3—CH3

Question 88. What organic compound is obtained when

  1. Ethyl iodide is subjected to react with Zn -Cu couple/aqueous ethanol and 
  2. Iodoform is heated with Ag powder?

Answer:

  1. CH3CH3
  2. C2H2

Question 89. Write structures of A and B in the following reactions.

Hydrocarbons Following Structure

Question 90.  Which one of these two reactions can be used for the identification of ethylenic unsaturation? Why? ½ + ½+½ + 1
Answer:

R-CH(Br)—CH3

R—CH(Br) —CH2Br

Question 91.  A hydrocarbon (A) is obtained when 1,2-dibromoethane reacts with alcoholic KOH. (A) decolourises alkaline KMnO4 solution. (A) contains acidic hydrogen. Identify (A) with reasons.
Answer:

Hydrocarbons 1And 2 Dibromoethane Reacts With KOH

 

Question 92. Writes structures of A, B and C 

Hydrocarbons Write Structure A And B

Answer:

Hydrocarbons Writes structures of A, B and C. answer

Question 93. How will you convert?

1. HC = CH→H3C-CH2-CH3

Hydrocarbons Convert Example

Answer:

Question 94. An organic compound (A) composed of C and H contains 85.71 %C. It shows M+ at mlz = 42 in the mass spectrum. The compound reacts with HBr in the absence of peroxide to yield an organic compound (B) which is isomeric with the compound (C) obtained when the compound reacts with HBr in the presence of peroxide. Identify A, B and C.
Answer:

⇒ \(C: H=\frac{85.71}{12}: \frac{14.29}{1}=7.14: 14.29=1: 2\)

Emperical formula = CH2, Molar formula = (CH2)n

According to the problem, n × (12 + 2) = 42.

n = 3. So, the actual molecular formula is C3H6. DBE = 1. So, probable structures of CH6 are—

Hydrocarbons Probable Structure

Structure A is accepted asit can undergo given reactions:

Hydrocarbons Structure A is Accepted As It Can Under Go Given Reactions

Question 95.

1. Write equations of all the steps of the reaction of methane with chlorine in the presence of diffused sunlight

2. Identify A and B Hydrocarbons Identify A And B Compounds

Answer:

⇒ \(\mathrm{A} \Rightarrow \mathrm{CH}_3 \mathrm{CH}_2 \mathrm{OSO}_3 \mathrm{H}, \mathrm{B} \Rightarrow \mathrm{CH}_3 \mathrm{CH}_2 \mathrm{OH}\)

Question 18. Convert benzene into aniline by using the following reagents in the correct order: alkaline KMnO4 and then HCl NH3, heat; Br2/KOH; CH3Cl /anhydrous AlCl3.
Answer:

Hydrocarbons Convert To Benzene Into Aniline

Question 96. Write structures of the organic products obtained in the following reactions :

Hydrocarbons Organic Products

Answer:

Hydrocarbons The Structures Of The Organic Products.

Question 97. Identify (X) and (Y) in the following reactions:

Hydrocarbons Identify X And Y

Answer:

Hydrocarbons Identify X and Y In the Following Reactions.

Question 98. Identify(M) and (N)in the following reactions

Hydrocarbons Identify M And N

Answer:

Hydrocarbons Identity M And N In The Following Reactions.

Question 99. Write the product of the following reaction:

Hydrocarbons Write The Product Of The following Reaction
Answer:

Hydrocarbons Write The Product Of The Following Reaction Answer

Question 100. Benzene on reaction with NOCl in presence of acid produces an organic compound (A). (A) on treatment with NaNH2/liq.NH3 furnishes another organic compound (15). (B) on treatment with NaNO2/HBF4 affords an organic compound (C) which on heating gives an organic compound (D). Identify(A), (B), (C) and (D).
Answer:

Hydrocarbons Benzene On Reaction With NOCl

Question 101. Two different compounds produce only acetaldehyde on ozonolysis. Draw the structures of the two compounds
Answer:

Hydrocarbons Draw the eclipsed and staggered conformations

Question 102. Write the name and the structural formula of the product obtained when hydrogen bromide reacts with propene in the presence of benzoyl peroxide.
Answer:

Hydrocarbons Benzyl Peroxide

Question 103. Identify the compound in the following reaction

Hydrocarbons Identify Compound A

Answer:

Identify the compound Ain the following reaction:

Hydrocarbons The Compound A

Question 104.

1. Among benzene and toluene, which one will undergo nitration reaction easily and why?

2. Identify A, B, C and D

Hydrocarbons Identify ABCD Reaction

Answer:

If the electron density of the benzene ring increases, then the reactivity of the ring towards electrophilic substitution also increases. In toluene, the —CH3 group increases the electron density of the ring and as a result, the reactivity of the ring also increases due to +1 and the hyperconjugation effect of the —CH3 group. So, nitration occurs more easily for toluene than unsubstituted benzene.

Question 105. Write the name and structural formula of A in the following reaction.

Hydrocarbons Structural Formula Of Benzene

Answer:

Hydrocarbons Ethylene Oxide

Question 106. What happens when Hydrocarbons Reacts With Na And Dry EtherWhat happens ether?
Answer:

Hydrocarbons Happens Ether

Question 107. Two isomeric compounds A and B have the molecular formula C3H.Br forms the same compound C on dehydrobromination. C on ozonolysis produces acetaldehyde and formaldehyde. Identify A, B and C
Answer:

⇒ \(A \Rightarrow \mathrm{CH}_3 \mathrm{CH}_2 \mathrm{CH}_2 \mathrm{Br}\)

⇒ \(B \Rightarrow \mathrm{CH}_3 \mathrm{CH}(\mathrm{Br}) \mathrm{CH}_3\)

⇒ \(C \Rightarrow \mathrm{CH}_3 \mathrm{CH}=\mathrm{CH}_2\)

Question 108. An alkene A on ozonolysis gives a mixture of ethanal & pentan-3-one. Write the structure & IUPAC name of A.
Answer:

Hydrocarbons An Alkene A On Ozonolysis Gives A Mixture Of Ethanal

Question 109. An alkene ‘A’ contains three C —C, eight C —H crbonds and one C — C π -bond. ‘A’ on ozonolysis gives two moles of an aldehyde of molar mass 44 u. Write the IUPAC name of ‘A’.
Answer:

An aldehyde with molar mass 44u is ethanal (CH3CH=:O). The formula of the alkene ‘A’ which on ozonolysis gives two moles of ethanol can be determined as follows—

⇒ \(\underset{\text { Ethanal }}{\mathrm{CH}_3 \mathrm{CH}}=\underset{\text { Ethanal }}{\mathrm{O}}+\underset{\text { But-2-ene (A) }}{\mathrm{O}}=\underset{\mathrm{CHCH}_3}{\mathrm{CH}_3-\mathrm{CH}}=\underset{\mathrm{CH}}{\mathrm{CH}}-\mathrm{CH}_3\)

There are three C — C cr -bonds, eight C —H tr -bonds and one C —C 7t -bond in but-2-ene.

Question 110. Propanal and pentan-3-one are the ozonolysis products of an alkene. What Is the structural formula of the alkene?
Answer:

Hydrocarbons Structural Formula Of The Alkene

Question 111. Write chemical equations of the combustion reaction of the following hydrocarbons: Butane Pantene Hexyne Toluene
Answer:

Hydrocarbons Chemical Equations Of Combustion Reaction

Question 112. Draw The Cis- and trans-structure of hex- 2 ene which isomer will have higher B>P and Why?
Answer:

The general formula of hex-2-ene is CH3—CH2—CH2—CH=CH—CH3. Structural formulas of ds-and trans-isomers of this compound are-

Hydrocarbons Isomer Will Have Higher BP

The ds-isomer being more polar than the trans-isomer has a higher value of dipole moment than that of the trans-isomer. Intermolecular dipole-dipole interaction in the case of cis-isomers is more than that in trans-isomers. So, the boiling point of the customer is higher.

Question 113. Why is benzene extraordinarily stable though it contains three double bonds?
Answer:

There are (4n + 2) delocalised 7r -electrons (n = 1) in the planar benzene molecule.

Consequently, it attains stability due to aromaticity. So, benzene is extraordinarily stable despite having three double bonds.

Question 114. Out of benzene, m-dinitrobenzene and toluene which will undergo nitration most easily and why
Answer:

Nitration of the benzene ring is an electrophilic substitution reaction. In this reaction, the presence of an activating group ( —CH3) increases the reactivity of the benzene ring, whereas the presence of a deactivating group (—NO2) decreases the reactivity of the benzene ring. Therefore, order of nitration is toluene > benzene > m-dinitrobenzene.

Question 115. Suggest the name of a Lewis acid other than anhydrous aluminium chloride which can be used during ethylation of benzene.
Answer:

Ethylation of benzene means the introduction of an ethyl group in the benzene ring. This reaction is carried out by Friedel-Crafts reaction of benzene with ethyl halide (chloride or bromide), ethene or ethanol. Lewis acids, other than anhydrous AlCl3, that can be used in this reaction are anhydrous FeCl3, SnCl4, BF3, HF etc.

Question 116. Why does an iline not participate in Friedel-Crafts reaction?
Answer:

Aniline reacts with AlCl3 complexing \(\mathrm{C}_6 \mathrm{H}_5-\stackrel{\oplus}{\mathrm{N}} \mathrm{H}_2-\stackrel{\ominus}{\mathrm{AlCl}} \mathrm{Cl}_3\) which makes —NH2 group electron-withdrawing nature. Consequently, the benzene ring becomes highly deactivated so aniline does not participate in the Friedel-Crafts reaction;

Question 117. The reaction of CH2=CH—N(CH3)3I takes place contrary to Markownikoff’s rule—why?
Answer: 

The carbocation formed due to the addition of H+ to the carbon atom containing a higher number of hydrogen atoms becomes unstable because of the electron-attracting —NMe3 group.

So, the reaction takes place contrary’ to Markownikoff’s rule;

Question 118. Mention the limitations of the Wurtzreaction.
Answer:

Limitations:

Tertiary alkyl halides do not respond to this reaction,

Methane cannot be prepared by this reaction and

Preparation of unsymmetrical alkanes cannot be done by this method;

Question 119. What product is formed when the given compound reacts with HBr and why?
Answer: The product obtained in

Hydrocarbons Product Obtained First Step is because the carbocation formed in the first step

Is, resonance stabilised due to —OCH3 group

Hydrocarbons Resonance Stabilised

Question 200. Two different compounds produce only acetaldehyde on ozonolysis. Draw the structures of the two compounds
Answer:

Hydrocarbons Draw the eclipsed and staggered conformations

Question 201. Write the name and the structural formula of the product obtained when hydrogen bromide reacts with propene in the presence of benzoyl peroxide.
Answer:

Hydrocarbons Benzyl Peroxide

Question 202. Identify the compound in the following reaction

Hydrocarbons Identify Compound A

Answer:

Identify the compound Ain the following reaction:

Hydrocarbons The Compound A

Question 203.

1. Among benzene and toluene, which one will undergo nitration reaction easily and why?

2. Identify A, B, C and D

Hydrocarbons Identify ABCD Reaction

Answer:

If the electron density of the benzene ring increases, then the reactivity of the ring towards electrophilic substitution also increases. In toluene, the —CH3 group increases the electron density of the ring and as a result, the reactivity of the ring also increases due to +1 and the hyperconjugation effect of the —CH3 group. So, nitration occurs more easily for toluene than unsubstituted benzene.

Hydrocarbons Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. Which one of the following alkenes produces a tertiary alcohol on acid-catalysed hydration

  1. CH3—CH—CH=CH2
  2. CH3—CH=CH—CH3
  3. (CH3)2C=CH2
  4. CH3-CH=CH

Answer: 3. (CH3)2C=CH2

Hydrocarbons Tert Butyl Alcohol

Question 2. Only which one of the following compounds is obtained when excess of Cl2 is passed through boiling toluene

Hydrocarbons Boiling Tolene Options

Answer: 4

Hydrocarbons Boiling And Excess

Question 3. The Friedel-Crafts reaction using MeCl and anhydrous AlCl3 maybe carried out best with—

  1. Benzene
  2. Nitrobenzene
  3. Toluene
  4. Acetophenone

Answer: 3. Toluene

Due to its +1 and hyperconjugative effect, the —CH3 group increases the electron density of the benzene ring. Thus, toluene becomes more susceptible towards electrophilic substitution reaction. So, Friedel-Crafts reaction using MeCl and anhydrous AlCl3 is carried out best with toluene.

Question 4. Baeyer’s reagent is—

  1. Alkaline potassium permanganate
  2. Acidified potassium permanganate
  3. Neutral potassium permanganate
  4. Alkaline potassium manganate

Answer: 1. Alkaline potassium permanganate

Dilute aqueous solution of alkaline potassium permanganate (1-2%) is called Baeyer’s reagent

Question 5. 2-methylpropane monochloririation under photochemical condition gives—1

  1. 2-chloro-2-methylpropane as major product
  2. (1 : 1) mixture of l-chloro-2-methylpropane and 2-chloro-2-methylpropane
  3. 1-chloro-2-methylpropane as major product
  4. (1:9) mixture of l-chloro-2-methylpropane and 2- chloro-2-methylpropane

Answer: 3. 1-chloro-2-methylpropane as major product

Hydrocarbons 2 Methylpropane And 2 Chloro 2 Methylpropane

The ratio of A and B in the mixture is 5: 9, though 3° H is more active than 1° H, but in this case number of 1°H is 9 times than that of 3°H.

Question 6. Treatment of with  Hydrocarbons Treatment Of DFDNaNH2/liq.NH3 gives—

Hydrocarbons Treatment Of DFD Options

Answer: 4.

The given reaction proceeds through the formation of the intermediate, Hydrocarbons Via Benzene Mechanism via the benzyne mechanism

Question 7. The best method for the preparation of 2,2-dimethylbutane is via the reaction of—

  1. Me3CBr and MeCH2Br in Na/ ether
  2. (Me3C)2CuLi and MeCH2Br
  3. (MeCH2)2CuLi and Me3CBr
  4. Me3CMgI and MeCH2I

Answer: 2. (Me3C)2CuLi and MeCH2Br

Corey-House synthesis is the best method for preparing 2,2-dimethylbutane. The corresponding chemical reaction is given as

Hydrocarbons The Corresponding Of Chemical Reaction

Question 8. Reaction of benzene with Me3CCOCl in the presence of anhydrous AlCl3gives

Hydrocarbons Reaction Of Benzene

Answer: 2

In this electrophilic substitution, removal of CO from the electrophile, acylium ion (Me3CC+=O) results in a more stable tertiary butyl carbocation Me3C+). Thus, C6H5CMe3 is formed as the product.

Question 9. An optically active compound having molecular formula C8H16 on ozonolysis gives acetone (CH3COCH3) as one of the products. Structure of the compound is—

Hydrocarbons Reagents To Carry Out Of The Following

Answer: 2

Hydrocarbons Tautomerisation

Question 10. The reagents to carry out the following conversion are—

Hydrocarbons Reagents To Carry Out Of The Following

Answer: 4

Identify The Correct Method For Synthesis

Question 11.   Hydrocarbons Identify The Correct Method Identify the correct method for the synthesis of the compound shown above from the following alternatives—

Hydrocarbons Synthesis Of The Compound

Answer: 2

Identify The Correct Method For Synthesis

Question 12. 1,4-dimethylbenzene on heating with anhydrous AlCl3 and HCl produces—

  1. 1,2-dimethylbenzene
  2. 1,3-dimethylbenzene
  3. 1,2,3-trimethylbenzene
  4. Ethylbenzene

Answer: 21,3-dimethylbenzene

When 1,4-dimethylbenzene is heated with anhydrous AlCl3 in the presence of HCl it undergoes isomerisation to

Question 13. Hydrocarbons Major Product Of The Above Reaction The major product of the above reaction is—

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons Major Product Of The Above Reaction Options

Answer: 3

The major product in the given reaction can be determined by the following reaction mechanism

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons Detremoned By The Following Reaction

Question 14. Hydrocarbons X Sequence Of The Reaction Identify’X’ in the following sequence of reactions—

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons X Sequence Of The Reaction Options

Answer: 2

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons Identify The X In The Sequence

Question 15. The major products obtained on ozonolysis of 2,3-dimethyl-1-butene followed by reduction with Zn and HO are—

  1. Methanoic acid and 2-methyl-2-butanone
  2. Methanal and 3-methyl-2-butanone
  3. Methanal and 2,2-dimethyl-3-butanone
  4. Methanoic acid and 2-methyl-3-butanone

Answer: 2. Methanal and 3-methyl-2-butanone

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons Methanal 3 Methyl 2 Butanone

Question 16. Which one of the following compounds is not aromatic—

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons Not Aromatic Compounds

Answer: 2

Cyclooctatetraene is a tub-shaped compound and thus it is non-aromatic.

Question 17. An alkene on ozonolysis produces only one dicarbonyl compound. The alkene is—

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons Alkene On Ozonolysis Only One Dicarbonyl Compounds

Answer: 2

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons Ozonolysis Produces Is

Question 18. The major product(s) obtained from the following reaction of1 mol of hexadeuteriobenzene is/are—

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons Hexadeuteribenzene

Answer: 1

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons Hexadeuteriobenzene Answer

Question 19. The isomerisation of 1-butyne to 2-butyne can be achieved by treatment with—

  1. Hydrochloric acid
  2. Ammoniacal silver nitrate
  3. Ammoniacal cuprous chloride
  4. Ethanolic potassium hydroxide

Answer: 4. Ethanolic potassium hydroxide

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons The Isomerisation Of 1 Butyne

Question 20. The major product(s) obtained in the following reaction is (are)—

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons Obtained In The Following Reaction

Answer: 1 and 4

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons The Major Product Obtained Of Enantiomer

Question 21. The number of possible organobromine compounds which can be obtained in the allylic bromination of 1- butene with N-bromo succinamide is—

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4

Answer: 4. 4

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons The Number Of Organobromine Compounds

Question 22.

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons The Species Of PQR And S

The species P, Q, R and S respectively are—

  1. Ethene, ethyne, ethanal, ethane
  2. Ethane, ethyne, ethanal, ethene
  3. Ethene, ethyne, ethanal, ethanol
  4. Ehyne, ethane, ethene, ethanal

Answer: 1. Ethene, ethyne, ethanal, ethane

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons The Species Of PQR Answer

Question 23. The number of alkenes which can produce 2-butanol by the successive treatment of

1. B2H6 in tetrahydrofuran solvent and

2. Alkaline H2O2solution is

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4

Answer: 1. 1

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons Number Of Alkenes Can Be Produce 2 Butanol

Question 24. CH3C=CMgBr can be prepared by the reaction of—

  1. CH3 —C≡C—Br withMgBr2
  2. CH3C≡CH with MgBr2
  3. CH3C≡CH with KBr and Mg metal
  4. HCH3C≡CH with CHgMgBr

Answer: 4. HCH3C≡CH with CHgMgBr

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons Acidic Hydrogen

Question 25. Formaldehyde is one of the products obtained on ozonolysis of a compound. The presence of which of the following groups is proved by this observation—

  1. Vinyl group
  2. Isopropyl group CH3
  3. Acetylenic triple bond
  4. Two ethylenic double bonds

Answer: 1. In ozonolysis, the vinyl group is converted into HCHO

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons Ozonolysis Vinyl Group Is Converted Into HCHO

Question 26. Which one of the following converts 2-hexyne into 2-hexene—

  1. Li/NH3
  2. Pd/BaSO4
  3. LiAlH4
  4. Pt/H2

Answer: 1. Li/NH3

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons 2 hexyne Form Of 2 Hexane

Question 27. The major organic compound formed by the reaction of 1,1,1-trichloroethane with silver powder is—

  1. 2-butene
  2. Ethene
  3. Acetylene
  4. 2-butyne

Answer: 4. 2-butyne

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons I n The Reaction Of The Product Form Of Ethylene

Question 28. In the reaction  Hydrocarbons In The Reaction Of Product C the product C is—

  1. Acetyl chloride
  2. Acetylene
  3. Acetaldehyde
  4. Ethylene

Answer: 4.  Ethylene

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons Which Compound Give 5 Keto 2 Methyl Hexanal Answer

Question 29.  Which compound would give 5-keto-2-methyl hexanal OH upon ozonolysis?

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons Which Compound Would Gives 5 Keto 2 Methyl Hexanal

Answer: 4

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons Which Compound Give 5 Keto 2 Methyl Hexanal Answer

Question 30. The product (A) of the reaction given below CH3 is—

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons The Product X Of The Reaction

Answer: 1

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons The product X Of The Reaction Answer

Question 31. The reaction of propene with HOCI(Cl3 + H2O) proceeds through the intermediate—

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons The Reaction Of Propene

Answer: 1

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons The Reaction Of Propane With Proceeds Throug The Intermediate

Question 32. 2-chloro-2-methyl pentane in methanol yields on— reaction with sodium

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons Sodium Methoxide In Methanol Yields

  1. Both 1 and 3
  2. Only 2
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. All of these

Answer: 4. All of these

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons Low Yield And High Yield

Question 33. 3-methylpent-2-ene reacts with HBr in the presence of peroxide to yield an additional compound. How many three-dimensional isomers are possible for this addition compound— 

  1. 2
  2. 4
  3. 6
  4. 0

Answer: 2. 4

Hydrocarbons 3 Methylpent 2 ene

The resulting compound consists of two different asymmetric centres (shown by asterisks). Thus the number of three-dimensional isomers = 22 = 4

Question 34. Which one of the following compounds undergoes mononitration to yield a considerable amount of m product—

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons Mono Nitration To Yield Considerable

Answer: 1

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons During The Nitarion Of Aniline

During tire nitration of aniline, —NH2 group gets protonated and form an anilinium ion ( —NH3). The + —NH3 group is deactivating and meta-orienting. Thus during the mono nitration of aniline, a significant amount of meta-product is obtained

Question 35. The major product of the following reaction is

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons Major Product Of The Following Reaction

Answer: 4

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons Due To Neopentyl Type Of Structure

Due to the neopentyl type of structure, it cannot undergo SN2 reaction

Question 36.  The trans-alkenes are formed by the reduction of alkynes with—

  1. Na/liq. NH3
  2. H2/Pd-C,BaSO4
  3. Sn/HCl
  4. NaBH4

Answer: 1. Na/liq. NH3

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons Alkyne

Question 37.   Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons Major Products Of 1 And 3 RespectivelyThe major products 1 and 3 are respectively

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons Major Products Of 1 And 3 Respectively.

Answer: 3

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons Major Product Of 1 And 3 Respectively

Question 38. In the following reaction

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons Major Products Of Minor Product

Answer: 3.

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons In The Following Reactions Answer

Question 39. Which of the following reagents is used to distinguish between 1-butyne and 2-butyne—

  1. HCl
  2. OH
  3. Br
  4. NaNH2

Answer: 4. NaNH2

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons Between 1 Butyne And 2 Butyne

Question 40. Which one of the following compounds is most reactive towards electrophilic-nitration reaction—

  1. Toluene
  2. Benzene
  3. Benzoic acid
  4. nitrobenzene

Answer: 1. Toluene

Due to +1 and the hyperconjugation effect of —CH3 group, toluene is the most reactive towards electrophilic nitration reaction

Question 41. Which of the following compounds will not undergo Friedel-Crafts reaction easily

  1. Toluene
  2. Cumene
  3. xylene
  4. Nitrobenzene

Answer: 4. Nitrobenzene

Groups like nitro ( —NO2) withdraw electrons from the benzene ring and deactivate the ring to such an extent that it cannot be attacked by the relatively weak electrophile. So, nitrobenzene does not undergo FriedelCraft reaction

Question 42. The radical Hydrocarbons Aromaticis aromatic because it has—

  1. 6p-orbitals and 7 unpaired electrons
  2. 6p-orbitals and 6 unpaired electrons
  3. 7p- orbitals and 6 unpaired electrons
  4. 7p-orbitals and 7 impaired electrons

Answer: 3. 7p- orbitals and 6 unpaired electrons

The given free radical is aromatic because it contains a benzene ring having 6n -electrons which remain delocalised. The seventh odd electron does not play any role in determining the aromaticity of the
free radical.

Question 43. Some meta-directing substituents in aromatic substitution are given. Which is most deactivating— 

  1. COOH
  2. —NO2
  3. —C=N
  4. —SO3H

Answer: 2. —NO2

Due to -I and -R effect, —NOa is a highly deactivating and —CN, —SO3H and moderately deactivating meta-orienting group

Question 44. Nitrobenzene, on reaction with cone. HNO3/H2SO4 at 80-100°C forms one of the following products—

  1. 1,4-dinitrobenzene
  2. 1,2,4-trinitrobenzene
  3. 1,2-dinitrobenzene
  4. 1,3-dinitrobenzene

Answer: 4. 1,3-dinitrobenzene

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons Nitrobenzene And 1 And 3 Dinitrobenzene

Question 45. Identify the sequence of reactions Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons identify Z In The Sequence Of Reactions

  1. CH3(CH2)3-O-CH2CH3
  2. (CH3)2CH—O—CH2CH3
  3. CH3(CH2)4—O-CH3
  4. CH3CH2-CH(CH3)-O-CH2CH3

Answer: 1. CH3(CH2)3-O-CH2CH3

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons Identify Z Reaction Equation Answers

Question 46. Which of the following organic compounds has the same hybridisation as its combustion product (CO2) —

  1. Ethane
  2. Ethyne
  3. Ethene
  4. Ethanolic

Answer: 2. Ethyne

Hydrocarbons C Atom In Both Ethyne And Carbondioxide

C-atom in both ethyne and C02 is sp -hybridised

Question 47. The oxidation of benzene by V2O5in the presence of air produces—

  1. Benzoic anhydride
  2. Maleic anhydride
  3. Benzoic acid
  4. Benzaldehyde

Answer: 2. Maleic anhydride

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons Maleic Anhydride

Question 48. Which of the following is not the product of dehydration of

Hydrocarbons Dehydration

Answer: 2

Hydrocarbons Between Does Not Form Because The Intermediate Carbocation  does not form because the intermediate carbonation Hydrocarbons Highly Stable i.e is highly stable, so it does not undergo rearrangement

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons Not Undergo Rearrangement

Question 49. In the reaction with HCI, an alkane reacts by Markownikoff’s rule, to give a product 1-chloro-1 methylcyclohexane. The possible alkane is—

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons Possible Alkene

Answer: 3

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons Methylcyclohexane Reactions

Question 50. Because of the absence of torsional strain, staggered conformation is more stable than eclipsed conformation.

  1. The correct statement regarding the comparison of staggered and eclipsed conformations of ethane is— the staggered conformation of etha HPgi*less stable than eclipsed conformation because staggered hasÿirsional strain
  2. The eclipsed conformation of ethane is more stable than staggered conformation because eclipsed conformation has no torsional strain
  3. The eclipsed conformation of ethane is more stable than staggered conformation even though the eclipsed conformation has torsional strain
  4. The staggered conformation of ethane is more stable than eclipsed conformation because staggered conformation has no torsional strain

Answer:  4. The staggered conformation of ethane is more stable than eclipsed conformation because staggered conformation has no torsional strain

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons Less Stable And More Stabe

Question 51. Consider the nitration of benzene using a mixed cone. H2SO4 and HNO3.If a large amount of KH2SO4 is added to the mixture, the rate of nitration will be—

  1. Faster
  2. Slower
  3. Unchanged
  4. Doubled

Answer: 2. Slower

⇒ \(\mathrm{HNO}_3+2 \mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{SO}_4 \rightleftharpoons \mathrm{H}_3 \stackrel{\oplus}{\mathrm{O}}+\stackrel{\oplus}{\mathrm{N}} \mathrm{O}_2+2 \mathrm{HSO}_4^{\ominus}\)

Addition of KHSO4 increases the concentration of

H2SO4 and due to the common ion effect, the production of

NO+2 decreases which slow down the nitration process

Question 52. In the reaction

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons In The Reaction X And Y X and 7 are—

  1. X = 1 -butyne; Y- 3 -hexyne
  2. X = 2 -butyne; Y = 3 -hexyne
  3. X = 2 -butyne; 7=2 -hexyne
  4. X = 1 -butyne; 7=2 -hexyne

Answer: 1.  X = 1 -butyne; Y- 3 -hexyne

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons In The Reactions Answers

Question 53. Which of the following compounds shall not produce propene by reaction with HBr followed by elimination or direct only elimination reaction—

1. CH3 CH2CH2OH

2. CH3 CH2CH2Br

3. CH2=C=O

Hydrocarbons Elimination Reaction Option 4

Answer: 2. CH3 CH2CH2Br

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons HBR Elimination

Question 54. In the given reactionHydrocarbons In The Reaction P the product P is

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons In The Reaction P.

Answer: 2

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons In Given The Reaction Product P Is

Question 55. The compound that will react most readily with gaseous bromine has the formula—

  1. C2H2
  2. C4H10
  3. C2H4
  4. C3H6

Answer: 4. C3H6

The reaction undergoes via a radical pathway. Among the given alkenes, propene can form the most stable radical intermediate and thus it undergoes the reaction faster than other alkenes.

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons More Stable Radical

Question 56. Which one is the correct order of acidity—

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons Correct Order Of Acidity

Answer: 1.

For a C-atom in the hybridised state, acidic character increases with increase of the s-character. Again the presence alkyl group reduces the acidic property due to its +1 effect. Hence the order of acidity of the given compounds:

Question 57. Nitration of aniline in a strong acidic medium also gives  -m-nitroaniline because

  1. In acidic (strong) medium aniline is present as an anilinium ion
  2. Inspite of substituents nitro group always goes to only m -position
  3. In absence of substituents nitro group always goes to m -m-position
  4. In electrophilic substitution reactions amino group is meta-directive

Answer: 1. In acidic (strong) medium aniline is present as an anilinium ion

Question 58. The compound C7H8 undergoes the following reactions 

Hydrocarbons The Compound Undergoes The Following Reactions The Product ‘C

 is___________

  1. p -bromotoluene
  2. m – bromotoluene
  3. 3-bromo-2,4,6-trichlorotoluene
  4. o -bromotoluene

Answer: 2. m – bromotoluene

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons The Compound Undergoes The Following Reaction

Question 59. Hydrocarbon (d) reacts with bromine by substitution to form an alkyl bromide which by Wurtz reaction is converted to a gaseous hydrocarbon containing less than four carbon atoms. A is—

  1. CH4
  2. HC≡CH
  3. CH3 – CH3
  4. CH2 = CH2

Answer: 1.CH4

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons Hydrocarbon Reacts With Bromine

Question 60. Identify the major products P, Q and R in the following sequence of reactions Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons Sequence Reaction PQR

 

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons Sequence Reaction PQR.

Answer: 1

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons Identify The Major Products Of PQ And R

Question 61. When trans-butene is reacted with Br2 the product formed is

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons Trans Butene Is Reacted With Bromide

3. Meso-compounds

4. Both 2 And 3

Answer: 4. Both 2 And 3

With trans-but-2-ene, the product of Br2 addition is Br optically inactive due to the formation of symmetric me-so-compounds

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons Symmetric Meso Compounds

Question 62. What is ‘A’in the following—

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons What Is Following Reaction

Answer: 3

Hydrocarbons What Is A Following Reaction

Question 63.  Which of the following aromatic—

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons Aromatic Following

Answer: 4

Hydrocarbons Planar 6 Pi Electrons

Any planar cyclic system containing (4n + 2)n electrons and having a single cyclic n -electron cloud encompassing all the carbon atoms in the ring is aromatic

Question 64. Which of the following alkenes will give the same product by any method out of hydration, hydroboration-oxidation and oxymercuration-demarcation—

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons Oxymercuration Demercuration

Answer: 2. CH3CH=CHCH3

CH3CH=CHCH3 is symmetrical and gives the same product by any of the given methods adopted

Question 65. Which of the following species is not aromatic

  1. Benzene
  2. Cyclooctatetraenyl dianion
  3. Tropyliumion
  4. Cyclopentadienyl cation

Answer: 4.  Cyclopentadienyl cation

On applying the Huckel’s rule, [(4n + 2)n -electron] system

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons Huckels Rule

Question 66. What will be compound A in the following reaction—

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons What Will Be Compound A In the Following Reaction

Answer: 1.

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons Compound Of The Following Reaction Answer

Question 67.

Hydrocarbons Identify Major And Minor

Answer: 3

Hydrocarbons Strong Electron Releasing

Strong electron releasing group ( — OCH3) generally predominates over the deactivating group ( —NO2). Thus, o – and p – products will be formed. Due to steric hindrance ortho-product will be formed in lesser amount than para-product

Question 68. Which Brof the following compounds is aromatic in nature—

Hydrocarbons Aromatic In Nature

Answer: 1,3 and 4

1: Due to the presence of (4n + 2)πe in; it follows Huckel’s rule and therefore,it is aromatic. Due to the presence of an extra lone pair of electrons in , total electron comes out to be 4πe . Thus, it is antiaromatic.

3: In although it is cyclic and has conjugated Huckel’s (4n + 2)πe rule is not followed here and also ring is notplanar. Hence,it is non-aromatic.

4: It has 6πe in conjugation but not in the ring, hence it is non-aromatic

Question 69. In the given reaction

Hydrocarbons In The Reaction A

Answer: 2

Hydrocarbons In The Given Reaction Electrophilic Addition ReactionAnswer

Question 70. What is the decreasing order of boiling points for the following compounds

Hydrocarbons Boiling Points

  1. 1> 2 > 3
  2. 2 >3> 1
  3. 1 > 3 > 2
  4. 3 > 2 > 1

Answer: 1.1> 2 > 3

Question 71. The correct order of decreasing boiling points of the following hydrocarbons is—

1. n-butane

2. 2-methylbutane

3. n-pentane

4. 2,2- dimethylpropane

  1. (1) > (2) > (3) > (4)
  2. (2) > (3) > (4) > (1)
  3. (4) > (3) > (2) > (1)
  4. (3) > (2) > (4) > (1)

Answer: 4. (3) > (2) > (4) > (1)

Question 72. Addition of HBr with 1-butane (CH3CH2CH=CH2) forms a mixture consisting of 1,2 and 3

Hydrocarbons Addition Of HBr

In the mixture—  

  1. 1 and 2 exist as major products while 3 as minor product
  2. 2 exists as major product and 3 as minor products
  3. 2 exists as a minor product whileI and 3 as major products
  4. 1 and II exist as minor products while 3 as majorproduct

Answer:  1and 2 exist as major products while 3 as minor product

Question 73. Which of the following alkenes does not exhibit geometrical isomerism—

Hydrocarbons Alkenes Does Not Exhibit Geometrical

  1. 1 and 2 exist as major products while 3 as minor product
  2. Exists as major product while and 3 as minor products
  3. 2 exists as minor products while 3 as major products
  4. 1 and 2 exist as minor products while 3 a major product

Answer:  4. 1 and 2 exist as minor products while 3 as major product

Question 74. When a mixture of concentrated aqueous solutions of sodium salts of two monocarboxylic acids is electrolysed, a mixture of ethane, propane and butane is obtained at the anode. The two acids are

CH2COOH, CH3CH2COOH

  1. CH3COOH, HCOOH
  2. CH3CH2COOH,CH3CH2CH2COOH
  3. (CH3)2CHCOOH, CHCOOH

Answer:  1. CH2COOH, CH3CH2COOH

Question 75.  The products formed when CH3I, CH3CHO and CH3CH2COOH are respectively reduced by HI in presence of red phosphorus are—

  1. CH3CH3, CH3CH3, CH3CH2CH3
  2. CH4, CH3CH3, CH3CH2CH3
  3. CH3CH2CH3, CH4, CH3CH3
  4. CH4, CH3CH2CH3, CH3CH2CH2CH3

Answer: 2. CH4, CH3CH3, CH3CH2CH3

Question 76. The decreasing order of boiling points of isomeric pentanes is—

  1. n-pentane > isopentane > neopentane
  2. Isopentane > n-pentane > neopentane
  3. Neopentane > isopentane > n-pentane
  4. n-pentane > neopentane > isopentane

Answer: 1. n-pentane > isopentane > neopentane

Question 77. The reactivity of different types of hydrogen during halogenation of alkanes follows the order—

  1. 2°H > 1°H > 3°H
  2. 1°H >2°H > 3°H
  3. 2°H > 3°H > 1°H
  4. 3°H > 2°H > 1°H

Answer: 4. 3°H > 2°H > 1°H

Question 78. The correct IUPAC name of the monochord derivative that forms as the major product during chlorination of 3-ethyl pentane is—

  1. 1-chloro-3-ethyl pentane
  2. 2-chloro-3-ethyl pentane
  3. 3-chloro-3-ethyl pentane
  4. 3-ethyl-3-chloroethane

Answer:  3. 3-chloro-3-ethyl pentane

Question 79. Which of the following symmetrical alkanes is not prepared by Wurtz reaction—

  1. Ethane
  2. Butane
  3. 2,2,3,3-tetramethyl butane
  4. 2,3-dimethylbutane

Answer: 3. 2,2,3,3-tetramethyl butane

Question 80. The octane numbers of 2,2,4-trimethylpentane isooctane) and n-pentane are respectively—

  1. 50,50
  2. 100,0
  3. 0,100
  4. 50,0

Answer: 2. 2. 100,0

Question 81. The increasing order of octane numberis

  1. n-alkane < branched alkane < cycloalkane < aromatic hydrocarbon
  2. Aromatic hydrocarbon < cycloalkane < branched alkane < n-alkane
  3. Cycloalkane < branched alkane < aromatic hydrocarbon < n-alkane
  4. Aromatic hydrocarbon < cycloalkane < n-alkane < branched alkane

Answer: 1. n-alkane < branched alkane < cycloalkane < aromatic hydrocarbon

Question 82. The amount of oxygen (in mole) required for the combustion of1 mol hydrocarbon (CÿHÿ,) is—

  1. \(\left(x+\frac{y}{4}\right)\)
  2. \(\left(y+\frac{x}{4}\right)\)
  3. (x+y)
  4. \(\left(x+\frac{y}{2}\right)\)

Answer: 1. \(\left(x+\frac{y}{4}\right)\)

Question 83. Which of the following compounds on reacting with Grignard reagent (RMgX) does not form an alkane—

  1. CH3C=CH
  2. CH3CH2OCH2CH
  3. C2H5OH
  4. H2O

Answer:  2. CH3CH2OCH2CH

Question 84. The change in the hybridisation state of carbon in ethane duringits combustion is—

  1. sp³→sp
  2. sp²→sp³
  3. sp→sp³
  4. sp→sp²

Answer: 1. sp³→sp

Question 85. The intermediate formed during chlorination of methane in diffused sunlight is

  1. \(\stackrel{\oplus}{\mathrm{C}} \mathrm{H}_3\)
  2. :CH2
  3. CH3
  4. :CH3

Answer:   3. CH3

Question 86. The product formed when 2 equivalent ofmetallic sodium reacts with l-bromo-3-chlorocyclobutane in ether medium is

Hydrocarbons 2 Equivalent Metallic Sodium

Answer: 4

Question 87. Which of the following compounds are not formed when a mixture of ethyl iodide and n-propyl iodide is subjected to Wurtz reaction—

  1. Butane
  2. Propane
  3. Pentane
  4. Hexane

Answer: 2. Propane

Question 88. In Kolbe’s electrolytic process which of the following compounds does not lead to the formation of an alkane—

  1. CH3COONa
  2. CH3CH2COONa
  3. HCOONa
  4. CH3CH2CH2COOK

Answer: 3. HCOONa

Question 89. —I + Zn +I —R—>R —R + Znl2; The reaction is—

  1. Frankland reaction
  2. Grignard reaction
  3. Wurtzreaction
  4. Corey-House synthesis

Answer: 1. Frankland reaction

Question 90. Which of the following statements is not true—

  1. Alkanes are non-polar compounds
  2. Alkanes are insoluble in polar solvents like water
  3. Among isomeric alkanes, n-alkane has the lowest boiling point
  4. Higher alkanes (> C17) are hard like wax

Answer: 3. Among isomeric alkanes, n-alkane has the lowest boiling point

Question 91. The reagent which is not used in the preparation of propene from 1-bromopropane is

  1. Water/KOH
  2. Ethanol/ C2H5ONa+
  3. Ethanol/KOH
  4. Tert-butylalcohol/(CH3)3COK+

Answer: 1. Water/KOH

Question 92. The reducing agent which is not used to prepare RCH=CHR from RC=CR is—

  1. Na/liq.NH3
  2. H2/Lindlar’s catalyst
  3. B2H6 /tetrahydrofuran
  4. H2/PtorPd

Answer: 4. H2/PtorPd

Question 93. Decreasing order of stability of the given carbanions is—

1. CH3—C≡C:

2. H —C=C:

3. CH3—:CH2

  1. 1 > 2 > 3
  2. 2 > 1> 3
  3. 3 > 2 > 1
  4. 3 > 1 > 2

Answer: 2. 2 > 1> 3

Question 94. Baeyer’s reagent which is used in the Baeyer’s test for detecting ethylenic unsaturation is—

  1. An acidic solution of potassium permanganate
  2. A dilute alkaline solution of potassium permanganate
  3. An aqueous solution of bromine
  4. A solution ofbrominein acetic acid

Answer: 2. A dilute alkaline solution of potassium permanganate

Question 95. Which of the following compounds on ozonolysis forms C02 along with other products—

  1. CH2=C=CHCH3
  2. CH3CH=CH—CH=CH2
  3. CH3CH=CH—CH=CH2
  4. CH3CH=CH—CH=CH2

Answer: 1. CH2=C=CHCH3

Question 96. Which of the following compounds on ozonolysis forms a carbonyl compound

  1. CH3CH=CH2
  2. (CH3)2C=CHCH3
  3. (CH3)2C=C(CH3)2
  4. CH2=CH —CH=CH2

Answer:  3. (CH3)2C=C(CH3)2

Question 97. Alkene which forms CH3COCH2CH2CH2CH2COCH3 on ozonolysis is

Hydrocarbons Alkene Which Form Ozonolysis

Answer:  4.

Question 98. An alkene, on ozonolysis forms HCHO, CH3COCHO and CH3CHO. The alkene is—

  1. CH2=C(CH3)—CH=CHCH3
  2. CH2=C(CH3) —CH2 —CH=CH2
  3.  CH3—CH=CH—CH=CHCH3
  4. CH3—CH=CH—CH2—CH=CH2

Answer: 1. CH2=C(CH3)—CH=CHCH3

Question 99. CH3COCOCH3, CH3COCHO and OHC—CHO are formed due to the ozonolysis of o-xylene. The ratio in which the compounds are formed—

  1. 3:2:1
  2. 2:3:1
  3. 1:2:3
  4. 3:1:2

Answer: 3. 1:2:3

Question 100. Which of the following reactions occurs following Markownikoff’s rule

Hydrocarbons Accordance With Markowinkoffs Rule

Answer:  4

Question 101. For which of the following reaction, Markownikoff’s rule is applicable—

Hydrocarbons Following Reaction Markownikoffs Rule Applicable

Answer:  3

Question 102. The intermediate which is formed in the first step of the reaction between CH3CH=CH2 and HBr is a

  1. Carbanion
  2. Carbocation
  3. Free radical
  4. Carbene

Answer: 2.

Question 103. Among all the HX compounds, only HBr reacts with CH3CH=CH2 in the presence ofperoxide according to antiMarkownikoff’s rule. This is because, in case of HBr, the third and fourth steps

1. CH3—CH=CH2 + Br→CH3CHCH2Br and

2. CH3CHCH2Br + H —Br→CH3CH2CH2Br + Br )

  1. The third step is exothermic while the fourth step is endothermic
  2. Both the steps are exothermic
  3. The third step is endothermic while the fourth step is exothermic and the fourth steps
  4. Both the steps are endothermic

Answer: 2. Both the steps are exothermic

Question 104. Which of the given compounds on reacting with HBr forms the same product in the presence and absence of peroxide—

Hydrocarbons Absence Of Peroxide

Answer: 3

Question 105. The order of acidity of ethyne (1), ethane (2) and ethene (3) is

  1.  2 >1 >3
  2. 1 >3 >2
  3. 1 >2 >3
  4. 2 >3 >1

Answer: 3. 1 >2 >3

Question 106. The compound which does not form a red precipitate on reacting with ammoniacal cuprous chloride solution is—

Hydrocarbons Ammonical Cuprous Chloride

Answer: 2

Question 107. The reagent that cannot be used to distinguish between ethylene and acetylene is—

  1. Ammoniacal cuprous chloride
  2. Br2/H2O
  3. Dil. H2SO4/Hg2+
  4. Ammoniacal silvernitrate solution

Answer:  2. Br2/H2O

Question 108. Two compounds, when subjected to ozonolysis separately,  CH3COCH2CH3(2mol) Hydrocarbons 1 Mole The compounds are— each form and

  1. Enantiomers
  2. Diastereomers
  3. Metamers
  4. Tautomers

Answer:  1. Enantiomers

Question 109. The compound Y in the given reaction is –

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons The Compound Y In The Given Reaction

Answer: 1

Question 110. An alkene (molecular formula : C5H10) on ozonolysis forms acetone as one of the products. The alkene is—

  1. 2-methyl-1-butene
  2. 3-methyl-1-butene
  3. 2-methyl-2-butene
  4. Cyclopentane

Answer: 2.  3-methyl-1-butene

Question 111. Which of the following compounds can be used to prepare both ethylene and acetylene—

  1. CH3CH2OH
  2. BrCH2CH2Br
  3. CH 3CH2Br
  4. BrCH2CH2OH

Answer: 2. BrCH2CH2Br

Question 112. Alkyl chloride on dehydrochlorination produces 2 alkenes (C6H12) which on ozonolysis form four compounds—

  1. CH3CHO
  2. CH3CH2CHO,
  3. CH3COCH3 and
  4. (CH3)2CHCHO.

The alkenes are—

  1. 4-methylpent-2-ene and 2-methylpent-2-ene
  2. 2-methyl pent-2-ene and 2,3-dimethyl but-2-ene
  3. 4-methylpent-2-en§ and hex-3-ene
  4. 2-methylpent-2-ene and hex-3-ene

Answer: 1. 4-methyl pent-2-ene and 2-methyl pent-2-ene

Question 113. The compound that exhibits geometrical isomerism is—

  1. C2H5Br
  2. (CH)2(COOH)2
  3. CH3CHO
  4. (CH2)2(COOH)2

Answer: 2. (CH)2(COOH)2

Question 114. Hydrocarbons Lindlars Catalyst

  1. X: cis-2-butene and Y: frans-2-butene
  2. X: trans-2-butene and Y :cis-2-butene
  3. X, Y both are cis-2-butene
  4. X, Y both are trans-2-butene

Answer: 1. X: cis-2-butene and Y: frans-2-butene

Question 115. An alkene may be formed from a carbocation if—

  1. One H- ion gets eliminated
  2. One H+ ion gets added
  3. One H+ ion gets eliminated
  4. One H- ion gets added

Answer: 3. One H+ ion gets eliminated

Question 116. The number of moles of water produced when one mole acetylene undergoes complete combustion is—

  1. 1 mol
  2. 2 mol
  3. 3 mol
  4. 4 mol

Answer: 1.  1 mol

Question 117.  Hydrocarbons ABC In The Above Reaction , A, B, C in the above reaction are respectively—

  1. CH3COCH3, CH3CHO, CO2
  2. CH3COCOOH, CH3COOH, CO2
  3. CH3CH2COOH, CH3CHO, CO2
  4. CH3COCH3, CHgCOOH, CO2

Answer: 4. CH3COCH3, CHgCOOH, CO2

Question 118. The position of the double bond in an alkene can be determined by—

  1. Hydrogenation
  2. Ozonolysis
  3. Hydroxylation
  4. Hydroboration

Answer: 2. Ozonolysis

Question 119. Heavy water reacts with calcium carbide to form—

  1. CaD2
  2. C2D2
  3. Ca2D2O
  4. CD2

Answer: 2. C2D2

Question 120. The addition of HBr occurs most readily for—

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons Addition Of HBr Occcurs

Answer: 4.

Question 121.   Hydrocarbons In The Reaction A In this reaction a is

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons In The Reaction A Options

Answer: 1.

Question 122. Which of the following compounds undergoes hydrolysis to form propyne-

  1. Al4C3
  2. Mg2C3
  3. B4C
  4. La4C3

Answer: 2.Mg2C3

Question 123. Hydration of alkenes (except ethylene) in presence of acid produce—

  1. 1° alcohols
  2. 2° or 3° alcohols
  3. Mixture of1° and 2° alcohols
  4. Mixture of 2° and 3° alcohols

Answer: 2. 2° or 3° alcohols

Question 124. Cyclohexanone Hydrocarbons Cyclohexanone  react with witting reagents (Ph3P—CHR) to form—

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons Cyclohexanone Reacts With Wittig Reagent

Answer: 3

Question 125. When ethylene gas is passed through an aqueous solution of NaCl and Br2 the compound whose formation is not possible is—

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons Ethylene Gas Is Options

Answer: 3

Question 126. Hydrocarbons Here X Is Here , X is

  1. Cyclobutane
  2. Cyclopropane
  3. Cyclopentane
  4. Cyclohexane

Answer: 2. Cyclopropane

Question 127. Which of the following alkynes cannot be converted into a terminal alkyne when heated with NaNH2/ paraffin—

  1. CHC3=CCH3
  2. CH3CH2C=CCH2CH3
  3. CH3CH2CH2C=CCH2CH3
  4. (CH3)2CHC=CCH(CH3)2

Answer: 4. (CH3)2CHC=CCH(CH3)2

Question 128. Correct order of decreasing reactivity of the given com¬ pounds towards electrophilic substitution reaction is –

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons Towards Elecytrophilic Substitution Reaction

  1. 3 > 1 > 2 > 4
  2. 4 > 1 > 2 > 3
  3. 1 > 2 > 3 > 4
  4. 2 > 1 > 3 > 4

Answer: 1. 3 > 1 > 2 > 4

Question 129. Number of monochloride derivatives possible for diphenylmethane Hydrocarbons Diphenylmethane

  1. 4
  2. 8
  3. 7
  4. 18

Answer: 1. 4

Question 130. The compound which is formed in excess when Cl2 reacts with toluene in presence of FeCl3 is—

  1. Benzyl chloride
  2. o – and p -chlorotoluene
  3. m -chlorotoluene
  4. Benzoyl chloride

Answer: 2. o – and p -chlorotoluene

Question 131. The major product obtained when Hydrocarbons Major Product Obtained

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons Undergoes Monobromination

Answer: 2

Question 132. Polysubstitution occurs for which of the following reactions—

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons Ploysubstitution Following Reactions

Answer: 2

Question 133.  Hydrocarbons X Compound Is compound X is________________

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons X Compound Options

Answer: 2.

Question 134. The compound which is most reactive in case of electrophilic attack is-

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons Electrophilic Attack

Answer: 1

Question 135. Benzene does not form additional compound because—

  1. It has ring structure
  2. Its double bond is verystrong
  3. It has 6 equivalent h-atoms
  4. Its aromatic stability is lost

Answer: 4. Its aromatic stability is lost

Question 136. In strong acidic and alkaline medium, p-aminophenol exists in (X) and (Y) forms respectively

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons Strong Acidic And Alkaline Medium

Thus, in acidic and alkaline medium, electrophilic substitution occurs at-

  1. a,c
  2. a,d
  3. b,c
  4. b,d

Answer: 1. a,c

Question 137. In electrophilic substitution reaction of benzene—

  1. The first step is exothermic but the second step is endothermic
  2. The first step is endothermic but the second step is exothermic
  3. Both the steps are exothermic
  4. Both the steps are endothermic

Answer: 2.  The first step is endothermic but the second step is exothermic

Question 138. The method suitable for converting benzene into propylbenzene is 

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons Converting Benzene Into Propyl Benzene

Answer: 3

Question 139. An aromatic compound of molecular formula C8H10 reacts with a mixture of concentrated HN03 and concentrated H2SO4 to form a mononitro compound. The structural formula of C8H10 is

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons Mononitro Compound

Answer: 4

Question 140. Nitrobenzene is prepared from benzene by using conc. HNO3 and cone. H2SO4 . In the nitrating mixture, nitric acid acts as a/an—

  1. Base
  2. Acid
  3. Reducing agent
  4. Catalyst

Answer: 1.  Base

Question 141. On passing excess Cl2(g) through boiling toluene, the only compound that forms is—

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons Boilinhg Toluene

Answer: 4

Question 142. Which of the given participates in Friedel-Crafts reaction—

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons Participates In Friedel Crafts Reaction

Answer: 4

Question 143. In which of the following compounds the ring on the left side undergoes electrophilic substitution reaction—

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons Left Side Undergoes Electrophilic Substitution

Answer: 4

Question 144. The increasing order of the rate of nitration reaction of the following compounds is- 

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons Nitration Reaction

  1. 2 < 3 < 1 < 4 < 5
  2. 4 < 5 < 1 = 3 < 2
  3. 4 < 1 = 3 < 5 < 2
  4. 1 < 3 < 2 < 5 < 4

Answer: 2.  4 < 5 < 1 = 3 < 2

Question 145. The major product formed in the following reaction is-

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons The Major Product Formed In The Following REaction

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons The Major Product Formed In The Following Reaction Options

Answer: 4.

Question 146. Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons The Compound X is

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons X Compound Is Options

Answer: 2

Question 147. The acidity of which of the following compounds is quite high compared to the rest of the given compounds—

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons Quite High Compared To The Rest Options

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A

Answer: 3

Question 148. Bromination takes place most rapidly in—

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons Bromination Takes Place Most Rapidly

Answer: 2

Question 149. 

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons X And Y Compound Options

Answer: 1

Question 150. In case of trisubstituted benzene, if the substituents are different, then the number of isomers will be

  1. 5
  2. 8
  3. 6
  4. 10

Answer: 4. 10

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A

Question 151. The chemical formula ofCetane is—

  1. C6H12
  2. (CH3)3C(CH2)11CH3
  3. CH3(CH2)14CH3
  4. (C2H5)4C

Answer: 3. CH3(CH2)14CH3

Question 152. Which of the following gets converted into an explosive when it is turned into liquid by applying high pressure—

  1. Propane
  2. n-butane
  3. Isobutane
  4. Acetylene

Answer: 4. Acetylene

Question 153. The product which is not obtained when ethylene reacts with K3 mixed with Br2/H2O is—

  1. BrCHCH2Br
  2. BrCH2CH2OH
  3. HOCH2CH2OH
  4. BrCH2CH2I

Answer: 3. HOCH2CH2OH

Question 154. Which of the following does not form a sooty flame—

  1. Toluene
  2. Benzene
  3. Mesitylene
  4. Butane

Answer: 4. Butane

Question 155. Which of the following statements is incorrect—

  1. Delocalisation of electrons occur between two n bonds in a propadiene molecule
  2. Delocalisation of electrons occur between two n bonds in a molecule of 1, 3-butadiene
  3. Cumulated polyenes with odd number of double bonds exhibit geometrical isomerism if their terminal groups are different
  4. Cumulated polyenes with even number of double bonds exhibit optical isomerism if their terminal groups are different

Answer: 1.  Delocalisation of electrons occur between two n bonds in a propadiene molecule

Question 156. Which of the given is a benzenoid aromatic compound—

  1. Anthracene
  2. Pyrrole
  3. Pyridine
  4. Cyclopentadienyl anion

Answer: 1. Anthracene

Question 157. Gas used in Hawker’s lamp for emitting bright light is—

  1. Acetylene
  2. Ethylene
  3. Methane
  4. Propane

Answer: 1. Acetylene

Question 158. Benezene when subjected to ozonolysis (03 followed by Zn/H2O ) forms—

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons Benzene When Ozonolysis

Answer: 1

Question 159. BHC is a/an—

  1. Fertiliser
  2. Insecticide
  3. Explosive
  4. Solvent

Answer: 2.  Insecticide

Question 160. (CH3)3CMgCl reacts with D2O to form—

  1. (CH3)3CD
  2. (CH3)3OD
  3. (CD3)3CD
  4. (CD3)3OD

Answer: 1.  (CH3)3CD

Question 161. Which two compounds undergo ozonolysis to produce CH3CHO, CH3COCHO and HCHO —

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons Two Compounds Undergo Ozonolysis To Produce

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A

Answer: 2, 3

Question 162. Among the following oxidation reactions of methane, which two are controlled oxidation reactions —

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons Oxidation Reactions

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A

Answer: 3,4

Question 163. Which of the following alkenes undergo ozonolysis to form a mixture of two ketones—

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons A Mixture Of Two Ketones

Answer: 3,4

Question 164. Which of the following compounds form the same product with HBr in presence and absence of peroxide—

  1. Cyclohexene
  2. But-2-ene
  3. Hex-3-ene
  4. 1-methylcyclohexene

Answer: 1,2,3

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A

Question 165. The compounds which react with dilute H2SO4 in the presence of HgS04 to form methyl ketone are—

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons Methyl Ketone

Answer: 2,3,4

Question 166. The compounds which only form glyoxal when subjected to ozonolysis are—

  1. Ethene
  2. Benzene
  3. Toluene
  4. Ethyne

Answer: 2,4

Question 167. In which of the following compounds, nitration take place at the para-position—

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons Nitration Take Place Para Position

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A

Answer: 2,4

Question 168. Which of the following groups are deactivating but ortho-J para-orienting—

  1. —Cl
  2. —CH=CH—COOH
  3. —N=O
  4. -CF3

Answer: 1,2,3

Question 169. Which two of the following groups are used to block a definite position in the benzene ring-

  1. -SO3H
  2. — CH3
  3. — CF3
  4. —CMe3

Answer: 1,4

Question 170. Which of the following reactions do not occur—

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons Which Of The Following Reactions Do Not Occur

Answer: 1,2

question 171. Which of the following reactions do not take place easily in the benzene ring—

  1. Polyadenylation
  2. Polynitration
  3. Poly sulphonation
  4. Polyalkylation

Answer: 1,2,3

Question 172. Polybrominated takes place in which of the given cases—

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons Polybromination Takes Place

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A

Answer: 2,3

Question 173. In which of the following reactions, toluene is obtained— When methanol reacts with PhMgBr

  1. Na-salt of o -toluic acid is heated with sodalime
  2. p-cresol is distilled in presence of Zn dust
  3. Benzyl alcohol is heated in the presence of red
  4. Phosphorous and concentrated HI

Answer: 2,3,4

Question 174. In which of the reactions, ferf-butylbenzene is formed—

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons Tert Butylbenzene

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A

Answer: 1,3,4

Question 175. Which on ozonolysis forms a mixture of two ketones—

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons Ozonolysis Form A Mixture Of Two Ketones

Answer: 1,3,4

Question 176. Which of the following compounds undergo chlorination to produce a type of monochloroalkane—

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons Sigma Complex Of Benzene

Answer: 1,2,4

Question 177. Which undergoes nitration reaction faster than benzene-

  1. C6H5CH3
  2. C6H5NHCOCH3
  3. C6H5COOH
  4. C6H5CHO

Answer: 1,2

Question 178. Which undergoes nitration reaction slower than benzene—

  1. C6H5CH=CHCOOH
  2. C6H5CH=CH-NO2
  3. C6H5CMe3
  4. C6H5OCH3

Answer: 1,2

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A

Question 179. Which of the following cr -complexes are more stable than the cr -complex of benzene—

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons Sigma Complex Of Benzene

Answer: 1,4

Question 180. Which of the following compounds has 10 isomers—

  1. CI2C6H3NH2
  2. CH3C6H4NO2
  3. BrClC6H3CHO
  4. O2NC6H3BrCH3

Answer: 3,4

Question 181. The compounds which get oxidised by alkaline KMn04 to form benzoic acid are —

  1. Toluene
  2. Ethylbenzene
  3. Tert-butyl benzene
  4. Benzyl chloride

Answer: 1,2,4

Question 182. Which of the following can be used to distinguish between ethylene and acetylene—

  1. Bromine water
  2. Ammoniacal Cu2Cl2
  3. Ammoniacal AgNO solution
  4. Dilute alkaline kmnO4 solution

Answer: 2,3

Question 183. In which two compounds, homolytic cleavage of the C—Ha bond takes place most readily—

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons Homolytic Cleavage

Answer: 1,2

Question 184. The compounds which do not participate in Friedel Crafts reaction are —

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons Do Not Participate In Friedel Crafts Reactions

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A

Answer: 1,2,4

Question 185. Which of the following cannot be used as an alkylating reagent in Friedel-Crafts reaction—

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons Alkylating Reagent In Friedel Crafts Reaction

Answer: 2,4

Question 186. Which of the following facts are correct

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons Which OF The Following Facts Are Correct

Answer: 1,3

Question 187. The compounds which exist as liquids are—

  1. C5H12
  2. C3H8
  3. C2H6
  4. C7H16

Answer: 1,4

Question 188. Which of the given can be prepared by Wurtz reaction

  1. 2-methylpropane
  2. 2,3-dimethyl butane
  3. Hexane
  4. All of them

Answer: 2,3

Question 189. Which of the following compounds do not produce acetylene on hydrolysis—

  1. CaC2
  2. Al4C3
  3. Be2C
  4. Zn(CH4)2

Answer: 2,3,4

Question 190. Markownikoff’s rule is applicable for which of the following reactions—

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons Markownikoffs Rule Is Applicable Following Reactions

Answer: 1,2

Question 191. Which of the following options are correct with respect to Friedel-Crafts reaction —

  1. Alkylation Reagent: CH2=C6H5Cl
  2. Solvent: C6H5NO2, CS2
  3. Catalyst: AlCl3 , H2SO4
  4. All Of the Above

Answer: 2,3

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A

Question 192. Lewisite and its antidote are—

  1. Lewisite ClCH=CHAsC12
  2. Antidote 1,1-dimercapto-l-propanol
  3. Lewisite CH2=CHAsCl2
  4. Antidote 2,3-dimercapto-l-propanol

Answer: 1,4

Question 193. Halogenation ofan alkene is a or an—

  1. Substitution reaction
  2. Elimination reaction
  3. Addition reaction
  4. Oxidation reaction

Answer: 1,4

Question 194. During detection of unsaturation in an unknown organic compound disappearance of the violet colour of dilute and cold KMn04 solution indicate—

  1. Presence of ethylenic unsaturation in the compound
  2. The presence of a group in the compound which gets easily oxidised by kmn04
  3. Presence of only single covalent bond in the compound
  4. All of the above are true

Answer: 1,2

Question 195. Which of the following options are correct—

  1. Ortho- or para-orienting: — NR2, —NHCOCH3
  2. Mete-orienting: —NO3, —Cl
  3. Ortho- or para-orienting: — CF3, —SO3H
  4. Mete-orienting: —CHO, —COR

Answer: 1,4

Question 196. Which of the following statements are true for Kolbe’s electrolytic method—

  1. It is an effective method for preparing symmetrical alkanes
  2. Reduction of carboxylate ion occurs at the anode
  3. Platinum electrodes are used in this method
  4. Methane cannot be prepared by this method

Answer: 1,3,4

Question 197. Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons In This Reaction X And Y  In this reaction, X and Y are-

  1. X = CH3COOH
  2. X = HCOOH
  3. F = CH3COONa
  4. Y = C2H5COONa

Answer: 1,3

Hydrocarbons Very Short Questions And Answers

Question 1. Which hydrocarbon is obtained on hydrolysis of Al4C3?
Answer: CH4

Question 2. Name an alkane which cannot be prepared by the Wurtzreaction.
Answer: CH4

Question 3. Which alkane is expected to be formed when ethyl magnesium bromide is allowed to react with water?
Answer: Ethane

Question 4. How many acyclic isomers of C5H12 are possible?
Answer: Isomer

Question 5. What is the main constituent of CNG ?
Answer: CH4

Question 6. Which type of aliphatic hydrocarbon undergoes substitution reaction?
Answer: Saturated

Question 7. What is the name of the alkene obtained when an aqueous solution of potassium succinate is electrolysed?
Answer: Ethylene

Question 8. CH3CH=CH2HCl/peroxlde?
Answer: CH3CHClCH

Question 9. Which alkene on ozonolysis yields only acetaldehyde?
Answer:  2-butene

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A

Question 10. What is Baeyer’s reagent? What is its use?
Answer:  Alkaline KMnO4 ,it is used to identify C=C and C=C;

Question 11. What is Lindlar’s catalyst?
Answer: Pd-CaCO3/ (CH3COO)2Pb

Question 12. What is teflon?
Answer: Polytetrafluoroethylene

Question 13. 2-butanone and ethanal are obtained when an alkene containing five carbon atoms is subjected to ozonolysis. State the position of the double bond in the alkene.
Answer: Doublebondis at C-2 of the alkene containing five carbon atoms

Question 14. What is mustard gas?
Answer:  2,2′- dichloro-diethyl sulphide;

Question 15. Name a reagent which can be used to distinguish between 2-butyne and 1-butyne.
Answer: Ammoniacal Cu2Cl2

Question 16. Which alkyne is used in Hawker’s lamp?
Answer: HC=CH

Question 17. Mention the name of the compound obtained when acetylene reacts with arsenic chloride.
Answer: Lewisite

Question 18. What is the chemical name of Westron?
Answer: 1, 1,2,2- tetrachloroethane

Question 19. Mention one use ofWestrosol.
Answer: As an organic solvent

Question 20. What is obtained when acetylene is passed through a hot iron tube?
Answer: C6H6

Question 21. Give an example of an anti-knock compound.
Answer: Tetraethyl lead

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A

Question 22. Which of the following cannot produce white precipitate by the action of ammoniacal AgNO3—Acetylene, dimethyl acetylene, methyl acetylene, ethyl acetylene. one acts as the base
Answer: Dimethyl acetylene

Question 23.  Name the reagent which is used to carry out dihydroxylation of a double bond.
Answer: OsO4 followed by hydrolysis;

Question 24. Which polymer is used to make carry bags? Name its monomer.
Answer: 5. Polyethylene or Polythene, ethylene;

Question 25. Which compound is formed as the major product when propyne reacts with 20% H2SO4 in the presence of 1% HgSO4 at 80°C?
Answer: . Acetone (CH3COCH3)

Question 26. What is the state of hybridisation of each carbon atom in an aromatic ring?
Answer: sp²

Question 27. Name the compound obtained by ozonolysis of benzene.
Answer: Glyoxal

Question 28. Give an example of a group which increases the rate of aromatic electrophilic substitution reaction.
Answer: —NH2

Question 29. Give an example of a group which decreases the rate of aromatic electrophilic substitution reaction.
Answer: —NO2

Question 30. Name an ortho-/para-orienting group.
Answer: Methyl (-CH3)

Question 31. Name a meta-orienting group.
Answer: Nitro ( —NO2)

Question 32. Give an example of a reversible electrophilic substitution reaction.
Answer: Sulphonationreaction

Question 33. Which is the smallest aromatic molecule/ion?
Answer: cyclopropenyl cation

Question 34. What is the orientation of the deactivating halogen atoms?
Answer: Ortho-/para

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A

Question 35. Which heterocyclic compound remains as an impurity in benzene obtained from fractional distillation of coal tar?
Answer: Thiophene

Question 36. Which reagent is used in Birch reduction?
Answer: Na / liquid NH3, ethanol

Question 37. Which type of flame is observed during the combustion of benzene?
Answer: Sooty flame

Question 38. Nitration occurs at which position of the compound
Answer: Predominantly para position

Question 39. Which electrophile is involved in the desulphonation reaction
Answer:  Proton (H+);

Question 40. Give an example of a carcinogen
Answer: 1, 2-benzpyrene

Question 41. Between HNO3 and H2SO4 which one acts as the base during formation ofN02 ion?
Answer: HNO3

Question 42. Which is the rate-determining step in an aromatic electrophilic substitution reaction?
Answer: First step, i.e., formation of σ -complex;

Question 43. Which step in aromatic electrophilic substitution reaction is exothermic in nature?
Answer: Second step i.e., formation of substituted compound;

Question 44. Give an example of a neutral electrophile which participates in an electrophilic substitution reaction.
Answer: Sulphur trioxide;

Question 45. Give an example of a polynuclear hydrocarbon.
Answer: Anthracene

Hydrocarbons Anthracene

Question 46. Which compound other than anhydrous AlCl3 can be used for the ethylation of benzene?
Answer: FeCl3

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A

Question 47. What is gamm exane? Mention its use.
Answer: BHC (Benzene hexachloride); as an insecticide

Question 48. What is the electrophile involved in nitration reaction?
Answer: NO2

Question 49. Name the products obtained on pyrolysis of propane.
Answer: Propene, ethene, methane and H2

Question 50. Which compound out of 1-butene, 1-butyne and 2-butyne is most acidic?
Answer: 1-butyne is the most acidic.

Question 51. Write the name of the compound obtained when n-heptane is subjected to aromatisation
Answer: Toluene (C6H5—CH3).

Question 52. Which alkane cannot be prepared by Kolbe’s method?
Answer: Methane (CH4).

Question 54. Write the names of the compounds obtained on ozonolysis of o-xylene.
Answer: Glyoxal, methyl glyoxal and dimethyl glyoxal

Question 55. What is lindane?
Answer: Benzene hexachloride (BHC), C6H6Cl6.

Question 56. What is picric acid?
Answer:  2,4,6-trinitrophenol is known as picric acid

Question 57.  What is the name of the compound obtained when benzene is oxidised by air (02) in the presence of V205 catalyst heated at 500°C ?
Answer: Maleic anhydride

Question 58. Which group out of -NO, and -CgHg is an o-/p directing group and which one is a o-/p-directing group?
Answer: NO2→m -directing; —C6H5→o-/p -directing

Question 59.  Which will undergo nitration at a faster rate: C6H6 or C6H5Cl?
Answer: C6H6 undergoes nitration at a comparatively faster rate

Question 60. Name a group which is o -/p -directing but is also a deactivating group.
Answer: Chloro(-Cl)

Question 61. A hydrocarbon on ozonolysis produces ethanal and methanal. 
Answer:  CH3CH =CH2

Question 62. Mention the product: Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A Hydrocarbons Mention The Product
Answer: CH3CHO

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A

Question 63. Write the structure of an organic compound which reacts with water to yield methanal and hydrogen peroxide
Answer:

Hydrocarbons Hydrogen Peroxide

Question 64.  Benzene reacts with CH3COCl in the presence of anhydrous AlCl3 to form (an organic compound).
Answer: Acetophenone.

Question 65. Which reagent can be used for the following conversion?  HC≡CH→HC=CH2
Answer: H2,Pd-CaCO3/Pb(OAc)2 (Lindler’s catalyst)

Fill In The Blanks

Question 1. The formula of marsh gas is _______________
Answer: CH4

Question 2.  _______________ are called paraffins.
Answer: Alkanes

Question 3. Beryllium carbide yields _______________
Answer: CH4

Question 4. Dutch oil is _______________
Answer: 1,2-dichloroethane;

Question 5. Wurtz reaction is suitable for the preparation of _______________alkanes.
Answer: Symmetrical

Question 6. CHgCOCHg undergoes Clemmensen reduction to yield _______________
Answer: Propane

Question 7.___________ can be identified by Schryver’s colour test
Answer: CH

Question 8. Peroxide effect is applicable only for _______________
Answer: HBr

Question 9. _______________ is obtained when.a solution of sodium butanoate is electrolysed
Answer: n-hexane

Question 10. Isobutylmagnesium bromide reacts with water to form _______________
Answer: Isobutane

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A

Question 11. _______________ on ozonolysis produces formaldehyde and acetaldehyde.
Answer: Propene

Question 12. _______________ is obtained as the major product when 2- butanol is dehydrated.
Answer: But 2 ene

Question Benzene is a polymer of _______________
Answer: Acetylene

Question 14. The simplest hydrocarbon which reacts with ammoniacal silver nitrate to produce a white precipitate is _________
Answer: Acetylene

Question 15. _______________ is obtained when 2-butyne is passed through a mixture of 20% H2SO4 and 1% H2SO4
Answer: 2 – butanone

Question 16. Hexamethylbenzene is the trimer of _______________
Answer: 2 butyne

Question 17. When a mixture of _________ and Ag – powder is heated ________________ is obtained as the product
Answer: Chloroform, acetylene

Question 18. The values of boiling and melting points of alkadienes are _ than the corresponding alkanes and alkenes containing same number of carbon atoms.
Answer: Higher

Question 19. Ozonolysis of acetylene forms _______________
Answer: Glyoxal

Question 20. Two molecules of HBr react with acetylene to form _______________
Answer: 1,1 dibromomoethane

Question 21. If an alkene forms only one type of carbonyl compound on ozonolysis, then it can be concluded that the alkene is _______________
Answer: Symmetrical

Question 22. CxHy _______________ xCO2 + + y/2 H2O Heat
Answer: \(\left(x+\frac{y}{4}\right) \mathrm{O}_2\)

Question 23. Number of isomeric tribromobenze is _______________
Answer: Three

Question 24. 1,3,5-trinitrobenzene is an_ compound. _______________
Answer: Explosive

Question 25. The resonance-stabilised carbocation formed in the first step of the electrophilic substitution reaction is called _______________
Answer: Sigma complex

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A

Question 26. _______________ of benzene is carried out by using N+O4 BF4 salt.
Answer: Nitration

Question 27. When benzene is oxidised by atmospheric oxygen in the presence of V2O5 at high temperature, _______________ is obtained.
Answer: Maleic anhydride

Question 28. The product obtained due to Birch reduction of benzene when subjected to ozonolysis forms only _______________
Answer: Propanediol

Question 29. —COOH is a/an ______________ Group but COO is an __________ group
Answer: Deactivating, activating;

Question 30. NH2 group _______________ electron density at ortho-/para positions of the rin
Answer: Increases;

Question 31.  —NO2 group ______________ electron density at meta position of the ring
Answer: Decreases

Question 32. C —C bond lengths of benzene are _________________
Answer: Equivalent

Question 15. Fill in the blank __________(organic compound) is obtained when an aqueous solution of potassium succinate is electrolysed.
Answer: Ethylene

Class 11 Chemistry Warm Up Questions And Answers

Question 1. What are the chief constituents of LPG?
Answer: The chief constituents of LPG are n-butane and isobutane.

Question 2. Why do C—C bonds instead of C—H bonds of alkanes dissociate due to the effect of heat?
Answer:
The bond energy of the C— C bond (ΔH = 83 kcal. mol-1) is less than that of the C—H bond (ΔH= 99 kcal. mol-1). So, the C—C bond dissociates more easily than the C—H bond.

Question 3. Write the IUPAC name of the straight-chain hydrocarbon consisting of 20 carbon atoms.
Answer:
IUPAC’s name of the straight-chain hydrocarbon consisting of 20 carbon atoms is eicosane.

Question 4. Give the structures of the isomers of molecular formula C5H12
Answer: CH3CH2CH2CH2CH3 (n -pentane) CH3CH(CH3)CH,CH3 (isopentane) and (CH3)4C (neopentane)

Question 5. Explain why dry ether is used in the Wurtzreaction.
Answer:

Dry ether is used because it is present in ether, then it may react with metallic sodium thereby rendering it ineffective

2Na + 2H2O→2NaOH + H2

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A

Question 6. Predict whether Me3CBr will take part in Wurtz reaction or not
Answer:  Wurtz reaction proceeds through the SN2 pathway. As tertiary alkyl halides do not participate in SN2 reaction (due to steric effect), Me3CBr does not participate in Wurtz reaction

Question 7. Explain why methane does not react with chlorine in the dark.
Answer:  The reaction does not take place because in the dark Cl —Cl bond does not dissociate to form Cl free radical;

Question 8. One molecule of a hydrocarbon produces one molecule each of acetone, methyl glyoxal and formaldehyde on ozonolysis.Identify the hydrocarbon.
Answer:

The hydrocarbon is 3, 4-dimethylpenta-l, 3-diene [CH3—C(CH3)=C(CH3)—CH=CH2] or, 2,4-dimethylpenta-1,3-diene [CH2=C(CH3)—CH=C(CH3) —CH3];

Question 9. Explain why 1-butyne reacts with ammoniacal silver nitrate to produce a white precipitate, but 2-butyne does not
Answer:

1-butyne (CH3CH2C=CH) being a terminal alkyne reacts with ammoniacal AgNOsolution to produce a, white precipitate but 2-butyne (CH3C=CCH3) being a non-terminal alkyne does not react with ammoniacal AgNO3 solution;

Question 10. How will you detect the presence of acetylene in a gas mixture?
Answer:

If the gas mixture when passed through ammoniacal AgNO3 solution or ammoniacal Cu2Cl2 solution forms a white or red precipitate, then the gas mixture contains acetylene

Question 11. Explain why the carbon-carbon bond in acetylene is shorter than the carbon-carbon bond in ethylene.
Answer:

cr -bond in acetylene (HC=CH) is formed due to the overlapping of two small sp-hybridised orbitals whereas in ethylene (H2C=CH2) itis formed by overlapping oftwo bigger sp² hybridised orbitals. So, the bond length of HC=CH <H2C=CH2;

Question 12. How will you distinguish between ethylene and acetylene?
Answer:

Acetylene reacts with ammoniacal AgNO2 solution to form a white precipitate of silver acetylide (AgC=CAg) but ethylene does not give a similar reaction with ammoniacal AgNO3 solution

Question 13. The population of which conformation increases with the rise in temperature?
Answer:
The population of the less stable conformation Increases with the increase in temperature.

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A

Question 14. What are the carbides which react with water to form methane commonly known as?
Answer: The carbides which react with water to form methane are commonly known as methanldes.

Question 15.

Hydrocarbons Identify X And Y

Question 16. Why are hydrocarbons insoluble in water but highly soluble in solvents like petroleum ether, benzene, carbon tetrachloride etc?
Answer:

An important principle regarding dissolution is ‘like dissolves like’. It means that polar molecules dissolve in polar solvents while non-polar molecules dissolve in nonpolar solvents. This dissolution process is thermodynamically favourable. Water is a highly polar solvent whereas, petroleum, ether, benzene, and carbon tetrachloride are non-polar solvents. As hydrocarbons are non-polar compounds, they are insoluble in water but soluble in petroleum ether, benzene and carbon tetrachloride.

Question 17. Why are the alkanes called paraffins?
Answer: Alkanes are called paraffin as their chemical reactivity is quite low (Latin: parum = little, affinis = affinity).

Question 18. What are the typical reactions of alkanes?
Answer: Typical reactions of alkanes are substitution reactions.

Question 19. Mention the type of mechanism through which halogenation of alkanes occurs.
Answer: Free-radical mechanism.

Question 20. What happens when methane is heated at 1000°C in the absence of air?
Answer:

Methane when heated at 1000°C in the absence of air, decomposes to form a fine powder of carbon which is known as carbon black:

⇒ \(\mathrm{CH}_4 →{1000^{\circ} \mathrm{C}} \mathrm{C}+2 \mathrm{H}_2 \uparrow\)

Question 21. What is the main constituent of natural gas which is used as a fuel?
Answer: The main constituent of natural gas which is used as a fuel is methane (90%).

Question 22. Why is light or heat essential for the chlorination of alkanes?
Answer:

Cl free radical is required for the initiation of the reaction between an alkane and chlorine, i.e., homolysis of the Cl—Cl bond is necessary. The energy required for this hemolysis is derived from light or heat. So, light or heat is essential for the chlorination of alkanes.

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A

Question 23. Which gas is responsible for explosions in coal mines?
Answer: Methane is responsible for explosions in coal mines.

Question 24. Write the IUPAC name of freon – 113.
Answer: IUPAC name off neon-113, i.e., Cl2FC— CClF2 is 1,1,2-trichloro-1,2,2-trifluoroethane

Question 25. Which reaction helps locate the position of double bond in alkenes?
Answer:

The reaction which helps locate the position of double bond in alkenes is ozonolysis.

Question 26. An alkene (C4Hg) reacts with HBr in the presence or in absence of peroxide to give the same compound. Identify the alkene.
Answer:

As tire given alkene (molecular formula: C4HO) reacts with HBr to give the same product in the presence and absence of peroxide, the alkene is symmetrical. So, a symmetrical alkene with molecular formula C4H8 is but-2-ene (CH3CH=CHCH3).

Question 27. Calculate the number of sigma (or) and pi (n) bonds in methyl acetylene.
Answer:

In methyl acetylene (CH3-C CH), there are 6 a-bonds and 2 bonds.

Question 28. Which of the following compounds will react with metallic sodium to produce H2 gas?

  1. C2H4
  2. C6H6
  3. C2H2
  4. CH3CH2CH3

Answer: 3. Acetylene (C2H2) reacts with metallic sodium to produce H2 gas:

⇒ \(\mathrm{HC} \equiv \mathrm{CH}+2 \mathrm{Na} \rightarrow \mathrm{NaC} \equiv \mathrm{CNa}+\mathrm{H}_2 \uparrow\)

Class 11 Hydrocarbons Q&A

Question 29. The C2 — C3 bond 1,3-butadiene possesses some double bond characteristics.
Answer:

The C2—C3 bond in 1,3-butadiene possesses some double bond character because of the delocalisation of n -electrons.

Question 30. An arena when oxidised forms 1,3-dicarboxylic acid. Write the numbers of side chains and their position in the arena.
A
nswer:

As the arena gets oxidised to a dicarboxylic acid, it has two side chains. It can be said that the two side chains are at 1,3- or meta-position of each other because a 1,3-dicarboxylic acid forms in the oxidation.

Question 32. Distinguish between benzene and toluene with the help of a chemical reaction.
Answer:

Toluene on oxidation by alkaline KMn04 and subsequent acidification produces shining white crystals of benzoic acid. Benzene, on the other hand, does not undergo oxidation with alkaline KMnO4 to form any white precipitate.

Question 33. Between — NH2 and —NO2, which group facilitates nucleophilic substitution reaction in the benzene ring?
Answer:

The group which facilitates nucleophilic substitution reaction in the benzene ring is — NO2 because it decreases the electron density of the benzene ring.

Question 34. Arrange in order of increasing reactivity towards electrophilic substitution: benzene, nitrobenzene, toluene, chlorobenzene.
Answer:

The order of increasing reactivity towards electrophilic substitution of the compounds is :

Nitrobenzene< Chloro¬ benzene < Benzene < Toluene.

Question 35. Name the halogen carrier in the chlorination of benzene.
Answer: The compound which acts as the halogen carrier in chlorination of benzene is either AlCl3 or FeCl3.

Question 36. Benzene undergoes de-sulphonation but not denitration. Why?
Answer:

Since sulphonation is a reversible reaction, benzene can undergo a desulphonation reaction. However, nitration is an irreversible reaction. So, benzene cannot undergo a nitration reaction.

Question 37. If the calculated and the experimental heats of combustion of benzene are 824.1 and 789.1 kcal mol-1 respectively, then calculate the value of resonance energy of benzene.
Answer:

Resonance energy = calculated heat of combustion experimental heat of combustion = (824.1 – 789.1)kcal. mol-1= 35 kcal .mol-1

WBBSE Class 10 Geography And Environment Chapter 1 Exogenetic Processes And Resultant Land Forms Long Question And Answers

WBBSE Chapter 1 Exogenetic Processes And Resultant Land Forms Long Question And Answers

Question 1. Describe the various works of landforms formed due to erosional works of rivers.
Or

Describe with sketches three major landforms developed by the erosional work of rivers.
Answer:

Erosion and Its Effects on Landforms

The river performs three activities: erosion, transportation and deposition.

The landforms formed due to the erosional works of a river are:

1. Canyons:

  • The canyons are formed in the mountainous regions of arid climatic regions. The rivers which flow through these valleys are generally snowed. They have high erosive powers due to great velocity.
  • Downcutting of the valleys is prolonged while side cutting is negligible, as there is no rainfall in this region and no tributaries meet the main river.

Example: The Grand Canyon of river Colorado.

WBBSE Class 10 Geography And Environment Chapter 1 i shped valley

2. Gorges:

  • In humid mountainous regions, the rivers flow with great velocity and have great erosive power.
  • The downcutting of the rivers makes the valleys very deep. At the same time, side-cutting of the valleys occurs due to weathering, mass wasting and other activities.
  • Thus, the valleys become wider and look like the letter ‘V’. Example-Valley of river Kali in Nepal.

WBBSE Class 10 Geography And Environment Chapter 1 v shaped valley

 

3. Waterfalls:

  • In the course of the river, if hard and soft rock beds lie alternately, the soft rocks get eroded very fast and the hard rocks stand out.
  • This leads the water of the river to fall from a considerable height over a steep slope.
  • Thus, a waterfall is formed. Example—The Angel waterfalls in the course of river Churun in Venezuela is the highest waterfalls in the world.

4. Potholes:

  • As the river flows, the rocks and boulders carried along with the water rub against the floor of the river bed and cause the formation of small depressions due to abrasion.
  • These are known as potholes. Example—Numerous potholes are present on the bed of river Tista.

WBBSE Class 10 Geography And Environment Chapter 1 Potholes

 

5. Plunge pools:

  • As the water falls from a height with great velocity, the rock beds at the base of the waterfalls get eroded, and huge depressions are formed there.
  • These are formed due to abrasion and the plunging of the water and hence they are called plunge pools. Plunge pools are potholes of bigger dimensions.

6. Interlocking spurs:

  • In mountainous regions, the hard rocks or mountain ridges may lie in such a way that the river has to take frequent turns to avoid these obstructions while flowing.
  • The river erodes the foothills of these mountains to carve out its own path of flow. A distant view of the landscape looks as if the mountains are interwoven or interlocked.
  • Such mountains are known as interlocking spurs.

 

WBBSE Class 10 Geography And Environment Chapter 1 Interlocking spurs

7. Truncated spur:

  • A truncated spur is a blunt-ended, sloping ridge which descends towards a valley.
  • Its abrupt termination is normally due to erosion by glaciers and rivers.

Example: Truncated spurs are seen in the valleys of the rivers Tista, Torsa, Mahananda, etc.

Question 3. Describe the various landforms formed due to the depositional works of rivers.
Answer:

The various landforms formed due to depositional works of rivers are—

1. Alluvial cone and alluvial fan:

  • As the rivers emerge from the mountains, they erode heavily and flow with great speed.
  • However, when they leave their mountainous course and enter the plains, they suddenly lose their speed.
  • Thus, the carrying capacity of the river is reduced considerably.

Exogenetic Processes Overview

  • Hence, it deposits huge amounts of rocks, pebbles, sand, silt, clay, etc. at the foothills of the mountains.
  • These depositions look like a cone and are called alluvial cones.
  • If the cones spread wider, they are called alluvial fans.

Example—Such alluvial cones and fans are present at the foothills of the Himalayas in the course of different tributaries of river Ganga.

WBBSE Class 10 Geography And Environment Chapter 1 i shaped valley alluvial fan

2. Sand bars and islands:

  • In the middle course, the river is unable to flow with great velocity. Hence, it cannot carry the huge amount of load brought down from the mountains and starts depositing them on the river bed.
  • These depositions accumulate day after day and form sand bars or river islands.
  • The rivers thus bifurcate at regions when it encounters such a sand bar along the flow.
  • Such bifurcated channels are known as braided channels.

Example: The Majuli island in the Brahmaputra river is the largest river island in India.

WBBSE Class 10 Geography And Environment Chapter 1 Sand bars

3. Flood plains:

  • In the middle course, the valleys of the river are wide but less deep.
  • During the rainy season, when the water volume in the channel increases, the river floods the adjacent areas.
  • The silt, clay and mud present in the river water also flow out and spread over the area.
  • When the flood recedes, a part of the flood water flows back into the river and some percolates down to recharge the underground water table.
  • However, the silt and clay remain spread over the region. These silt deposits accumulated over the years form flood plains.

 

WBBSE Class 10 Geography And Environment Chapter 1 Food Plain

4. Natural levees:

  • On the plains, the silt, clay and sand particles flowing out of the river channel during floods get accumulated and compact on the banks of the river.
  • These naturally forming accumulations rise in height forming a narrow belt of ridges and these are known as natural levees.
  • Natural levees act as natural embankments and help in checking floods

Delta:

  • In the lower course of the river, the slope of the land becomes so negligible that the river cannot carry its load any further.
  • It deposits the load gradually near the mouth.
  • These continued depositions eventually form small islands, encountering which the river channel bifurcates into several distributaries before meeting the sea.
  • The islands formed to resemble a triangle or the Greek alphabet ‘A’. Hence, the region is called a delta.

Question 4. Discuss the favourable conditions for delta formation.
Answer:

The conditions favourable for the formation of a delta are—

  • The rate of deposition of silt and other materials by the river and its distributaries must be more than the rate of removal of the deposition by the sea waves.
  • The rivers should have a long course and should have a number of tributaries so that the eroded materials brought down altogether are sufficient for the development of a delta.
  • The river should not be turbulent and speedy near the mouth so that silt can easily deposit there.
  • The continental shelf where the river meets the sea should be wide and gentle in slope so that the sediments brought down can easily deposit there. A steep slope of the continental shelf will wash down the sediments into the deep sea and hinder delta formation.
  • Deltas are easily formed if the prevailing wind direction in the region is opposite to that the direction of the river.
  • Deltas are formed easily in regions where the sea is a little enclosed with the land rather than in regions with open seas.
  • Almost stable conditions (not subject to any rejuvenation or submergence) of the sea coast and oceanic bottom will allow the deposits to settle down.
  • Finer sediments will get carried away in suspension deeper into the sea. Very coarse and large size sediments would settle at the river bed. So, medium-sized sediments are the most suited for delta formation.

Question 5. Compare the works of a river in its three courses.
Answer:

A river performs different actions in its different courses. The actions of the river in its three different courses are—

WBBSE Class 10 Geography And Environment Chapter 1 Compare the works of a river in its three courses

WBBSE Class 10 Geography And Environment Chapter 1 Shape of river valley

Question 6. How has the change in climate influenced the islands of Lohachara, New Moore and Ghoramara?
Answer:

The change in climate influenced the islands of Lohachara, New Moore and Ghoramara

Climatic changes have endangered the existence of the islands of the Sundarbans to a great extent. Global warming has caused the melting of ice caps and glaciers to such an extent that, the sea level has risen considerably. This has led to the submergence of numerous small islands. The large islands of Lohachara, New Moore and Ghoramara have also faced submergence and have been named Vanishing islands’. Numerous villages and agricultural fields have submerged, and thousands of people have become ‘climatic refugees’.

  1. Lohachara Island:
    • The Lohachara island existed in the Sundarban region near the mouth of the river Hooghly.
    • In 2006, the island was submerged completely. In 2009, it started re-appeared, but presently it lies submerged.
  2.  New Moore island:
    • New Moore island lies 2 km from the mouth of the river Hariyabhanga. It is a part of the Ganga- Brahmaputra delta region.
    • In 1970, the island was submerged as an aftermath of the super cyclone ‘Bhola’. In 1974, the size of the island was 2500 sq.m according to satellite images.
    • However, at present, it lies completely underwater as a submerged bar or bank.
  3. Ghoramara island:
    • The Ghoramara island lies 92 km south of Kolkata, north of the Sagar Islands at the mouth of river Hooghly and east of the mouth of river Haldi in the Bay of Bengal.
    • This is an island in the Sundarban region. In 1951, the size of the island was 38.23sq. km, but by 2011, the size reduced to a mere 4.37sq.km.
    • Experts predict that the island will totally disappear due to submergence in the near future.

Question 7. Mention the extent of the different courses of river Ganga.
Answer:

The extent of the three courses of river Ganga is

WBBSE Class 10 Geography And Environment Chapter 1 Course of river and Extent

Question 8. Discuss the various types of erosion.
Answer:

Erosion by rivers can be divided into two types—

chemical erosion and mechanical erosion, which further involves various methods.

Chemical Erosion:

  • Solution:
    • This process involves the dissolution of soluble materials.
    • The soluble materials are removed from their parent rocks by the processes of disintegration and decomposition.

2. Mechanical Erosion:

  • The force of water: themayErosionrunningThefallIn the off removed water. river the wall valleys, materials of the valleys due to continuous hitting of water, and may get carried away to distant places with the flowing water.
  • Attrition: The rock fragments are already broken away from the valley walls or river bed strike against each other and break into smaller fragments in this process. These fragments are carried with the water in suspension and transported down the channel.
  • Abrasion: This process involves the removal of loosened rock materials from the valley walls and floors with the help of the tools of erosion. The rock fragments carried by the river collide and scratch against the river valley and erode materials from there, thus deepening and widening the valley.
  • Hydraulic action: The bubbles created in the river water in the course of flow may burst together and produce sound waves, which can gradually break down the rock fragments into smaller parts.

Question 9. On which factors does the carrying capacity of a river depend?
Answer:

The carrying capacity of a river depends upon the following factors-

WBBSE Class 10 Geography And Environment Chapter 1 Factor controlling carrying capacity And Description

Question 10. By which methods does the river carry its load?
Answer:

The river carries its load by the following four methods—

WBBSE Class 10 Geography And Environment Chapter 1 River Carry its load

Question 11. Under which conditions does the river deposit its load?
Answer:

A river deposits its load under the following situations—

1. Volume of water:

Depositions occur when the volume of water in the river reduces.

The volume of water reduces in the following situations:

  • When the river enters a region of low rainfall.
  • During periods of droughts.
  • In dry seasons
  • In limestone or sandstone regions where water percolates down.

2. Reduced slope:

The velocity of the river reduces if it flows over land with a gentle slope and thus the reduced velocity enhances the deposition process.

3. Bed load:

If the amount of sediment carried by the river increases, as in the case of the middle and lower course of the river, the flow of the river becomes sluggish and thus it deposits much of its bed load to reduce the amount of sediment being carried.

Question 12. Mention the effects of the global climatic change on the active part of the Ganga-Padma-Meghna delta.
Answer:

The effects of the global climatic change on the active part of the Ganga-Padma-Meghna delta are—

  • Rise in temperature: During the period from 1980 to 2017, the temperature of water of the rivers of the Sundarbans region has risen by 0.5°C per decade. This rise in temperature has caused great harm to the mangrove ecosystem.
  • Cyclones and monsoon wind: The global climatic change has increased the frequency of the cyclones occurring in and hitting the Sundarbans. Clearing the mangrove forests to make way for human settlement has magnified the impact of the cyclones in this region.
  • Rise in sea level: The global rise in temperature is causing the ice caps to melt at the poles. This, in turn, is leading to the rise in sea level, posing a great threat to many islands and island nations of the world. Several islands of the Sunderbans are facing a similar danger. Example— Lohachara, South Talpatti.
  •  Increase in salinity: The rise in sea level is causing the water and soil of the Sundarbans to become saline. This is affecting agriculture, the drinking water of the region, etc.

Question 13. How are waterfalls formed in the course of a river?
Answer:

Waterfalls formed in the course of a river:

When the water of a river plunges from a higher elevation to a lower elevation, it is known as a waterfall. In the course of a river, if hard and soft rock beds lie alternately horizontally one above the other, or diagonally, the harder rocks are less eroded and softer rocks are highly eroded by the river. This gradually gives rise to a steep slope over which the river plunges downwards. A waterfall may also be formed at a knick point along the course of the river where there is a sudden change of elevation in the longitudinal course.

WBBSE Class 10 Geography And Environment Chapter 1 Waterfalls soft rocks

Example: The famous Niagara falls lies along the course of the Niagara river in the USA.

Question 14.  Classify waterfalls.
Answer:

Waterfalls

Waterfalls can be classified into three types according to the slope of the land and the volume of water in the waterfalls—

WBBSE Class 10 Geography And Environment Chapter 1 Water falls

Question 15.  Explain why the river’s main work in the lower course is deposition.
Answer:

The river’s main work in the lower course is deposition:

  • In the lower course of the river, the slope of the land over which the river flows is negligible.
  • As a result, the flow becomes sluggish. Also, the amount of bed load carried in this course is huge.
  • The river loses all its erosional and transportation capacities.
  • Thus, the huge amounts of load brought down from the upper and middle courses, get deposited along the lower course of the river.
  • Depositional features seen here are flood plains, natural levees, deltas, etc.

Question 16.  Why do in their the mountainous rivers mainly course?
Answer:

The rivers mainly cause erosion in their mountainous course because—

  • The mountainous regions have rugged terrain and steep slope, which increases the velocity of the flowing water.
  • The valley walls and floors get highly eroded by the methods of hydraulic action, abrasion and attrition.
  • The amount of sediment transported by the river in this course is much less and thus the erosive power of the rivers is more.

Question 17.  How is a delta formed in the lower course of a river? Or, Explain why a delta is formed at the mouth of a river.
Answer:

The deltas can be classified into four types according to their shapes—

  • Loses its velocity and carrying capacity. The huge amount of sand, silt, clay, etc., brought down from the mountains is deposited in this region.
  • The saline water at the mouth of the river where it meets the sea helps these deposited materials to get compacted.
  • Thus, new islands are formed in the lower course of the river over a vast region from these deposited sediments.
  • These islands are known as deltas.
  • It must be noted that the rate of deposition of sediments must exceed its removal rate by the sea waves as one of the factors affecting delta formation.

Example:  Te largest delta in the world has formed at the mouth of the rivers Ganga-Brahmaputra.

WBBSE Class 10 Geography And Environment Chapter 1 Ganga Delta

 

Question 18.  Classify deltas.
Answer:

The deltas can be classified into four types according to their shapes—

WBBSE Class 10 Geography And Environment Chapter 1 Delta flow chart

The deltas that look like an arc of a circle or a bow at the region or side that meets the sea, are known as arcuate deltas.

Example: The deltas formed by the river Ganga, Nile, Po, Rhine, Hwang Ho, etc. are arcuate deltas.

  • The deltas that resemble the foot of a bird pointing towards the sea i.e., finer materials
  • The deltas that are vaguely V-shaped with curved sides are known as cuspate deltas. E.g.-The delta formed by the river Ebro.
  • The deltas formed due to the filling of the estuaries of the rivers are known as estuarine deltas. E.g.-The delta formed by the river Rhine.

WBBSE Class 10 Geography And Environment Chapter 1 Paternoster lakes

Question 19.  How are oxbow lakes formed?
Answer:

Oxbow lakes are Formed as follows:

Oxbow lakes are formed mostly at the end of the middle course and the beginning of the lower course of a river.

  • The curvatures of the meander loops of the river are enhanced due to continued lateral erosion by the rivers in their middle course.
  • Thus, the two ends of the individual meander loops gradually come closer and their mouth is clogged by the sediments deposited by the river.
  • The meander loop is eventually abandoned as the river straightens its course. Thus, the water in the abandoned loop forms an oxbow lake.
  • Numerous oxbow lakes are seen along the course of river Ganga and its tributaries.

 

WBBSE Class 10 Geography And Environment Chapter 1 Waterfalls oxbow lake

Question 20.  Why are ‘V-shaped valleys formed in the upper course of a river?
Answer:

‘V-shaped valleys formed in the upper course of a river

The section of the river flowing through the mountainous region is known as the upper course of a river. The shape of the river valley formed in this region due to downcutting is like a V.

The causes of the formation of the ‘V-shaped valleys are:

  • Slope of land:
    • The slope of the land is steep in mountainous regions. This causes the river to flow with great velocity.
    • The high velocity of the river and the rock fragments carried with it collide with the river bed and cause more downcutting than side cutting of the valleys.
    • This makes the river valley narrow but deep.
  •  Heavy rainfall and weathering:
    • In mountainous regions that receive heavy rainfall, the rate of weathering by mechanical and chemical processes is high.
    • The dissolving of certain minerals (like limestone) and mass wasting removes huge amounts of rock debris from the region.
    • This makes the river valleys deep ‘And V-shaped and gradually the valleys start becoming wide due to lateral erosion also.

Others:

  • Sometimes, landslides in river valleys are very steep, causing them to widen and become ‘V-shaped.
  • The meeting of tributaries with the main river also makes the valleys ‘V-shaped.

Question 21. How are flood plains formed?
Answer:

  • Flood plains are formed in the middle course of the river due to the deposition of silt. In the middle course of the river, when the volume of water suddenly increases due to heavy rainfall or due to snow-melt water draining into the river in the upper course, the excess water flows out of the river channel towards the adjacent plains on both sides of the river banks.
  • Huge amounts of sand, silt and clay flow out with this water and spread all over the area during times of flood.
  • When the flood water recedes, some of the water flows back into the river, while some percolates underground.
  • The silt and clay spread over the area form a thin layer of soil over the area. When this process continues year after year, the region develops into a new landform called a floodplain. Large flood plains are seen on both the banks of river Ganga and river Brahmaputra.

Question 22.  How do waterfalls move backwards?
Answer:

Waterfalls move backwards:

The plunging of water of a river from a height downwards, forms a waterfall.

  • Such difference in height within the river course occurs due to the presence of hard rock beds alternated with soft rock beds.
  • As the water plunges from a height, it creates a plunge pool at the foot of the waterfall. This plunge pool increases in dimension over time and the rocks of the wall seem to hang over a hollow. After a period of time this hanging wall collapses, thus the waterfall seems to move backwards, towards its source.
  • Example—The backward movement of the Chitrakoot waterfalls on river Indravati can be clearly understood.

Question 23. How are the Sundarbans being affected by climatic changes?
Answer:

The climatic changes all over the world are also affecting the Sundarbans in the following ways—

  • Due to the increased rate of global warming, the temperature of the earth will increase by 2-4“C by 2050. The amount of ice that will be melted due to this rise in temperature will increase the level of seawater. If the sea level rises by lm, most of the islands in the Sundarbans would submerge. A few already have.
  • The rise in sea level, is also turning the rivers of this region saline. This, in turn, is affecting the plants and animals of the region.
  • Saline soil is affecting the agriculture of the region and causing a shortage of food.
  • Increase in temperature is causing frequent cyclonic storms in this region.

Question 24.  What is the role of a river as a part of the water cycle?
Answer:

The role of a river as a part of the water cycle

  • The rivers help in the circulation of rainwater from one place to another. The rivers help to prevent the rainwater from remaining arrested in a particular region.
  • The water present on the earth’s surface and in the atmosphere circulates through the hydrological cycle. The sun evaporates huge amounts of water from rivers, lakes, oceans and other water bodies. The water vapour thus created, concentrates and forms clouds.
  • These clouds cause snowfall and rainfall. The water coming from the rain or melting of snow accumulates and flows down the slope of the mountains as rivers. The water in the rivers once again evaporates and forms vapour.
  • A part of it also percolates down and recharges the underground water table. The rest of the water flows into the ocean. This is how the river plays an important role in the water or the hydrological cycle.

Question 25.  Why are oxbow lakes formed in deltaic regions?
Answer:

The oxbow lakes are formed in deltaic regions due to the following reasons—

  • Meandering rivers: The slope of the land becomes negligible in the deltaic region. Thus, the river cannot flow with great velocity and takes a turn wherever it is obstructed.
  • Erosion at the curves of meanders: As the river starts meandering, erosion occurs at the concave side and deposition occurs at the convex side.
  •  Increase in the curve of the meanders: As the processes of erosion and deposition occur simultaneously in a meander, the curvature increases, and the two ends of the curve come very close to each other.

As the ends of a curve of a meander come very close to each other, the curved part is cut off due to deposition from the main flow and the river continues to flow in a straight path. The enclosed body of stagnant water thus left behind becomes an oxbow lake.

Question 26. What are constructive deltas and destructive deltas?
Answer:

Constructive deltas:

The rivers bring down huge amounts of sand, silt and clay from the upper course and deposit them over vast areas to form a delta at its mouth. The size of the delta goes on increasing as more and more deposits are brought in. This is called a constructive delta.

Constructive deltas can be of two types:

  1. Tongue-shaped
    • Example: Delta of river Nile
  2.  Bird foot shaped
    • Example: Delta of river Mississippi

Destructive deltas: The deltas which go on changing their shapes and sizes due to the action of waves and tides, are called destructive deltas.

Example:

Delta formed by river Rhone is highly a wave-dominated delta.

Question 27.  Why do floods occur frequently in the lower course of the river?
Answer:

The lower course of the river is frequently flooded due to the following reasons—

  •  The river contains a huge volume of water in this course. However, the slope of the land is so negligible that the water cannot flow with great velocity towards the sea.
  • The maximum of the load brought down by the river is deposited in this region. Thus, the depth of the river channel gradually decreases.
  • During the rainy season, as the volume of water in the channel in the upper course increases the lower course cannot hold the huge volume of water, hence the banks on either side get flooded.

Question 28. Why have numerous islands and sand bars formed on the river Brahmaputra?
Answer:

Numerous islands and sandbars have formed on the river Brahmaputra because—

  • The course of river Brahmaputra flowing through Assam is the middle course. Hence, the river flows with less velocity.
  • The load brought down by the river gets deposited on the river bed and creates sand bars.
  • Numerous tributaries join the river Brahmaputra and contribute a huge amount of water as well as eroded materials.
  • Thus, more sand bars are formed and each of them grows larger in size. Example—Majuli island has been formed in a similar way.

Question 29.  What are the different exogenetic processes?
Answer:

The exogenetic processes can be broadly divided into three parts—

  • Degradation: Through this process, the existing landforms are lowered in height.
    • Example: Residual hills.
  • Aggradation: By this process, the height of the existing landforms is increased by the deposition of materials brought down by rivers, glaciers and winds due to erosion.
    • Example: Flood plains, loess plains, deltas, etc.
  • Biotic activities: Sometimes, changes in landforms occur due to biotic activities.
    • Example: . Ponds, wetlands or depressions may get filled up with mosses, plants bushes, fruits, flowers, etc. People may cut down mountains to construct roads, railway lines, etc.
    • Shallow seas or gulfs may be dammed to reclaim land from the water.

Question 30.  How is landform levelled by the process of graduation?
Answer:

  • Gradation is the process of levelling rugged and uneven land into a smooth and even landform.
  • It is the combined outcome of the process of degradation and aggradation. A graded profile is one in which no further erosion or deposition takes place.
  • Gradation is the combination of both degradation and aggradation.
  • The high hills and rugged topography are lowered and levelled due to erosion by wind, water, snow, etc. This is known as degradation.
  • Through the process of aggradation, the low-lying regions, the depressions and gaps are filled up by the deposition of eroded materials brought down by rivers, glaciers or wind. Degradation and aggradation processes go on continue unless the graded profile is attained.

Question 31.  Differentiate between gorges and canyons
Answer:

Gorges and canyons both are deep valleys created due to river erosion. However, there are some minor differences between the two.

The differences between them are:

WBBSE Class 10 Geography And Environment Chapter 1 Differentiate between gorges and canyons

Question 32.  Differentiate between alluvial cones and deltas.
Answer:

The differences between alluvial cones and deltas are as follows:

WBBSE Class 10 Geography And Environment Chapter 1 Alluvial cones and deltas

Question 33.  What is a canyon?
Answer:

Canyons:

Canyons are formed when the river flows through a dry, rainless region where the rate of lateral erosion is far less than the rate of vertical erosion. Prolonged downcutting by the rivers through the soft rocks forms long and narrow steep-sided valleys. These valleys formed resemble the shape of the letter T and are known as canyons.

Example: Grand Canyon.

  • The limit of maximum downward erosion by a river is known as the base level of erosion. The base level of erosion can be further divided into grand base level, temporary base level and local base level.
  • The sea level becomes the grand base level beyond which no dryland can further erode.
  • There may also be a temporary base level of a river course depending on the presence of lakes or beds of hard and soft rocks along the course.
  • The local base level of erosion on the other hand depends on the confluence of the tributary stream with the mainstream.

Question 34.  Describe a few landforms formed due to erosional works of glaciers.
Answer:

The glaciers erode the valley or region through which it flows and form several landforms. A few of them are as follows—

1. Cirque:

  • The glacier erodes by the processes of plucking and abrasion At the source of the glacier, the mountain wall is eroded heavily and the landform thus formed looks like a huge armchair.
  • This is known as a cirque Rock basin formed at the floor of the cirques gets filled up with water after deglaciation and is known as cirque lakes or tarn lakes.

Cirques are known by different names at different places Cirques can be divided into three parts—

  • Steep wall at the back,
  • Semi-circular depression in the middle
  • Threshold or hunch at the lower part. The cirques may get filled with snow-melt water and form lakes For Example—Such landforms are seen in the glacial regions of the Himalayas, Alps, etc.

2. Arete:

  • In the snow-covered mountainous region, two or more glaciers can originate from different slopes of a single mountain
  • Thus a number of cirques will be formed in the same mountain Due to headward erosion, the cirques may get deeper, and the portion between two adjacent cirques lie like a steep, sharp narrow wall.
  • This is called an arete. If the mountain has three or more aretes it forms a pyramidal peak. The tip or peak of such a pyramidal peak is called a horn.

Example:  The Matterhorn peak.

3. Hanging valleys:

In a glaciated region, the main or trunk glacier carries a greater volume of ice than the tributary glaciers.

  • Thus the main glacier has greater erosive power than the smaller tributary glaciers.
  • Hence, the main glacier forms deeper valleys and the tributary glaciers form comparatively less deep valleys.
  • These are not visible as long as the ice cover remains. When the glaciers melt or recede, the small valleys are found to be hanging over the huge deep valleys, due to different rates of erosion during their formation.
  • Such valleys are called hanging valleys.

WBBSE Class 10 Geography And Environment Chapter 1 HAnging Vallyes

4. U-shaped valley:

  • In a mountain glacier, the glacier descends from the cirque and flows through the valley.
  • The intensity of side erosion or lateral erosion is almost the same as the intensity of vertical erosion of the glacial valley by the processes of abrasion and plucking.
  • Thus, the valley developed looks like the letter ‘U’. These valleys are called U-shaped valleys.

WBBSE Class 10 Geography And Environment Chapter 1 U Shaped valley

5. Fjord:

In regions where the mountain glaciers meet the coast directly, the valleys may be eroded so deep that the base or bed of the valley may lie lower than the sea level.

  • When the ice melts or recedes these depressions get filled up with seawater.
  • Such regions look like valleys that have been submerged in ocean water, while the ridges stand out.
  • These submerged valleys are known as fjords.
  • Such a coast is known as a fjord coast. Examples of fjords are seen in Norway and Finland.

 

WBBSE Class 10 Geography And Environment Chapter 1 Fjord

 

6. Roches mountaineer:

  • In the path of a glacier, if a hard rock stands like an obstruction, the glacier rides over it while crossing it.
  • In this process, the side over which it rides gets smoothened and polished by the rocks and pebbles.

WBBSE Class 10 Geography And Environment Chapter 1 Roches mountonneee

 

7. Crag and tail:

  • Along the path of the glacier if there lies a volcanic rock it projects above the ground as a resistant rock.
  • These volcanic rocks offer resistance to the flow of ice and thus the side facing the direction of flow becomes steep due to erosion.
  • This is known as a crag. The other side being sheltered by the ice becomes elongated and has a gentle slope.
  • This elongated side is known as the tail. Crag Hard rock outcrop

WBBSE Class 10 Geography And Environment Chapter 1 Crag And Tail

 

8. Glacial stairways:

  • When the glaciers descend from very high mountains into valleys, they develop steps or stairs along the walls of the valleys through the processes of abrasion and plucking.
  • The steps may develop due to unequal distribution of load in the glacier or alternate alignment of hard and soft rock beds.
  • These steps are known as glacial stairways. Further, small depressions formed in these steps get filled up with snowmelt water, later
  • . These depressions are known as paternoster lakes.

WBBSE Class 10 Geography And Environment Chapter 1 Paternoster lakes

 

Question 35.  Describe a few landforms formed by the depositional works of glaciers.
Answer:

The depositional works of glaciers can be broadly classified into two parts—

WBBSE Class 10 Geography And Environment Chapter 1 Deposition of glacier its resultant land form

1. Depositional landforms altitudes:

  • Moraines:
    • The debris of rocks and pebbles that the glaciers carry as they flow through the valleys, get deposited in parts along the sides, bed or at the end of the glaciers
    • . These are known as moraines.
    • They are named side moraines or lateral moraines, medial moraines and end or terminal moraines based on their locational aspect.
  • Karnes: At the end of the glacier, as the ice melts, the rocks, pebbles, sand and gravel brought down by the glacier get accumulated and are deposited in triangular shapes, resembling deltas of rivers. They are called kames. Narrow flat-topped terraces like ridges are called kame terraces.

2. Depositional landforms in lower altitudes:

  • Glacial erratics:
    • The glaciers bring down rocks and boulders along with them in their course.
    • When they melt, these rocks and boulders may get carried to distant places with the snow-melt water, and get deposited there.
    • These rocks have no similarities with the local rocks of that region. Such rocks are called glacial erratics.
  • Eskers:
    • The rocks, sand, clay, pebbles, etc. brought down by glaciers may get deposited like low ridges at the foothills of the mountains.
    • They may be curved and branched. These ridges are called eskers.
  • Example: Punkaharju esker in Finland.

3.  Drumlins:

    • When boulder clay is deposited in large heaps that look like inverted boats, they are known as drumlins.
    • A number of Compare the works of rivers and glaciers drumlins lying in a region look like a ‘basket of eggs topography’.

4. Boulder clay:

The accumulation of sand, clay, rocks and boulders at the base of the valley after the glacier melts is known as boulder clay.

5. Outwash plains:

  • At the end moraine, where the glacier melts and gives rise to the river, the rocks, pebbles, clay and sand brought down by the glacier are carried as bed load by the river water and spread over extensive areas.
  • The plains thus formed are called outwash plains.
  • The big chunks of hard ice that come along with the rock debris, make depressions, in the ground these are called kettles.
  • When the hard ice melts, these depressions get filled up with water and form kettle lakes.

6. Knobs:

Rocks and pebbles brought down by glaciers and carried along with flowing water are deposited on the outwash plains like domes or low hillocks, they are called knobs.

 

WBBSE Class 10 Geography And Environment Chapter 1 Direction of Glacial flow

Question 36.  Compare the works of rivers and glaciers.
Answer:

The comparison between the works of rivers and glaciers is as follows—

WBBSE Class 10 Geography And Environment Chapter 1 The comparison between the works of rivers and glaciers

Question 37.  How are pyramidal peaks and hanging valleys formed?
Answer:

Pyramidal peaks and hanging valleys formed:

  • Hanging valleys: In a glaciated region, the main or trunk glacier carries a greater volume of ice than the tributary glaciers.
  • Thus the main glacier has greater erosive power than the smaller tributary glaciers.
  • Hence, the main glacier forms deeper valleys and the tributary glaciers form comparatively less deep valleys.
  • These are not visible as long as the ice cover remains. When the glaciers melt or recede, the small valleys are found to be hanging over the huge deep valleys, due to different rates of erosion during their formation. Such valleys are called hanging valleys.

Question 38.  Differentiate between river valleys and glacial valleys.
Answer:

The differences between river valleys and glacial valleys are as follows-

WBBSE Class 10 Geography And Environment Chapter 1 The differences between river valleys and glacial valleys

Question 39. Why are waterfalls formed from where the corrie is formed, the ice seems to tear hanging valleys.
Answer:

  • In hilly regions through which glaciers flow, the main glacier being longer, wider and more extensive erodes much more than the small tributary glaciers.
  • Thus, the valley of the main glacier is deeper than the valleys of the small tributary glaciers.
  • When the ice melts, the small glacial valleys seem to hang over the main valley due to differences in height.
  • The rivers formed due to the melting of the glaciers flow through these glacial valleys.
  • The water pouring in from the tributary glacial valleys into the main valley jumps downwards due to differences in elevation, thus creating waterfalls.

Example:  Vasudhara waterfalls near Badrinath. The rivers flowing through this region gradually erode the glacial valleys and try to reduce the slope of the land.

Question 40.  What are varves?
Answer:

Varves:

  • Varves are circular deposits of sediments found in glacial lakes. Each valve has two layers of deposits.
  • The light-coloured sandy deposits and the dark-coloured silt deposits. In the summer reason, when the snow melts and the speed of the glacial melt water is greater, the heavy sediments are deposited, while the lighter ones are carried in suspension. As the winter sets in, the rate of melting is lowered and also there is less meltwater flowing.
  • As a result, the sediments in suspension are also deposited. Every year a new set of sediments are deposited in different circles. Enumerating the number of circles helps to calculate the age of the lake.

Question 41.  How is an ideal glacier formed?
Answer:

An ideal glacier is formed by the following processes—

  • Sublimation: The ice crystals directly change into vapour by this process.
  • Crystallisation: The small crystals of snow are broken and compacted into large crystals to form ice. This ice serves as the source of a glacier.
  • Melting: Sometimes the ice melts partially into the water, and sometimes the water crystallises into ice. These processes lead to the formation of glaciers. 
  • Regelation: This is the phenomenon of melting ice under high pressure and freezing again when the pressure is reduced. This influences the structure of the ice crystals and leads to the formation of glaciers.
  • Compaction: As more and more snowfall occurs the lower layers of snown get compacted into ice this helps in the information of glaciers.

Question 42.  What are moraines? Classify the moraines.
Answer:

Moraines:

The glaciers erode materials from the walls and beds of the valleys as they flow downwards. These rock debris are deposited along the sides, end or ground of the glacial valley as glacial till or deposits in the form of ridges. These are known as moraines.

Classification:

The moraines can be generally divided into four types based on their locational aspect.

  • Moraines deposited along the sides of the glacier are called side moraines or lateral moraines.
  • Two lateral moraines meet to form the medial moraine. They are found on the top and on the inner side of an existing glacier.
  • The end moraine or terminal moraine is formed due to depositions at the end of the glacier, where it starts to melt.
  • The moraine deposited on the base or on the floor of the valley is called a ground moraine.

WBBSE Class 10 Geography And Environment Chapter 1 Types of moraines

Question 43.  Differentiate between mountaineers and drumlins. Differentiate between kame and delta.
Answer:

The differences between kame and delta are as follows—

WBBSE Class 10 Geography And Environment Chapter 1 The differences between kame and delta

Question 44. Differentiate between Kame and delta.
Answer:

The difference between Kame and delta are as follows-

WBBSE Class 10 Geography And Environment Chapter 1 The difference between Kame and delta

Question 45.  Differentiate between continental glaciers and valley glaciers
Answer:

The difference between glacier and valley glaciers

WBBSE Class 10 Geography And Environment Chapter 1 Glacier and valley glaciers

Question 46.  Differentiate between bergschrund and crevasses
Answer:

The difference between bergschrund and crevasses are as follows-

WBBSE Class 10 Geography And Environment Chapter 1 The difference between bergschrund and crevasses

Question 47.  What is a knick point?
Answer:

Knick point:

After the rejuvenation of a river, the point lying between the old slope and the new slope is known as the knick point. Waterfalls are formed at the knick points as the difference in the level of the old slope and the new slope creates a considerable difference in height for the water to jump. The knick point gets eroded gradually with time and matches the graded profile of the region.

 

WBBSE Class 10 Geography And Environment Chapter 1 Knick point

Question 48. What are mountain or valley glaciers?
Answer:

Mountain or valley glaciers:

The glaciers that flow through the valleys in high mountainous regions are called valleys or mountain glaciers. E.g- Gangotri

WBBSE Class 10 Geography And Environment Chapter 1 Mountain or valley glaciers

Question 49. What are Piedmont glaciers?
Answer:

Piedmont glaciers:

The glaciers formed due to the coalescence of several mountains or valley glaciers at the foothills of the mountains, are called piedmont glaciers.

WBBSE Class 10 Geography And Environment Chapter 1 Piedmont glaciers

Question 50. What are avalanches?
Answer:

Avalanches:

In snow-covered mountainous and glacial regions, sometimes huge volumes of ice may slide down mountain slopes due to their large weight and gravitational pull. These are called avalanches. They can be so powerful at times, that they may cause earthquakes and devastate forests or habitations coming their way.

Question 51. What is an iceberg?
Answer:

Iceberg:

The huge blocks of ice that float on the oceans are called icebergs. In higher latitudes, generally, huge blocks of ice break away from the continental glaciers and float in the adjacent oceans. They move towards lower latitudes with the help of ocean currents. Only 1/9 th part of an iceberg floats above the water. The rest remain submerged. The famous ship Titanic was wrecked on its first voyage due to its collision with a huge iceberg.

WBBSE Class 10 Geography And Environment Chapter 1 Iceberg

Question 52. What are pyramidal peaks?
Answer:

Pyramidal peaks:

At the source of the mountain glaciers, deep armchair-like depressions are formed on the walls of the mountains due to erosion. These are called cirques or corries. The steep narrow wall between two adjacent cirques or corries is known as aretes. If there are three or more cirques on the different faces of the mountain, the aretes meet at a steep and sharp point or peak. This is called a pyramidal peak. Example— Matterhorn peak is a famous pyramidal peak in the Alps.

WBBSE Class 10 Geography And Environment Chapter 1 Pyramidal peak

Question 53. Describe some of the landforms formed by wind erosion.
Answer:

The work of wind can be most prominently seen in the hot dry desert regions.

The landforms formed by erosional activities of wind are—

1. Ventifact

  • In desert regions, when the windward side of a rock becomes smooth and polished due to abrasion caused by wind blowing from a single direction, it is called a ventifact.
  • The other faces of the rock remain rough and unpolished.

2. Dreikanter:

  • In desert regions, if the wind direction changes with changes in seasons, abrasion polishes all the faces of the rocks at different times of the year from different directions.
  • Thus, rocks with three polished and smoothened sides are formed. Such a rock is called a dreikanter.

3. Mushroom rock:

  • In desert regions, the effect of abrasion is more actively felt at the lower heights than at the upper heights.
  • In a rock mass composed of soft rock beds at the bottom and harder rocks at the top, the lower rock beds are eroded faster than the upper beds due to abrasion
  • Thus, the landform formed has a narrow base and a flat broad top.
  • This resembles a mushroom and is known as a mushroom rock.

 

WBBSE Class 10 Geography And Environment Chapter 1 Mashroom rock

4.  Zeugen:

  • In desert regions where soft and hard rock beds lie parallel to the earth’s surface, the soft rocks are eroded and soft rock Hard rock Furrows hollows are formed.
  • The hard rocks lie above them like caps. Thus, a landform created with a broader base than the top resembling a capped inkpot is known as a zeugen.

 Yardang:

In desert regions, if hard and soft rock beds lie parallel to each other in alternate ctr the soft rocks get eroded very fast due to abrasion. The hard rocks are less eroded and lie as hanging ridges stretching parallel to each other separated by grooves. Such a feature is known as a yardang.

WBBSE Class 10 Geography And Environment Chapter 1 Zeugen

 Yardang: 

In desert regions, if hard and soft rock beds lie parallel to each other in alternate strips, the soft rocks get eroded very fast due to abrasion. The hard rocks are less eroded and lie as hanging ridges stretching parallel to each other separated by grooves. Such a feature is known as a yardang.

WBBSE Class 10 Geography And Environment Chapter 1 Yardang

 

5. Furrow:

  • In desert regions, high-velocity winds carry rock fragments and pebbles along with them, that work as tools of erosion.
  • When these rock fragments hit against the large standing rocks, they form long narrow grooves on the rocks due to erosion. These narrow long grooves formed on the standing rocks are known as furrows.

6. Millet seeds sand:

  • In desert regions, as the wind blows over the rocky surface, the rock fragments hit against each other and break down into smaller fragments that resemble the seeds of millets.
  • These small fragments are thus called millet seeds sand. Formation of the millet seeds sand leads to the formation of sand particles due to further erosion.

8. Blowouts:

  • The speedy winds in desert regions often blow out or deflate sand particles from a region.
  • Thus, a number of small or big depressions are formed known as blowouts or depression hollows.
  • These are known as ‘hands’ in Rajasthan. The hands may get filled with water to form saltwater lakes called playa lakes.

9. Pavements:

  • These are extensive stretches of stony surfaces formed in the desert due to the deflation of the wind.
  • Pavements consist of angular or rounded rocky fragments in a matrix of finer sand, silt and clay-sized materials.
  • They are locally known by various names in various places. In the Sahara desert, they are known as reg or hammada.

Question 54.  Describe some of the depositional landforms formed by wind action.
Answer:

The depositional landforms formed by wind action are as follows—

1. Dunes:

In sandy deserts, if the winds carrying huge amounts of sand are obstructed by the presence of trees, plants, rocks or bushes, the wind loses speed which leads to the deposition of sand. Gradually, the sand accumulates into large heaps and forms sand dunes.

Dunes are classified into the following types—

 Barchans:

  • The barchan is a transverse sand dune that is found in the desert region. It stands across the direction of the wind.
  • It looks like a crescent moon. The middle part of the barchan can be 15-30m high. It has two horns on either side which move forward as the wind blows.

WBBSE Class 10 Geography And Environment Chapter 1 Barcahn

 

Seif dunes:

Longitudinal dunes parallel to the direction of wind form the seif dunes, Barchans gradually transform into seif dunes when the sand from the central portion gets eroded away and the two horns form two separate dunes.

WBBSE Class 10 Geography And Environment Chapter 1 Seif dunes

Star dunes:

  • In desert regions, winds blow from different directions during different times of the year.
  • Thus, dunes are formed in different directions. Star dunes are formed by variable winds.
  • They grow vertically and do not migrate laterally.

A star dune has multiple slip faces, a central peak and three or more arms extending radially.

  •  Akle dunes: A number of barchans lying side by side like a chain from akl6 dunes. They look like a long serpentine ridge. The front part of the curve of the ankle dunes is called languid, and the rear part is known as the paranoid.
  •  Transverse dunes: Elongated dunes lying at right angles to the direction of the prevailing wind are known as transverse dunes. These dunes have a steep leeward side and a gently sloping windward side. They appear as wave-like features.
  • Parabolic dunes: These dunes develop in partially stabilised sandy terrains and form a U shape. Parabolic dunes have a convex nose which migrates downwind. They are longer and narrower than barchans and are always associated with blowouts.

2. Loess plain:

  • Loess plain is composed of yellowish soil particles that are blown by the wind from the deserts and deposited elsewhere.
  • The loess plain contains particles that are very fine textured and rich in quartz silt, clay and carbonate minerals.
  • The soil particles do not have any similarity with the rocks and soil present in the region where they have been deposited.

3. Ripple marks:

These are wave-like small-scale depositional features formed by wind action.

They can be of two type:

  1. Transverse ripples
  2. Longitudinal ripples

Question 55.  Write about the processes of wind action in a desert in the desert.
Answer:

The processes of wind action in a desert in the desert:

The work of the wind is most prominent in desert regions. Wind performs three actions in desert regions—erosion, transportation and deposition.

WBBSE Class 10 Geography And Environment Chapter 1 Waterfalls Work of wind

 

1. Erosion:

The wind carries out erosion by the following processes—

  • Abrasion: The wind carries particles of rocks, pebbles, sand, etc., of different sizes along with it as it blows. These particles collide with the landforms on the earth’s surface and create scratch marks, hollows and furrows. Erosion by this process is called abrasion. Landforms formed due to abrasion are—mushroom rocks, yardang, zeugen, ventifact, dreikantar, etc.
  •  Deflation: In the process of deflation, the wind blows away sand and smaller rock particles from one place to another. Landforms formed by deflation are—blowouts, pavements, etc.
  • Attrition: The rock fragments, pebbles, etc., present in the blowing wind collide with each other and break into smaller fragments and finally convert into sand particles. The process of this breaking down of rock fragments into fine particles of sand due to their collision with each other is known as attrition.

2. Transportation: Wind transports the broken rock fragments and other finer particles by the following methods—

  • Suspension: The small and light particles of sand and dust remain suspended in the air and are thus transported to long distances by wind.
  •  Saltation: The medium-sized particles of rock fragments are heavy and cannot be transported in suspension. Even if lifted by the wind, they are carried to shorter distances and dropped on the ground wherever the wind is obstructed.

3. Creeping:

  1. The larger particles of rock fragments cannot be lifted by the wind due to their heavy weight. They are dragged along the surface while the wind blows.
  2. This method of transportation is known as creeping. deserts. Dune migration is harmful as vast regions of agricultural fields, grazing land, human settlement, etc., are buried under huge heaps of sand.

4. Overgrazing:

  • The areas adjacent to the desert receive more rainfall than the desert regions.
  • Thus, it leads to the growth of grasslands. In the absence of agricultural activities, the people of the desert region take to cattle rearing.
  • Overgrazing of animals on these grasslands turns these adjacent areas also into deserts.

5. Rampant cutting down of trees:

Indiscriminate felling of trees in the areas adjacent to the desert regions, leads to the expansion of deserts.

6. Unscientific methods of cultivation:

  • Following unscientific methods of cultivation in the areas adjacent to the deserts affects the fertility of these regions.
  • As a result, the adjacent areas are also turned into deserts.

7. Deposition:

  • Any hindrance in the form of trees, bushes, rocky boulders, etc., in the path of the blowing wind may affect the velocity of the wind.
  • As a result, the sand and broken rocky fragments being carried to distances are dropped wherever they are obstructed. These sand accumulations grow in dimension and form several depositional features.

Example: Various dunes, loess plains, etc.

Question 56. Why are the deserts of the world facing severe expansion? Suggest remedial measures to prevent this.
Answer:

At present, the deserts of the world are facing severe expansion.

WBBSE Class 10 Geography And Environment Chapter 1 Expansion of desesrts

 

The reasons leading to such an event are as follows—

  • Migration of dunes: Migration or shifting of sand dunes causes the expansion of deserts. Dune migration is harmful as vast regions of agricultural fields, grazing land, human settlement, etc., are buried under huge heaps of sand.
  • Overgrazing: The areas adjacent to the desert receive more rainfall than the desert regions. Thus, it leads to the growth of grasslands. In the absence of agricultural activities, the people of the desert region take to cattle rearing. Overgrazing of animals on these grasslands turns these adjacent areas also into deserts.
  • Rampant cutting down of trees: Indiscriminate felling of trees in the areas adjacent to the desert regions, leads to the expansion of deserts.
  • Unscientific methods of cultivation: Following unscientific methods of cultivation in the areas adjacent to the deserts affects the fertility of these regions. As a result, the adjacent areas are also turned into deserts.
  • Drought: Areas adjacent to the deserts when affected by frequent droughts, turn into deserts. The water table in these regions is severely lowered and the vegetation also stands affected.
  • Global warming: Worldwide increase of temperature due to global warming has affected the temperature, amount of rainfall received, etc., of the regions adjacent to the desert. Decreased amounts of rainfall received and high temperatures are turning the adjacent areas into a desert.

Measures to prevent the expansion of deserts are as follows—

  • Afforestation: Planting of trees suitable to the desert environment along the margins of the desert and in the areas adjacent to the desert. to high wind speed, sand being continuously removed from a place creates several small and big hollows or depressions on the ground. These are called deflation hollows or blowouts. In Rajasthan, they are locally known as Dhand.
  • Controlled grazing: Overgrazing should be checked in the areas adjacent to the deserts.
  • Other sources of fuel: The use of a wood source of fuel should be reduced. Alternative sources of fuel should be looked at regions drought-resistant crops should be grown using modern methods of irrigation.
  •  Conservation and judicious use of water: Rainwater harvesting should be extensively practised in the areas adjacent to the desert to mitigate the problem of water shortage. Judicious use of water should also be promoted.

Question 57.  Write down the characteristics of Barchans.
Answer:

The dunes formed transverse to the direction of the blowing wind in the shape of a crescent, is known as a barchan.

Characteristics: The characteristics of barchans are listed below—

The windward slope of the barchan is gentle and convex while the leeward slope is steep and concave.

  • The edges of the barchan look like two horns on either side of the crescent.
  • Barkhans are usually 15-30m high. Some barkhans may be as high as 200m.
  • 4A number of barkhans may develop like a chain in plain regions in the desert. However, they are all temporary and may shift with the change in wind direction.
  • Barchans advance on a regular basis at a constant rate when the sand supply is adequate.

Question 58.  Write the characteristics of seif dunes.
Answer:

The long, narrow sand dunes formed parallel to the direction of the wind in a desert region, are called seif dunes. another place

  • Characteristics:

    Seif dunes can be a few kilometres long and a few hundred metres high.
  •  A number of seif dunes may be formed parallel to each other.
  • Sometimes, due to very speedy winds, the middle portion of the barchans may get eroded or blown away, and the horns at the edges of the barchans may get transformed into seif dunes.
  •  The gap between two adjacent seif dunes is a called corridor. The wind blows at a great speed through these corridors.
  •  The top of the seif dunes are sharp and are like saw teeth.

Question 59.  What is a loess plain?
Answer:

Loess plain:

  • The yellowish fine sandy particles blown off from the desert regions and deposited elsewhere are known as loess.
  • The particles of loess are fine textured and rich in quartz silt, clay and carbonate minerals.
  • The fine textured soil particles are blown away from the deserts and the outwash plains and deposited at distant regions, forming a new landform known as a loess plain.

 

WBBSE Class 10 Geography And Environment Chapter 1 Expansion of deserts

 

Example:

  • In central Asia, every year, a heavy amount of sandy soil is eroded from the Gobi desert by the northeast monsoon winds.
  • They are deposited in the Hwang Ho river valley of northern China.
  • This Loess plains formed deposition of sand Plains formed by the deposition of silt in the river basin of River Hwang Ho form a loess plain.
  • The depth of the plainland thus formed is 30-200m.

Examples of other loess plains arethe loess plain formed in the southern region of Israel by blowing off the soil from the Sahara desert region of Africa; the loess plain formed in the Mississippi-Missourie River in the USA, etc.

Question 60.  Differentiate between yardang and barchan.
Answer:

The differences between yardang and barchan are as follows-

WBBSE Class 10 Geography And Environment Chapter 1 The differences between yardang and barchan

The landforms formed by the deflation of wind are—

1. Deflation hollows:

  • In desert regions, due to high wind speed, continuously removed from a place creates depressions on the ground.
  • These are called deflation hollows or blowouts. In Rajasthan, they are locally known as Dhand.

2. Oasis:

  • At times the depressions formed due to the deflation action of the wind become their depth reach so deep that As a result, the underground water table.
  • Sand over there becomes due to the presence of water, few trees and little moisture and plants grow around the region. Such a landscape is known as an oasis.

 

WBBSE Class 10 Geography And Environment Chapter 1 Oasis

3. Desert Pavements:

  • These are extensive stretches of stony surfaces formed in the desert due to the deflation of the wind.
  • Pavements consist of angular or rounded rocky fragments in a matrix of finer sand, silt and clay-sized materials.
  • They are locally known by various names in various places. In the Sahara desert, they are known as reg or hammada.

Question 61. Why is the action of wind also active in the coastal regions?
Answer:

The action of wind is highly active in the coastal regions because—

  • Extensive coastline: The sea breeze blowing over the open seas come towards the land and blow away the sand from the coast. Thus, the open and extensive coastline assist in the erosional and depositional works of the wind.
  • Sea waves: The sea waves splash against the coast continuously, and tend to break the rocks and stones into tiny particles, that can be easily blown away by the wind.
  • Deposition of sand: The sand present along the coast can be blown away, carried and deposited elsewhere when the winds are obstructed and lose speed. These landforms are called sand dunes. Example—Such dunes can be seen in the Digha and Contai regions of West Bengal.
  • Desert Pavements: These are extensive stretches of stony surfaces formed in the desert due to the deflation of the wind. Pavements consist of angular or rounded rocky fragments in a matrix of finer sand, silt and clay-sized materials. They are locally known by various names in various places. In the Sahara desert, they are known as reg or hammada.

Question 62.  Differentiate between barchans and seif dunes. Or, State three”Seifseif dune” dunes. and “Barkhan”.
Answer:

The differences between barchans and seif dunes are as follows-

WBBSE Class 10 Geography And Environment Chapter 1 The differences between barchans and seif dunes

Question 63.  Differentiate between pediment and bajada.
Answer:

The differences between pediment and bajada are as follows—

WBBSE Class 10 Geography And Environment Chapter 1 The differences between pediment and bajada

Question 64.  Differentiate between monadnocks and inselbergs.
Answer:

The differences between monadnocks and inselbergs are as follows—

WBBSE Class 10 Geography And Environment Chapter 1 The differences between monadnocks and inselbergs

Question 65.  How are crevasses and bergschrunds formed?
Answer:

In high mountainous regions, where heavy snowfall occurs, the ice gets compacted gradually and gives rise to glaciers. Several erosional and depositional features are formed in glaciers.

Bergschrund:

  • At the source of the glacier, apart from the headwall of the corrie as the glacier begins to flow.
  • This creates a long, narrow and deep fault or trench near the wall of the corrie in the snow. This is known as the bergschrund.

Crevasses:

  • As the glacier advances, it crosses many types of slopes on its way. This may create several cracks on the surface of the glacier which are comparatively shallow.
  • These are known as crevasses. Both bergschrunds and crevasses remain covered with a thin film of fresh snow. Thus, they can be of great danger to mountaineers.

 

WBBSE Class 10 Geography And Environment Chapter 1 Exogenetic Processes And Resultant Land Forms Short Question And Answers

WBBSE Chapter 1 Exogenetic Processes And Resultant Land Forms Short Question And Answers

Question 1. What is the snowline?
Answer:

Exogenetic processes landforms. Snowline:

  • Huge snowfall occurs in high altitudes as well as polar regions
  • The imaginary line above which the snow never melts totally or below which the snow starts melting is called the snowline.
  • Snowline marks the beginning of the permafrost region
  • . In low or middle latitudes, the snowline may exist j at S000-6000 m altitude But in polar, regions, it lies at the sea level itself.

Question 2. Classify the glaciers
Answer:

Glaciers can be generally classified into two categories —

1. mountain or valley glaciers and
2. continental glaciers H W. Ahlmann further classified glaciers into 3 broad categories and 11 subtypes based on their thermal and morphological characteristics

The three broad categories are-

  1.  Mountain or valley glaciers
  2. Continental glaciers,
  3. Piedmont glaciers

Question 3. What Is a glacial erratic?
Answer:

Glacial erratic:

In a glacial region, when big rocks are carried too far away distances along with the snow and are deposited there after the glacier melts, the rocks are known as glacial erratics. These rocks are found to have no similarity with the local rocks. Example—Glacial erratics are seen in the high mountainous regions of Pahelgaon in Kashmir.

Question 4. What is a glacier? Name the glaciers that are sources of the river Ganga and Yamuna.
Answer:

Glacier:

Aglacierisamassorriveroficemovingslowly under the impact of gravity. In high altitudes and polar regions, where heavy snowfall occurs, glaciers are formed due to the accumulation of snow above the snowline. The river Ganga rises from the Gangotri glacier and the river Yamuna rises from the Yamunotri glacier.

Question 5. What do you mean by ‘basket of eggs topography’?
Answer:

Basket of eggs topography:

When the rocks, pebbles, sand and clay brought down by the glacier get deposited on the lowland like inverted boats, the topography looks like a number of eggs spread over the land. These are known as drumlins and the topography is known as ‘basket of eggs topography’. Example-Such groups of drumlins are seen in Ireland and Scotland.

Question 6. What do you mean by ice sheet?
Answer:

Ice sheet:

Glaciers are classified into valley glaciers, piedmont glaciers and continental glaciers. Out of these, the continental glaciers are in fact extensive ice sheets. In the polar regions, vast areas are covered with thick layers of ice like a sheet or cover. Thus, the area known as a narrow wall between them is known as an arete. Aretes are sharpened peaks resembling the shape of saw teeth

WBBSE Chapter 1Exogenetic Processes Landforms.

Question 7. What are paternoster lakes?
Answer:

Paternoster lakes:

In high mountainous areas, the glacial valleys seem to develop a number of steps or stairs through the processes of abrasion or plucking. Further, several depressions or hollows are created on these steps or stairs due to glacial erosion. These depressions later get filled with water when the glacier melts. These are known as paternoster lakes.

Question 8. What are knobs and kettles?
Answer:

Knobs: The rocks and pebbles brought down by glacial erosion flow down along with the rivers and spread on the outwash plains. If these materials accumulate like small domes on the plainlands, they are called knobs. Kettles: The big chunks of ice that flow down with the glacier-melt rivers, spread on the outwash plains and create hollows or depressions. These are called kettles. The hollows get filled with water as the ice chunks melt, and thus form kettle lakes.

Example:  ‘Knob and Kettle’ topography is seen in many regions in northern Europe.

Question 9. What is the speed of glaciers?
Answer:

Speed of glaciers:

The glaciers move very slowly. The speed of the glaciers depends upon the slope of the land, the volume of ice, seasonal variations, gravitational pull, etc. Example—The glaciers of the Alps mountains move at an average speed of 5.5 cm per day. The Himalayan glaciers move at a speed of 2.5 7.5cm per day.

Question 10. Why does the end of a glacier look like a tongue?
Answer:

In a valley glacier, the middle part of the body of ice moves forward faster as it experiences friction solely from the valley base. On the other hand, the sides of the glacier experience friction from the base as well as the valley walls. Thus, the rate of movement of glacial ice decreases from the centre towards the edge. This causes the end
of the glacier to look like a tongue. This is also known as glacial snout.

Question 11. What is firn?
Answer:

Firn:

In cold regions, where temperatures drop below the freezing point, snowfall occurs instead of rainfall. The snow falls like the feathers of birds and spread over the ground to form an ice field. An increased volume of snow gets compacted under the pressure of the overlying snow. This partially compacted granular snow is known as firn, which is the intermediate stage between snow and glacial ice.

Question 12. What are Roche mountaineers?
Answer:

Roche mountaineers:

In a mountainous region, due to erosional works of glaciers, large asymmetrical domes with smooth and steep walls may be formed. These landforms are known as Roche mountaineers. Example—Several Roche mountaineers are seen in the glaciated valleys of the Kashmir Himalayas.

Question 13. Why is the degradation process called a destructive process?
Answer:

Degradation is the process by which the higher landforms are lowered by erosion, mass wasting and denudation so as to attain an equilibrium position or a graded profile. Since the original landforms are eroded and lowered by the process of degradation, it is considered a destructive process.

Question 14. Why is vertical erosion or downcutting of river valleys in the upper course more prominent compared to lateral erosion or side cutting?
Answer:

The level of downcutting or vertical erosion of river valleys in the upper course is more prominent compared to side cutting or lateral erosion because the river flows over a steep slope in the upper course, hence having high velocity. Also, the river carries a huge amount of rocks and pebbles in this stage, which act as tools of erosion. Thus, the valleys are deepened due to abrasion by the tools of erosion and the force of the flowing water.

WBBSE Chapter 1Exogenetic Processes Landforms.

Question 15. Why are islands and sand bars created in the middle and lower course of a river?
Answer:

Islands and sand bars are formed in the middle and lower course of the river because of the following reasons—

1. The speed of the river reduces in the middle course as it leaves the mountainous region and enters the plains. Owing to the gentle slope of the land and increased bed load the carrying capacity of the river reduces considerably.
2. Depositions start occurring on the river bed. As more and more depositions occur, the sand bars grow bigger in size and rise out of the water as islands

Question 16. What do you mean by a river?
Answer:

River:

A naturally flowing body of water from the uplands to the lowlands under the gravitational force following the slope is known as a river. It originates in the mountains, hills or plateaus and drains into seas, lakes or other water bodies. A river may be both snow-fed and rain-fed. E.g. rivers Ganga, Brahmaputra, Yamuna, etc.

Exogenetic processes landforms.

Question  17. What do you mean by tributaries and distributaries? Give examples.
Answer:
Tributaries:

The smaller streams of water from the nearby areas that join the main river are called tributaries. Tributaries contribute their water as well as eroded materials to the main flow. E.g. Yamuna is the most important tributary of the river Ganga.

Distributaries:

The small streams branching out from the main river near its mouth in order to distribute its excessive bedload are called distributaries. The load deposited by the distributaries over a vast region from the delta, e.g. Bhagirathi-Hooghli is an important distributary of the river Ganga.

Question 18.  What is an ideal river? Give example.
Answer:

Ideal river:

The river which exhibits all three courses, i.e., the upper, middle, and lower courses prominently is called an ideal river. The river generally erodes in the upper or mountain course, transports in the middle course and deposits in the lower or delta course. The middle and the lower courses are spread over vast areas. An ideal river doesn’t change its course frequently. For example—River Ganga is an ideal river.

Question 19.  How can the course of a river be divided based on the work done?
Answer:

A river performs three activities right from its source to its mouth. The river course can be divided into three parts based on its work. They are as follows—

1. Upper course, marked mostly by the erosional work of the river.
2. Middle course, marked mostly by the transportation work of the river.
3. Lower course, marked mostly by the depositional work of the river.

Question 20. What is the sixth power law?
Answer:

Sixth power law:

The velocity of the stream(river) is one of the major factors on which its carrying or transportation capacity depends. A law to establish their relationship is known as the sixth power law, propounded by G.K. Gilbert. It states that the transportation power of the streams is proportional to the sixth power of its velocity. In other words, if the stream velocity is doubled, the transportation power of the stream increases 64 times. This law can be expressed in the following manner— Transportation power a (stream velocity)

Question 21. What is a water divide?
Answer:

Water divide:

The elevated land acting as a boundary between two river systems is known as a water divide. The water flowing from each side of the water divide flows into each separate body of water. The height of the water divide ranges from a slight elevation on plain land to a crest on a mountain range.

WBBSE Chapter 1Exogenetic Processes Landforms.

Question 22. What is a catchment area?
Answer:

Catchment area:

A catchment area or a drainage basin is an entire area that collects rainwater and contributes it to a channel. The shape of a drainage basin determines how rapidly will the run-off reach the main river and the outlet. In the case of circular basins, the run-off reaches quickly as compared to the elongated basins.

Question 23. What is a river valley?
Answer. 

River valley:

The valley carved out by the river due to excessive downcutting and side-cutting along its course is known as a river valley. The shape and dimension of such valleys vary in each course of the river. V-shaped valleys are formed by the river in its youth stage or upper course while flat valleys are formed when the river reaches its mature stage in its middle course.

Question 24. What are gorges?
Answer:

Gorges:

The narrow steep-sided valleys formed in the mountainous regions due to heavy downcutting by the rivers are known as gorges. These valleys are V-shaped valleys. Here, vertical erosion by the rivers is more prevalent than lateral erosion. Example-Kali Gandaki gorge is a famous gorge in the Himalayas.

Question 25. What are potholes?
Answer:

Potholes:

In the upper course of the river, holes and depressions formed in the beds of the river valleys by the rock fragments and boulders brought down by the rivers are called potholes. Potholes are formed when the rocks get caught in the whirling water, moving in a circular manner and drilling the rocky beds of the valleys to form small holes. These holes gradually become bigger by the repetition of the same mechanism.

Question 26. What are meanders?
Answer:

Meanders:

The bends in the longitudinal course of the river are called meanders. Meanders have been named after the River Meander in Turkey because it flows through several bends. Once the river emerges onto the plains it loses speed due to the gentle slope of the land.

The slightest obstruction in the course forces the river to flow through various bends. Each of these bends has two types of slope. The side where the river strikes have a concave slope and are subjected to severe erosion. The other side is characterised by a convex slope where all the eroded materials are deposited. Thus, meanders are a result of both erosion and deposition.

Exogenetic processes landforms.

Question 27.  What are interlocking spurs?
Answer:

Interlocking spurs:

In a mountainous region, the mountain ridges obstruct the flow of the river in such a way that the river has to erode the foothills and take frequent turns in order to avoid the ridges. From a distance, it appears that the ridges have been interwoven and the river has disappeared into the ridges. Such a series of mountain ridges are known as interlocking spurs.

Question 28. What is a cascade?
Answer:

Cascade:

A series of step-like waterfalls that originate when the river flows over an area with alternating bands of hard and soft rock beds is known as a cascade.

Example: Jonha waterfalls in Ranchi, Jharkhand

WBBSE Chapter 1Exogenetic Processes Landforms.

Question 29.  What are endogenetic forces?
Answer:

Endogenetic forces:

The forces that act from within the earth are called endogenetic forces. These forces cause two types of movement in the earth, namely, vertical movement and horizontal movement. These movements give birth to various relief features such as plateaus, plains, lakes, folds, faults, etc. Volcanic eruptions and earthquakes are also a result of endogenetic forces.

Question 30.  What are exogenetic forces?
Answer:

Exogenetic forces:

The forces which act on the surface of the earth externally and cause changes in landforms, are called exogenetic forces. These forces are also known as denudational forces. Exogenetic forces are constantly engaged in the destruction of relief features which have been formed due to the endogenetic forces. Rivers, glaciers, winds, underground water, and sea waves, are some exogenetic forces that work to change the landforms on the earth’s surface.

Question 31.  What do you mean by gradation?
Answer:

Gradation:

The process of acquiring a smooth and graded profile of landform that lies in equilibrium is called gradation. Gradation includes three processes. The higher landforms are eroded and smoothened in the first phase. In the second phase, the eroded materials are transported by the agents of erosion. In the third phase, the eroded materials are deposited in lowlands or depressions to obtain a graded profile. Thus, gradation helps to eliminate the vertical irregularities of relief on the surface of the earth.

Question 32.  What is aggradation?
Answer:

Aggradation:

The process of increasing the height of a landform by deposition of materials eroded from elsewhere, is known as aggradation. It is a constructive process. Aggradation leads to the formation of alluvial fans and cones, flood plains, etc.

Question 33.  Mention a few instances in which humans and animals act as agents of erosion.
Answer:

At times, human beings and animals also act as active agents of erosion. Mining, construction and agricultural activities cause widespread localised erosion. Burrowing animals such as rabbits, and beavers also act as agents of erosion.

Question 34. What are peneplains?
Answer:

Peneplains:

The featureless plains dotted with small undulations formed at the end of the cycle of erosion by rivers are known as peneplains. The river erodes the high landforms over a considerable period of time and lowers them. The soft rocks are eroded away faster and the hard rocks stand out on the surface as they are eroded less. These hard rocks standing out as highlands on a plain surface are known as monadnocks. E.g.-The Chotanagpur region is a peneplain, and the Pareshnath and Panchet hills lie as monadnocks.

Question 35.  What is the middle course of a river?
Answer:

The middle course of a river:

The river emerges onto the plains from its mountainous or upper course and henceforth this course of the river on the plains is known as its middle course. All along this course, the speed of the river reduces comparatively but the volume of the water carried decreases. Transportation of the eroded materials from the upper course is the main activity of the river in this course. Deposition of the eroded materials is also partially seen along this course. Example-The course of the river Ganga between Haridwar and Rajmahal hills is its middle course.

Question 36. Which is the lower course or delta course of a river?
Answer:

The course of the river flowing through the plains when reaches its mouth is known as its lower course. The speed of the river in this course is vastly reduced due to the gentle slope of the land. The flow also becomes sluggish due to the huge amount of sediment that is carried with the water as a bed load. This leads to the deposition of the sediments near the mouth forming deltas. Example-The portion of the river Ganga, lying between Rajmahal hills to the mouth in the Bay of Bengal is known as the lower course of the river.

Exogenetic processes landforms.

Question 37. What is Plunge Pool?
Answer:

Plunge Pool:

In mountainous regions, waterfalls are created where the river drops from a considerable height with great velocity. Small depressions or hollows known as potholes are created at the base of the waterfalls due to the pounding of rock fragments brought down by the water. These potholes gradually grow bigger in size to form Plunge Pools.

Question 38. Why is the Lohachara island submerging?
Answer:

The Lohachara island at the mouth of the river Hooghly is gradually submerging because—

1. The sea level is rising.
2. Severe cyclonic storms are hitting the area frequently.
3. The mangrove forests are being cut down and thus the coasts are being exposed to erosion.

WBBSE Chapter 1Exogenetic Processes Landforms.

Question 39.  What do you know about South Talpatti island?
Answer:

South Talpatti island:

The South Talpatti island also known as New Moore island existed 2 km away from the mouth of the river Hariyabhanga in the Sunderbans. The cardinal location of the island was 21°37’00″N and 89°08’30” S. The island emerged in the aftermath of the Bhola cyclone in 1970. According to satellite images, the island was about 2500 sq. km in area. The island is currently submerged due to the rise in the sea level as reasoned by scientists.

Question 40.  What is the current condition of Ghoramara island?
Answer:

The current condition of Ghoramara island:

The Ghoramara island lies 92 km south of Kolkata, north of the Sagar islands at the mouth of river Hooghly and east of the mouth of river Haldi in the Bay of Bengal. This is an island in the Sundarban region. In 1951, the size of the island was 38.23sq. km, but by 2011, the size reduced to a mere 4.37sq.km. Experts predict that the island will totally disappear due to submergence in the near future.

Question 41.  What do you mean by rejuvenation?
Answer:

Rejuvenation:

Rejuvenation means acceleration of the erosive work of the rivers due to various factors. This lengthens the period for the cycle of erosion of the rivers. A river may be rejuvenated due to earth movements that cause upliftment or depression of land, substantial fall in the sea level, river capture, etc. Landforms created due to the rejuvenation of rivers include knick points, valley-in-valley topography, incised meanders, paired terraces, etc.

Question 42. What are wadis?
Answer:

Wadis:

The small, shallow dry river valleys found in the deserts are called wadis. The wadis remain dry for most of the time and get filled at times of sudden rain in the desert. They often shift from one position to another or get lost in the sand.

Example:  Wadi Al-Batin of Saudi Arabia is a famous wadi.

Question 43. What do you mean by a pediment?
Answer:

Pediment:

In desert regions, the winds are the strongest agent of erosion. The small rocks, pebbles, sand particles etc., that blow with the wind help in eroding large boulders or mountains to low landforms. A pediment is a plain formed at the foothills of mountains in a desert by the joint action of erosion and deposition by the wind as well as flowing water. It remains covered with rocks and boulders.

WBBSE Chapter 1Exogenetic Processes Landforms.

Question 44. What are dunes?
Answer:

Dunes:

In deserts, the winds are very strong and can lift and carry large amounts of sand as they blow. But if the winds are obstructed by trees, rocks, boulders, bushes, hillocks, etc., they lose speed and drop the sand at the place of obstruction. Thus, the sand gets accumulated as high dumps over long stretches of land. These landforms are known as sand dunes. Dunes also form due to the presence of a dominant direction in which the wind blows.

Question 45. What is a barchan?
Answer:

Barchan:

The barchan is a transfer sand dune that is found in the desert region. It stands across the direction of the wind. It looks like a crescent moon. The middle part of the barchan can be 15-30m high. It has two horns on either side which move forward as the wind blows

Question 46. What is a garage?
Answer:

Garage:

In a desert region, the wind is the most active agent of erosion. The wind erodes mainly by the process of abrasion, where the rocks and pebbles carried by the wind collide against the lower parts or base of a high boulder or a hill. The soft rocks at the base get eroded faster and the hard rocks on the top remain as it is. Thus, the landform develops a narrow base and a broad top. This looks like a mushroom and thus is known as a mushroom rock. Such mushroom rocks are known as gara in the Sahara region.

Question 47. What is loess? Or, Define Loess.
Answer:

Loess:

Loess are the yellowish soil particles that are blown by the wind from the deserts and deposited elsewhere. Loess contains particles that are very fine textured and rich in quartz silt, clay and carbonate minerals. The soil particles do not have any similarity with the rocks and soil present in the region where they have been deposited. The plains formed of the loess deposits are called loess plains.

Question 48. What is an oasis?
Answer:

Oasis:

In desert regions, a huge depression may be created due to the blowing away of sand by the wind regularly. The depression becomes so deep that the surface of the region reaches the level of the underground water table. Thus, water is easily available here, and the soil remains moist. This region is known as the oasis, as the availability of water helps in the growth of trees around the depression and makes this region look green. An oasis is like a garden in the desert region.

Question 49. What are ventifact and dreikanter?
Answer:

Ventifact: In a desert region, if the wind blows from one direction, the large rocks are polished on one side (the side facing the wind) by the process of abrasion, while the other sides remain uneven and rough. Such a rock is known as a ventifact.

Dreikanter: If the wind blows from different directions, all the faces of the rocks standing out are polished by the process of abrasion. Thus, a landform with three polished faces is formed. This is known as dreikanter.

Question 50. What are seif dunes?
Answer:

Seif dunes:

Seif’ means sword in Arabic. The long and narrow dunes like swords formed in the deserts are called seif dunes.
The seif dunes are formed in sandy deserts parallel to the direction of the wind. These are practically the longitudinal dunes. According to scientist Bagnold, the barchans in the desert region get gradually converted to seif dunes.

Question 51. What are blowouts or deflation hollows? Or, How are the “deflation hollows” formed?
Answer:

Blowouts or deflation hollows are sandy depressions found in desert regions. They are formed by the removal of sand from a region by the wind. They are commonly found in arid regions or coastal regions where there is the sufficient sand cover. Example—Qattara Depression, Egypt.

Exogenetic processes landforms.

Question 52. What do you mean by playa lakes?
Answer:

Playa lakes:

The saltwater lakes found in desert regions are called playa lakes. They are known as ‘hands’ in Rajasthan and ‘shafts’ in Sahara. The ephemeral streams that originate from the surrounding mountains drain into these lakes. The non-perennial rivers of the desert region may also drain into these playa lakes.

Question 53. What is a bajada?
Answer:

Bajada:

The gently sloping plain land lying between the pediment and the playa in a desert region is called a bajada. It may be formed at the foothills of mountains by the accumulation of clay, silt and pebbles. The alluvial cones formed at the foothills of mountains in a fluvial aeolian environment may join with each other and form a bajada.

WBBSE Chapter 1Exogenetic Processes Landforms.

Question 54. Why does abrasion occur at a height of a few metres above the earth’s surface?
Answer:

Abrasion is the process in which the rock pieces, pebbles and sand blown by the wind rub against or collide against the rocky hills or walls on the earth’s surface and thus erode them. Abrasion occurs only till a few metres above the ground because the large rock pieces cannot be lifted too high above the ground by the winds. The presence of erosive tools carried by the wind is maximum at the lower columns of air than at a height.

Question 55. What are star dunes?
Answer:

Star dunes:

In desert regions, winds blow from different directions during different times of the year. Thus, dunes are formed in different directions. Star dunes are formed by variable winds. They grow vertically and do not migrate laterally. A star dune has multiple slip faces, a central peak and three or more arms extending radially.

Question 56. What do you mean by Agassi?
Answer:

Agassi:

The seif dunes lie parallel to one another and the gap or passage between two adjacent seif dunes is called a corridor. These corridors are devoid of sand and lie as pavements or vast stony plains in the desert. These are called reg. Such reg or corridors between parallel dunes are known as gassy in Sahara, Africa. These corridors are used as caravan paths for travelling through the deserts.

Question 57. What do you mean by erg?
Answer:

Erg:

The vast stretches in the desert made up of sand accumulations are known as ergs. Ergs are formed where the wind is most active and the amount of sand present is huge. These depressions of wind accumulations were formerly filled with alluvium.

Question 58. Name some deserts of the mid-latitudes.
Answer:

Some deserts of the mid-latitudes are— Gobi, Taklamakan and the desert of Turkestan in Asia, the Colorado desert in North America, etc. The number of deserts in mid-latitudes is more than the number of deserts in low latitudes.

Question 59. Name some deserts of the low latitudes.
Answer:

The low-latitude deserts are found within 20°-30° latitudes in both hemispheres. These deserts have developed on the western margins of the continents. E.g.— Sahara, and Kalahari in Africa; the Arabian desert, the Baluchistan desert and Thar desert in Asia; Soneran in North America, the Great Australian desert in Australia, etc.

Question 60. What is adobe?
Answer:

Adobe:

In North America, loess deposits are found in the valleys of the Mississippi and Missouri rivers. Scientists believe that this landform had been formed in the Pleistocene Age when sand from the moraines and outwash plains was blown off and deposited here. These loess deposits are known as adobe in North America. Loess is extensively found in Nebraska, Illinois, Iowa, etc.

Question 61.  Why do valleys rivers while carving glaciers out T carve or out’V’ ‘U’ shaped valleys?
Answer:

Case Studies on Exogenetic Landforms

  • The rivers have great speed in the mountainous region.
  • The intensity of downcutting is more than the intensity of side cutting. regions the valley carved out are ‘I’ shaped and while flowing through the wet regions the shape of the valleys resembles the letter V.
  • In the case of glaciers, the intensity of side-cutting of valleys is similar to that of downcutting. Rocks are broken and removed by the process of plucking and abrasion.
  • Thus, the shape of the valley resembles the letter ‘U’.

WBBSE Chapter 1Exogenetic Processes Landforms.

Question 62. Mention the importance of glaciers as a source of sweet and fresh drinking water.
Answer:

  • A glacier is not only a frozen river of ice but also influences the landform and climate. the environment of the glacial region.
  • It can be considered as a reserve for freshwater pres in the frozen form. About 97.20% of the water present on the earth’s surface is salty and unfit for use. The rest 2.80% of the water is fresh.
  • Out of this share, about 0.0001% of the water flows through rivers, 0.9999% lies as underground water, and 1% remains frozen as ice.
  • This means that about 75% of usable fresh water is trapped in the glaciers. Out of this about 90% or more lie in Antarctica.
  • Rivers like Ganga, Yamuna, Indus and Brahmaputra rise from the glaciers. Thus, the glaciers in the high mountains are important in being reserves of freshwater in frozen form.

Question 63.  Why are the roches moutonnees smooth on one side and rough on the other?
Answer:

  • In a glaciated region, if a large boulder, or rock comes in the way of the glacier, the side over which the glacier moves forward is smoothened and polished by the process of abrasion.
  • The opposite side over which the glacier descends is plucked and eroded and weathered.
  • Thus, one slope of the Roches moutonnees is smooth while the opposite side is rough, uneven and plucked.

Question 64.  How are glacial stairways formed?
Answer:

When the glaciers descend from very high mountains into valleys, they develop steps or stairs along the walls of the valleys through the processes of abrasion and plucking. The steps may develop due to unequal distribution of load in the glacier or alternate alignment of hard and soft rock beds. These steps are known as glacial stairways.

Question 65. What do you mean by abrasion?
Answer:

Abrasion:

Abrasion or corrasion is a type of erosion. The natural agents of erosion like rivers, glaciers and wind bring down rock fragments, pebbles, sand and stones that rub against the rock beds on the surface of the earth. This is known as the process of abrasion. Thus, the surface is polished and eroded fast by the removal of loosened materials.

Question 66. What are eskers?
Answer:

Eskers:

Eskers are depositional landforms found in the lowlands or foothills of mountains or valley glaciers. When the debris (rocks, pebbles, stone, etc.) brought down by glaciers gets deposited like low-lying ridges (about 15 m in height) with branches, they are called eskers.

Exogenetic processes landforms.

Question 67. Where is the erosional action of wind most predominant?
Answer:

In arid regions of the world where the rainfall received is less than 25cm, growth of natural vegetation is negligible or almost absent the erosional action of the wind is most predominant. The land surface remains open and uncovered. There are almost no obstructions to the blowing wind. Hence the winds blow at a great speed. Also, the high diurnal range of temperature leads to the disintegration of rocks. These rock fragments are carried with the wind further eroding the landscape by the process of abrasion.

Question 68. How is sand formed in the deserts?
Answer:

In the desert regions, the diurnal and annual ranges of temperature are very high. This enhances weathering by mechanical methods, where the large rocks are gradually broken down into small rock fragments. Also, abrasion of rocks leads to further breakdown of rocks into sand particles. Lack of rainfall helps to speed up the whole process. Thus, sand is formed in the deserts.

WBBSE Class 10 Geography And Environment Chapter 2 Atmosphere Long Question And Answers

WBBSE Chapter 2 Atmosphere Long Question And Answers

Question 1. Discuss the influence of the various components of the atmosphere.
Answer:

The influence of the various components of the atmosphere:

The different components of the atmosphere influence the environment in many ways.

1. Nitrogen (78.08%):

  1.  Leguminous plants fix atmospheric nitrogen into the soil with the help of bacteria like Rhizobium, making the soil fertile.
  2.  Atmospheric nitrogen is extracted to manufacture chemical fertilizers.
  3.  The atmospheric nitrogen meets the demand for nitrogen from plants and animals directly or indirectly.

2. Oxygen (20.94%):

  1.  Oxygen helps in respiration, without which no life on earth can survive.
  2.  Oxygen causes weathering of rocks containing iron, by the process of oxidation.
  3.  Combustion is possible only in the presence of oxygen.

3. Carbon dioxide (0.03%):

  1. Carbon dioxide helps plants conduct photosynthesis, which produces food or glucose. All animals are directly or indirectly dependent on plants for food.
  2.  t influences the temperature of the atmosphere.
  3. The rocks rich in calcium carbonate are weathered by carbon dioxide and water through the process of carbonation.
  4. Several landforms like stalactites and stalagmites are formed in limestone regions due to reactions with carbon dioxide.

4. Ozone:

The ozone layer lies within the stratosphere at an altitude of 20-40km above the earth’s surface. It prevents the harmful ultraviolet radiation from reaching the earth’s surface and causing severe diseases like skin cancer, eye problems, infertility, wilting of leaves of plants, etc.

5. Water vapor:

  1. Water vapor leads to the formation of clouds and rainfall.
  2. Life on the earth would have been impossible without the presence of water. All plants and animals need water to survive.
  3. Precipitation occurs due to the presence of water vapor in the atmosphere.

6. Dust particles:

  1. The dust particles act as the medium of condensation of water vapor in order to create clouds and fog.
  2. The dust particles absorb heat directly from solar radiation and warm the atmosphere.
  3. The dust particles act as prisms and cause the refraction of light. Thus, the earth appears so bright and beautiful.
  4. Dawn and dusk are created in the sky due to the presence of dust particles in the atmosphere of the atmosphere according to temperature.

Question 2. Classify the layers of the atmosphere according to temperature.
Answer:

The atmosphere can be classified into six prominent layers according to the distribution of temperature—

WBBSE Class 10 Geography And Environment Chapter 2 Atmosphere Layers of atmosphere

The different layers of the atmosphere are discussed in a tabular form:

WBBSE Class 10 Geography And Environment Chapter 2 atmosphere are discussed in a tabular

The different layers of the atmosphere are discussed in a tabular form.

WBBSE Class 10 Geography And Environment Chapter 2 Atmosphere The different layers of the atmosphere

Question 3. Classify the atmosphere into layers according to differences in temperature. Discuss any one layer of the atmosphere.
Answer:

The atmosphere into layers according to differences in temperature:

The atmosphere can be classified into six For the second part, stratosphere (12-50 km), mesosphere (50-80 km), thermosphere (80-640 km), exosphere (600-1500 km), and magnetosphere (150010000 km).

2. Oxygen (20.94%):

  • Oxygen helps in respiration, without which no life on earth can survive.
  • Oxygen causes weathering of rocks containing iron, by the process of oxidation.
  • Combustion is possible only in the presence of oxygen.

3. Carbon dioxide (0.03%):

  • Carbon dioxide helps to conduct photosynthesis in plants to produce food or glucose.
  • All animals are directly or indirectly dependent on plants for food.
  •  It influences the temperature of the atmosphere.
  • The rocks rich in calcium carbonate are weathered by carbon dioxide and water through the process of carbonation.
  • Several landforms like stalactites and stalagmites are formed in limestone regions due to reactions with carbon dioxide.

4. Ozone:

  • The ozone layer lies within the stratosphere at an altitude of 20-40km above the earth’s surface.
  • It prevents the harmful ultraviolet radiation from reaching the earth’s surface and causing severe diseases like skin cancer, eye problems, infertility, wilting of leaves of plants, etc.

5. Water vapor:

  • Water vapor leads to the formation of clouds and rainfall.
  • Life on the earth would have been impossible without the presence of water. All plants and animals need water to survive.
  • Precipitation occurs due to the presence of water vapor in the atmosphere.

6. Dust particles:

  • The dust particles act as the medium of condensation of water vapor in order to create clouds and fog.
  • The dust particles absorb heat directly from solar radiation and make the atmosphere warm.
  • The dust particles act as prisms and cause refraction of light. Thus, the earth appears so bright and beautiful.
  •  Dawn and dusk are created in the sky due to the presence of dust particles in the atmosphere of the atmosphere according to temperature.

Question 4. Name the components of the atmosphere.
Answer:

The atmosphere is made up of three types of components—

  1. Gases,
  2. Water vapor and
  3. Dust particles.

 

WBBSE Class 10 Geography And Environment Chapter 2 Atmosphere Constituents elements of atmosphere

Troposphere Characteristics

1. Gases:

The atmosphere mostly contains nitrogen (78.08%) and oxygen (20.94%) gases. Other gases present in the atmosphere are—argon (0.93%), carbon dioxide (0.03%), helium, hydrogen, krypton, methane, neon, ozone, xenon, etc.

WBBSE Class 10 Geography And Environment Chapter 2 Atmosphere Troposphere Characteristics

 

2. Water vapor:

Water vapor is an important component of the atmosphere.

3. Dust particles:

Dust particles, ash particles, sea salt nuclei, etc. are present in the lower layers of the atmosphere, and play a vital role in heat absorption, condensation of water vapor, and occurrence of rainfall.

Question 5. Discuss the importance of nitrogen gas in the atmosphere.
Answer:

The importance of nitrogen gas in the atmosphere:

By volume, nitrogen constitutes about 78.08% of atmospheric gases.

The importance of nitrogen is—

1. Nitrogen requirement of plants and animals:

  • Animals do not use nitrogen directly. Some pulses fix the atmospheric nitrogen in their root legumes with the help of some bacteria like Rhizobium.
  • Animals take in these leguminous plants as their food and meet their demand for nitrogen.

2. Increase in soil fertility:

  • Leguminous plants like pulses, peas, etc. fix the atmospheric nitrogen with the help of bacteria like Rhizobium in the soil.
  • This helps to increase soil fertility. During agriculture, the fertility of soil can be brought back by cultivating such leguminous plants in between other crops.

3. Fertilisers: Nitrogen compounds are often used to produce fertilizers that enhance plant growth.

Question 6. Discuss the importance of oxygen in the atmosphere.
Answer:

The importance of oxygen in the atmosphere:

By volume, the atmosphere contains about 20.94% of oxygen.

The importance of oxygen is:

  • Survival of life: Life cannot be survived without oxygen for both plants and animals. Thus, if there would have been no oxygen in the atmosphere, there would have been no life.
  •  Atmospheric balance: An increase or decrease in the amount of oxygen in the atmosphere may disturb the atmospheric balance
  • Weathering: Rocks containing iron are weathered by the oxygen present in the atmosphere through the process of oxidation.
  • Combustion: Oxygen helps in the combustion and burning of fire. Thus, without oxygen, no fire could have been lit.

Question 7. Discuss the importance of dioxide in the atmosphere.
Answer:

The importance of water vapor in the atmosphere is :

  • Influences on rainfall: The presence of water vapor in the atmosphere leads to precipitation of different forms (such as rainfall, snowfall, fog, dew, hailstorm, etc.). The amount of precipitation is directly proportional to the amount of water vapor present in the atmosphere.
  • Sustaining life: Life is impossible without water. The presence of water vapor in the atmosphere helps to cause rainfall and hence, helps to sustain life on the earth.
  • Control of climate: The climate of a region is dependent on the amount of rainfall, snowfall, drizzle, fog, cloud, dew, or hailstorm occurring in the region. The climate is humid in regions that receive heavy rainfall, the climate is dry desert type in regions that receive scanty rainfall.

Stratosphere and Ozone Layer

Question 8. Discuss the importance of dust particles in the atmosphere.
Answer:

The importance of dust particles in the atmosphere is—

  1. Cloud formation: The water vapor condenses around the dust particles to form clouds and different forms of precipitation occur from them.
  2. Distribution: The dust particles get heated directly by the insolation, hence making the atmosphere warm. Thus, the presence of dust particles influences the distribution of solar heat in the atmosphere.
  3. Colour of the sky: The dust particles act as prisms and cause refraction of light. Thus, the sky appears colorful at times. The excess of blue light in the color spectrum makes the sky appear blue.

Question 9. How is the ozone layer being depleted?
Answer:

The ozone gas is concentrated in the stratosphere. It is being depleted fast by photochemical reactions.

The causes of the depletion of the ozone layer are as follows—

1. Influence of CFCs:

  • The chloroform carbons in refrigerators, air conditioners, body sprays, cosmetics, hair sprays, insecticides, and pesticides are responsible for the depletion of the ozone layer.
  • The ultraviolet rays of the sun release the chlorine molecules from the CFCs which react with the ozone and deplete it.

2. Sulphate compounds:

  • The chimneys of various factories emit huge quantities of sulfur dioxide.
  • These are converted to sulfate compounds by sunlight and harm the ozone layer.

3. Aeroplanes:

  • The jet planes that fly through the stratosphere emit a lot of nitrogen oxide.
  • This is harmful to the ozone layer.

Question 10.  Mention the general characteristics of air.
Answer:

The general characteristics of air are—

  1. Air becomes heavy and dense if temperature decreases.
  2. The rise in temperature expands the air, makes it light, and causes it to rise.
  3. Warm air has more moisture-holding capacity than cool air.
  4. An increase in the amount of water vapor in the air reduces air pressure.
  5. Moist air is lighter than dry air.
  6. Warm air is lighter and rises upward, while cool air is heavier and sinks downward.
  7.  The density of air is maximum near the earth’s surface and goes on decreasing with an increase in height.

Question 11.  Why would life not have been created if the atmosphere was absent?
Answer:

Life would not have been created in the absence of atmosphere because:

  •  In the absence of the atmosphere, the day temperature of the earth would have been 70’C and the night temperature would have been- 145°C. Life cannot survive in such extreme temperature conditions.
  • Oxygen and carbon dioxide present in the atmosphere are indispensable for sustaining life.
  • Water vapor present in the atmosphere condenses to give rainfall. The first proof of life originated in water. Hence, if there would have been no rainfall, there would have been no life.
  • The ozone gas present in the atmosphere protects 1 the earth from the harmful ultraviolet rays of the sun, thus saving life on the earth.

Question 12.  Differentiate between the homosphere and the heterosphere.
Answer:

The Differences between the homosphere and the heterosphere are-

WBBSE Class 10 Geography And Environment Chapter 2 Atmosphere Differences between the homosphere and the heterosphere

Question 13. Differentiate between the troposphere and stratosphere
Answer:

The Differences between the troposphere and stratosphere

WBBSE Class 10 Geography And Environment Chapter 2 Atmosphere The Differences between the troposphere and stratosphere

Question 14.  Why does temperature decrease with an increase in altitude in the Troposphere?
Answer:

Temperature decreases with the increase of altitude in the Troposphere at the rate of 6.4° C with every 1000 m altitude. This is known as a normal lapse of temperature.

This happens because of the following reasons:

  • Less radiation received: The atmosphere does not get heated directly. It gets heated up by the radiation received from the surface of the earth. Thus, the lower part of the atmosphere coming in direct contact with the surface of the earth gets more heat than the portion lying above.
  • Less dense air: The layers of air are denser near the earth’s surface and become lighter with increasing altitude. Hence, the upper layers receive less heat.
  • Less heat absorbing capacity: The lower layer of the atmosphere contains more water vapor, dust particles, and sea salt nuclei than the layers above and hence heat retentive and heat absorbing capacity considerably decrease with the increase of altitude.
  • Thin layer of air: The atmosphere gradually thins out with an increase in altitude. For this reason, the air in the upper layers expands quickly and cools rapidly by the release of radiation.

Question 15. Discuss the causes of differences in temperature in the air in different parts of the earth. OR, Explain the causes of the difference in air temperature in the atmosphere. OR, How is the temperature of the atmosphere influenced by different factors?
Answer:

The various causes of the difference in the air temperature in different parts of the earth are as follows—

WBBSE Class 10 Geography And Environment Chapter 2 Atmosphere Determinants of variation of atmosphere temeperature

Mesosphere Facts for Student

1. Latitude: The angle of incidence of the sun’s rays is different in different latitudes. The sun’s rays fall almost vertically over the equator and go on becoming tangent over the higher latitudes towards the poles.

  • The tangent rays give less amount of heat for the following reasons
  1. Tangent rays have to cross a larger distance through the atmosphere than vertical rays.
  2. Tangent rays spread over a larger area on the earth’s surface and distribute the heat. Thus, the temperature is highest at the equator and goes on decreasing towards the poles.

2. Altitude:

  • By the normal lapse rate, temperature decreases by 6.4°C for every 1000 m rise in altitude. Hence, two places located on the same latitude but different altitudes will have different temperature conditions.
  • The eg-Average temperature of the capital of Uganda, Kampala (0°21’N, altitude-1190 m) is 22.7°C, while that of the capital of Ecuador, Quito (1°08’N, altitude- 2850 m) is 15.6°C.

WBBSE Class 10 Geography And Environment Chapter 2 Atmosphere Layers of atmosphere Effecr the atmosphere

3. Presence of mountains:

  • The presence of mountains across the direction of hot or cold winds influence the temperature of the region.
  • Example: The Himalayan mountains prevent the chilling cold polar winds coming from Siberia from entering India and making it chilled.

4. Distance from the sea:

  • The regions close to the sea enjoy a moderate maritime climate, while the places far away from the sea experience harsh, extreme continental climates.
    • Example: Mumbai lying on the coast of the Arabian Sea has an average summer temperature of 33°C and winter temperature of 21°C.
  • On the other hand, Delhi lying far away from the sea has an average summer temperature of 47°C and winter temperature of 12°C.

5. Slope of land:

  • The slope which faces the sun receives more solar radiation than the opposite slope, thus they are warmer.
    • Example:  The southern slope of the Himalayas receives direct rays and the northern slope receives tangent rays.
  • Thus, the southern slope is warmer than the northern slope.

WBBSE Class 10 Geography And Environment Chapter 2 Atmosphere Northern slope And Southern slope

6. Length of day and night:

  • The length of day and night influences the temperature of the places.
  • If the length of the day is smaller than the night, the insolation can be totally radiated back during the night, thus making the nights cooler.
  • But if the length of the day is greater than the night, the total insolation cannot be radiated back within the smaller length of the night.
  • Some heat remains in the atmosphere and raises the average temperature of the place.

7. Cloud cover:

  • The cloud cover prevents solar energy from reaching the earth’s surface during the daytime.
  • It also prevents solar radiation from escaping from the earth’s atmosphere into outer space.

WBBSE Class 10 Geography And Environment Chapter 2 Atmosphere Atmosphere colud cover

8. Ocean currents:

  • If warm and cold ocean currents flow along either side of a continent at the same latitudes, the warm current makes the coastal region warm and raises the temperature.
  • The cold current makes the coastal region cooler and drops the temperature. Thus, along the same latitudes, one side of the continent remains warmer than the other side.

9. Winds:

Prevailing winds influence the temperature conditions of the regions.

Example: 

  • The cold winds from the Arctic region reach far into North America and make the climate of the USA chill during winter and during the night.
  • Thus, cloudy nights are warmer than cloudy days, and the temperature of the atmosphere causes heavy snowfall.
  • On the other hand, the warm Chinook wind makes the Prairies warm and causes the snow to melt.

10. Forest:

  • The canopy of leaves and branches in forests prevent solar radiation from reaching the earth’s surface easily.
  • Thus, forested regions are cooler than barren regions.

11. Soils:

  • Different types of soils absorb heat differently. Moist clayey soils like alluvium absorb lesser heat than dry sandy soils.
  • Hence, places comprising sandy soil are warm in the daytime and cool after the radiation of heat at night.
  • The places comprising moist alluvial soil are moderately warm and cool during the day and night respectively.

12. Urbanisation and industrialization:

  • The smoke emitted by vehicles in cities and towns and the chimneys of industries increase the general temperature of the environment.
  • Thus, urbanization and industrialization tend to increase the average temperature of the regions.

Example:  The average temperature of Kolkata always remains 2-3°C higher than the vacant region near the Dum Dum airport.

Question 16.  Discuss the influence of latitude and altitude on air temperature.
Answer:

The influence of latitude and altitude on air temperature

1. Latitude:

  • The angle of incidence of the sun’s rays is different in different latitudes. The sun’s rays fall almost vertically over the equator and go on becoming tangent over the higher latitudes towards the poles.
  • The tangent rays give less amount of heat for the following reasons
  • Tangent rays have to cross a larger distance through the atmosphere than vertical rays.
  • Tangent rays spread over a larger area on the earth’s surface and distribute the heat. Thus, the temperature is highest at the equator and goes on decreasing towards the poles.

2. Altitude:

  • By the normal lapse rate, temperature decreases by 6.4°C for every 1000 m rise in altitude. Hence, two places located on the same latitude but different altitudes will have different temperature conditions.
  • The eg-Average temperature of the capital of Uganda, Kampala (0°21’N, altitude-1190 m) is 22.7°C, while that of the capital of Ecuador, Quito (1°08’N, altitude- 2850 m) is 15.6°C.

Question 17.  Discuss the characteristics of the temperature zones of the world.
Answer:

The earth is divided into five temperature zones according to the difference in temperature. They are as follows—

1. Torrid zone

Location: The Torrid zone lies between the Tropic of Cancer (231/4°N) and the Tropic of Capricorn (23°S) across the equator (0°). The region is the warmest on the earth as it receives the direct rays of the sun. Sometimes the 30°N and 30°S latitudes are considered the limits of the Torrid zone.

Characteristics:

  1. The Torrid zone receives vertical rays of the sun almost throughout the year.
  2. The average temperature remains around 27°C.
  3. The length of day and night remain equal throughout the year.
  4. This zone does not experience any climatic change during different times of the year. Summer is the only season prevailing here.

2. Northern Temperate zone and Southern Temperate zone

Location:

The northern temperate zone lies between the Tropic of Cancer (23340N) and the Arctic Circle (661/i°N) and the southern temperate zone lies between the Tropic of Capricorn (231/4°S) and Antarctic Circle (6634°S). The average temperatures of these zones vary between 0°C-27°C.

Characteristics:

  1. The angle of incidence of sun’s rays is medium in the temperate zones.
  2. The length of day and night is variable but medium.
  3. The region closer to the tropics is known as the warm temperate zone, while the region closer to the polar regions is known as the cool temperate zone.


3. Northern Frigid zone and Southern Frigid zone

Location: The northern Frigid zone extends from the Arctic Circle (66>20N) to the North Pole (90°N). The sun’s rays are extremely inclined or tangent in this region. Hence, the region is extremely cold.

Characteristics:

  1. The difference between the length of day and night is extreme in this region. The polar regions experience six months of continuous day and six months of continuous night.
  2. The extremely inclined rays of the sun do not provide much heat to the region. The continuous daylight for six months is also not sufficient to raise the temperature of the place.
  3.  During the continuous six months of night, some bright lights can be seen in the sky. These are called Aurora Borealis in the northern hemisphere and Aurora Australis in the southern hemisphere.

Question 18. Discuss the effects of global warming.
Answer:

The effects of global warming on the earth are as follows—

1. Melting of polar and glacial ice:

The gradual increase in atmospheric temperature is causing the ice of the South Pole and the glaciers of Greenland, and the Atmosphere of other mountain glaciers like Gangotri, Yamunotri, etc to melt.

2. Rise in sea level:

  • The melting of ice caps is raising the level of water in the seas. The sea level rises by 10-12 cm for every 1°C rise in temperature
  • . This leads to the submergence of coastal lowlands, change in the direction of ocean currents, increase in salinity of groundwater, etc.

3. Change in the type of precipitation:

  • A rise in temperature increases the level of evaporation and the moisture-holding capacity of the atmosphere.
  • This increases the occurrence of rainfall, hailstorms, snowfall, etc.
  • Some regions may be affected by floods, while some regions may face droughts due to uneven distribution of rainfall.

4. Crop production:

An increase in the general temperature of the environment may reduce the production of food crops by 10-70%. Production of crops like rice, oats, tobacco, cotton, and jute may decline, while production of sugarcane, jowar, bajra, etc. may increase.

Example:  In Kullu Valley, the cultivation of onions and others has taken up the place of apples in many areas.

5. Cropping methods:

  • The cropping patterns will change all over the world due to the rise in atmospheric temperature.
  • The agricultural lands dependent on irrigation will transform into pastures for grazing.
  • Crops like rice, jute, and cotton will be grown in the temperate zone instead of the tropical zone.
  • Methods of cultivation will also change all over the world.

6. Effects of El Nino:

  • In the southern hemisphere along the coast of Peru and Ecuador of South America a warm current is suddenly generated in the Pacific Ocean, which raises the temperature of the ocean by 1.5-2.5°C.
  • This is known as El Nino. This causes heavy rainfall in Peru and Ecuador but may cause droughts in India.

Question 19.  How does altitude influence air, Why are places in high altitudes cooler, Why are the mountains cooler than the low plains?
Answer:

Temperature decreases by 6.4°C for every 1000 m rise in altitude by the normal lapse rate. Thus, places lying on the same latitude but at different altitudes record different temperatures.

Example: The capital of Uganda, Kampala (1192 m) is about 7°C warmer than the capital of Ecuador, Quito (2819 m), although they are located almost on the same latitude.

This difference in temperature occurs because of the following reasons:

1. Radiation in higher altitudes: In the lower altitudes, the combined effect of incoming solar radiation and outgoing terrestrial radiation makes the place warmer as compared to the higher latitudinal locations. Most of the heat is absorbed in the lower layers of the atmosphere closer to the earth’s surface. Thus, the temperature goes on decreasing at the upper levels or higher altitudes.

2. Less density of air: The density of air decreases as altitude increases. Less dense air has less temperature.

3. Less absorption of heat: The lack of dust particles and water vapor in higher altitudes lead to less absorption and retention of heat in the air present there.

4. Thin layers of air: The air becomes thinner with the rise in altitude. It radiates heat and becomes cool very fast.

Composition of Atmospheric Gases

Question 20.  Describe the Six’s maximum and minimum thermometer and discuss its uses.
Answer:

The Six’s maximum and minimum thermometer and discuss its uses:

The Six’s maximum and the minimum thermometer is an instrument used to measure the maximum and minimum temperatures of a day. It is also used to calculate the diurnal, monthly, and annual ranges of temperatures of a place. The Instrument was invented by James Six in 1782.

Six’s maximum and minimum  The instrument:

  • The thermometer looks like the alphabet ‘U’, fixed in a frame.
  • It is made up of very thin tubes of glass.
  • There are two bulbs on the two limbs of the thermometer.
  • The limbs remain filled with mercury up to a certain level, and the rest is filled with alcohol.
  • Two indicators are placed just above the mercury level, which floats above the mercury for being lighter in weight.
  • The indicators are pushed upwards through the glass tube to measure the level of temperatures.
  • The instrument is graduated in Celsius and Fahrenheit scales for easy calculation of temperature.

Six’s maximum and minimum  Use:

  • The thermometer is installed in a shady place where the direct sunlight does not reach, but the heat reaches.
  • The indicators are placed touching the mercury level with the help of magnets.
  • When temperature increases, the alcohol expands and pushes the mercury and the indicator through the tube to record the highest temperature.
  • When the temperature decreases, the alcohol contracts and pulls the mercury and the indicator toward the other limb to record the lowest temperature.
  • The indicators do not move from their positions, hence maximum and minimum temperatures are easily recorded.
  • The lower tips of the indicators point out the temperature of the atmosphere.

Question 21.  Divide the earth into different temperature zones.
Answer:

The earth can be divided into three parts or temperature zones, according to a latitudinal extent—

1. Torrid zone:

  • The region extending between the Tropic of Cancer (231/2°N) and the Tropic of Capricorn (231/2°S) across the equator (0°) is known as the Torrid zone.
  • The average temperature of this region is around 27°C. This zone does not experience many climatic changes throughout the year. Hence, summer persists around the year.

WBBSE Class 10 Geography And Environment Chapter 2 Atmosphere Different Temperature zones

2. Temperate zone:

  • The region lies between 231/z° and 661/2° latitudes in both hemispheres and is known as the temperate zone.
  • It stretches from the Tropic of Cancer to the Arctic Circle in the northern hemisphere and the Tropic of Capricorn to the Antarctic Circle in the southern hemisphere. Here, the average temperature varies between 0° and 27°C.

3. Frigid zone:

  • The region extending between 661/2° latitudes and the Poles in both hemispheres is known as the Frigid zone.
  • It stretches from the Arctic Circle to the North Pole in the northern hemisphere and from the Antarctic Circle to the South Pole in the southern hemisphere.
  • The average temperature is around 0°C.

Question 22.  Discuss the processes by which the atmosphere gets heated.
Answer:

The processes by which the atmosphere gets heated:

The atmosphere is heated by the processes of conduction, convection, and radiation.

1. Conduction:

  • Conduction is the method of transfer of heat from one part to another of a substance or to a different substance that is in physical contact with the first substance.
  • There is no noticeable movement of molecules. Energy is transferred by the movement of free electrons through vibrations between atoms and molecules.

2. Convection:

  • The cyclical movement of warm air upwards and cooler air downwards and sidewards to fill up the gap is known as convection.
  • In the equatorial region, excessive heating of the earth’s surface leads to heating of the adjacent air molecules, which rise upwards creating convection currents.

3. Radiation: The method of transfer of heat from one place to another without the help of any medium, or without heating the medium present in between, is called radiation.

WBBSE Class 10 Geography And Environment Chapter 2 Atmosphere Heated of the earth surface

 

Question 23.  What do you mean by inversion of temperature?
Answer:

Inversion of temperature:

  • By the normal Lapse rate, the air temperature decreases by 6.4°C for every 1000 m rise in altitude.
  • But in certain cases, it is seen that temperature increases with an increase in altitude. This phenomenon is known as the ‘inversion of temperature’.

Inversion of temperature Process:

  • In mountainous regions on clear nights, the air radiates back to heat and cools down fast. This cool air becomes heavy and slips down along the sides of the valleys due to gravitational pull.
  • This air is known as a katabatic wind. On the other hand, the heating up of the lower regions of valley walls causes air to rise upwards. This air is called anabatic wind. As a result, the cooler air lies below the warmer air. This condition is known as the inversion of temperature.

WBBSE Class 10 Geography And Environment Chapter 2 Atmosphere Inversion of temperatur

Inversion of temperature Effect:

Due to the inversion of temperature, in many places in Europe, settlements and agricultural activity are found on the upper parts of mountain slopes than the valleys.

Question 24.  Why is Delhi warmer than Mumbai during the summer season?
Answer:

  • Average annual temperature Total of the average monthly temperature of 12 months Ansi Delhi is situated almost at the center of the northern part of India.
  • It is far away from the influence of the sea. Hence, it experiences extreme or continental climates where summers are hot and winters are very cold.
  • Mumbai is situated on the coast of the Arabian Sea and enjoys a maritime or moderate climate. The difference in temperature between summers and winters is not very large.
  • Hence, Delhi remains warmer than Mumbai during the summer seasons conditions of the earth’s surface and maintains its uniformity.

Question 25. What is the main characteristic of the horizontal distribution of the temperature on the earth’s surface?
Answer:

The main characteristic of the horizontal distribution of the temperature on the earth’s surface

The horizontal distribution of temperature on the earth’s surface is influenced by the latitude and the angle of incidence of the sun’s rays.

The temperature conditions of January and July are drastically opposite all over the world. The weather maps of these two months give an idea of the distribution of temperature on the earth’s surface throughout the world.

WBBSE Class 10 Geography And Environment Chapter 2 Atmosphere World map

Question 26.  Describe the pressure belts of the world along with a diagram, How many pressure belts are there in the world?
Answer:

 

WBBSE Class 10 Geography And Environment Chapter 2 Atmosphere World Pressure belt

WBBSE Class 10 Geography And Environment Chapter 2 Atmosphere pressure belts of the world

The pressure belts of the world are described below-

WBBSE Class 10 Geography And Environment Chapter 2 Atmosphere The pressure belts

Question 27. What are the causes of differences in pressure conditions in the atmosphere?
Answer:

The causes of the difference in air pressure in the atmosphere are—

WBBSE Class 10 Geography And Environment Chapter 2 Atmosphere Causes of variation of atmospheric pressure

1. Temperature:

  1. Air expands when heated and rises upwards.
  2. As a result, both density and pressure decrease.
  3. This is why a low-pressure belt exists in the equatorial region.
  4. Air contracts when cooled, and descends.
  5. This increases both density and pressure.

2. Water vapor:

Air filled with water vapor is lighter than dry air. Thus, the regions where the water vapor content in the air is high, experience low pressure and vice versa.

3. Altitude:

The atmosphere becomes lighter and its mass decreases with an increase in altitude. This results in low pressure in higher altitudes. Thus, Darjeeling experiences lower pressure than Siliguri due to its higher altitude even though both of them are located on more or less the same latitude.

4. Rotation of the earth:

The rotation of the earth deflects the air from the sub-polar region towards the sub-tropical and polar regions. Thus, the sub-polar region has low pressure while the sub-tropical and polar regions have high pressure.

5. Distribution of landmass and water bodies:

The opposite characteristics of land and water also cause differences in atmospheric pressure. The land gets heated faster than water during the daytime.

The air adjacent to the landmasses also gets heated, becomes light and rises. This creates low pressure over land and high pressure over water bodies.

During the night, land radiates heat faster than the water bodies and gets cooled. The adjacent air also cools, gets heavier, and descends, thus increasing pressure over land than water bodies.

Question 28.  Explain the relation between temperature and pressure of the atmosphere.
Answer:

The relation between temperature and pressure of the atmosphere.

The temperature of the atmosphere is inversely related to the pressure conditions. This can be explained in the following ways-

Air expands, becomes lighter, and rises when temperature increases. This causes low-pressure conditions. E.g- The equatorial region receives almost vertical rays of the sun throughout the year. Thus, the air in this region remains warm, and light and tends to rise upwards throughout the year.

This creates low-pressure conditions in the equatorial region.  Air pressure increases when air is cooled or temperature is lowered. Cool air becomes heavier and tends to descend downwards.

This makes the air dense and increases pressure. E.g – The air around the polar region remains chilled throughout the year due to severe cold conditions prevailing over there. Thus, air pressure remains high throughout the year. The water vapor content of the air also influences air pressure. Warm air can hold much more water vapor than cool air.

WBBSE Class 10 Geography And Environment Chapter 2 Atmosphere between temperature and pressure of the atmosphere

Question 29. What Is the relation between monsoon winds and the jet stream?
Answer:

The sub-tropical jet stream and the tropical easterly jet stream have a great influence on the climate of India.

1. Monsoon season: The tropical easterly jet stream blows over India in the month of June. The onset of the southwest monsoon winds is influenced to a great extent by the easterly jet stream.

WBBSE Class 10 Geography And Environment Chapter 2Atmosphere India wind movement

2. Winter season: The sub-tropical westerly jet stream blows over India during October-November as the southwest monsoon winds start retreating. It continues to blow over India till the month of May. As the jet stream moves southwards than its original position, the severity of cold increases in the country.

It reaches its maximum southern limit in February, after which it starts moving northwards till May. During the winter season, as the jet stream blows over India from the west to the east, it collides with the mighty Himalayas and gets bifurcated into two branches.

These branches blow over the northern and southern slopes of the Himalayas, where their speed gets reduced. Once they cross the Himalayas, they unite and gain speed like before.

The climate of India is much dependent on the jet streams. The duration of the seasons, the intensity of the heat and cold, the amount of rainfall, cyclones and storms, etc. are all influenced by the jet streams.

WBBSE Class 10 Geography And Environment Chapter 2Atmosphere India wind movement January

Question 30. Describe the planetary wind with the help of a diagram. Or, Explain with sketches the origin and direction of planetary winds of the world.

WBBSE Class 10 Geography And Environment Chapter 2 Atmosphere Detremination of variation of atmosphere temperature

1. Trade winds: The winds that blow from the sub-tropical high-pressure belts in either hemisphere towards the equatorial low-pressure belt throughout the year, are called trade winds.

Trade winds are of two types—

  1. North-east trade winds: These winds blow from the sub-tropical high-pressure belt of the northern hemisphere near the Tropic of Cancer, towards the equatorial low-pressure belt. The winds are deflected to the right according to Ferret’s law. Thus, they blow from the northeastern direction.
  2. South-east trade winds: These winds blow from the sub-tropical high-pressure belt of the southern hemisphere near the Tropic of Capricorn, towards the equatorial low-pressure belt. The winds are deflected towards the left according to Ferrel’s law, and thus they blow from the south-eastern direction.

Characteristics:

  1. The speed of trade winds is slower in the northern hemisphere (15-25 km/hr) due to the presence of more landmasses.
  2. The speed of these winds is greater in the southern hemisphere (25-35 km/hr) due to the presence of more water bodies,
  3. The winds blow between 0°and 30° N and S latitudes throughout the year, [iv] A number of deserts have been formed in the path of the trade winds. Examples— Sahara, Thar, Kalahari, Atacama, etc.

2. Westerly winds:

The winds blowing from the sub-tropical high-pressure belts towards the sub-polar low-pressure belts in both the northern and southern hemispheres throughout the year are called westerly winds, or westerlies.

The westerlies are of two types

1. South-west westerlies:

The winds blowing from the sub-tropical high-pressure belt near the Tropic of Cancer towards the subpolar low-pressure belt near the Arctic Circle in the northern hemisphere throughout the year, are called southwest westerlies. According to Ferrel’s law, they are deflected toward the right.

North-west westerlies:
The winds blowing from the sub-tropical high-pressure belt near the Tropic of Capricorn towards the sub-polar low-pressure belt near the Antarctic Circle in the southern hemisphere throughout the year, are called north-west westerlies. According to Ferrel’s law, these winds are deflected toward the left.

Characteristics:

  1. The winds are named westerlies as they blow from the west,
  2. They blow between 30° and 60°N and S latitudes in both hemispheres,
  3. The westerlies cause more rainfall on the western margins of the continents than the east,
  4. Less rainfall on the eastern margins of the continents has led to the formation of vast grasslands in the temperate region.

E.g.—Prairies in North America, Pampas in South America, Steppe in Russia and Europe, Downs in Australia, and Veld in South Africa.

3. Polar winds: The winds that blow from the high-pressure belts around the poles towards the sub-polar low-pressure belts in both hemispheres are called polar winds. The polar winds are of two types—

North-east polar winds: The winds that blow from the polar high-pressure belt around the North Pole towards the sub-polar low-pressure belt near the Arctic in the northern hemisphere are called northeast polar winds. They are deflected towards the right according to Ferrel’s law.

South-east polar winds: The winds that blow from the high-pressure belt around the South Pole towards the sub-polar low-pressure belt near the Antarctic Circle in the southern hemisphere are called southeast polar winds. They are deflected towards the left according to Ferrel’s law.

Characteristics:

  1. Polar winds are extremely cold and dry.
  2. The influence of these winds is more actively felt during the winter,
  3. Polar winds cause snowfall and a little rainfall on the eastern margins of the continents. They cause severe blizzards near the Arctic and Antarctic Circles.

WBBSE Class 10 Geography And Environment Chapter 2 Atmosphere Earth surface

Question 31. Describe the various periodic winds
Answer:

Periodic winds: The winds that blow regularly for a certain period of time over a certain region due to differences in pressure conditions are called periodic winds.

Periodic winds are of three types—

  1. Sea breeze,
  2. Land breeze and
  3. Seasonal winds.

1. Sea breeze: In the coastal regions during Seabreeze Land breeze; Seasonal winds daytime, the land gets heated faster than the sea.

Thus, the air adjacent to the land also gets heated, expands, becomes light, and tends to rise upwards, This creates a vacuum on the land, leading to low-pressure conditions.

The air over the sea Is comparatively cooler and denser, Hence, a high-pressure condition prevails over the sea. Winds rush from this high-pressure region towards the low-pressure region on the land. This is known as the sea breeze.

WBBSE Class 10 Geography And Environment Chapter 2 Atmosphere Sea Breeze

2. Land breeze: In the coastal regions during the night, the land radiates the heat very fast and cools down. The sea remains warmer, and the air over the sea also becomes warmer, and lighter and tends to rise upwards. Thus, low-pressure conditions are created over the sea.

The land is comparatively cooler, and the air adjacent to it is cool and heavy. This air rushes towards the low-pressure region over the land. This is known as the land breeze

WBBSE Class 10 Geography And Environment Chapter 2 Atmosphere Land Breeze

3. Seasonal winds: Seasonal winds are caused due to differential heating of the land and water bodies in different seasons, During summers, low-pressure cells are created over the land surface, which draws winds from the sea.

During winter, high-pressure conditions are created over land, from where winds blow toward the sea. In India, the periodic seasonal winds are known as monsoon winds. The southwest monsoon winds blow during summer and the northeast monsoon winds blow during winter.

Question 32. Discuss the occasional winds. OR, What are cyclones and anticyclones? Discuss them briefly.
Answer:
Occasional winds:
The winds that occur suddenly due to sudden differences caused by atmospheric pressure conditions are called occasional winds. There is no regularity of their occurrence.

They may last for a few hours or a few days They are classified into two types—

  1.  Cyclones and
  2.  Anticyclones.

1. Cyclones: If a low-pressure cell is created suddenly due to some reason, the cool and heavy winds around the low-pressure cell rush in to balance the pressure conditions in circular motions with great speed. These are called cyclones.

The direction of winds: The cyclones blow in the anti-clockwise direction in the northern hemisphere and in the clockwise direction in the southern hemisphere.

Classification: Cyclones can be classified into two types—

1. Tropical cyclones: In both the northern and southern hemispheres, especially between 16° and 24° latitudes, the temperatures over the sea may rise so much during summers that the adjacent air masses get hot, become lighter, expand, and tend to rise upwards. This creates a deep low-pressure cell.

Cooler and heavier winds from the surrounding regions rush at high speeds towards this center of low pressure in circular motions. These are called tropical cyclones.

Cyclones are known by different names in different countries. E.g.—typhoons in the East and South China sea; hurricanes in the Caribbean sea; Tornado or Twister in the central USA.

2. Temperate cyclones: In the northern and southern hemispheres between 35° and 65° latitudes, two contrasting air masses of different physical properties meet with each other.

The line along which warm sub-tropical air mass and cold polar air mass meet with each other is called a front. The cold air tends to move downwards and the warm air tries to move upwards.

As the warm air enters the cold air, it gains speed and rises upwards in a circular motion. In this way a temperate cyclone forms.

2. Anticyclones: In the temperate and frigid zones in both northern and southern hemispheres, sometimes a high-pressure cell is created due to severe cold and concentration of air.

Cold and dry winds blow out from the high-pressure cell towards the surrounding low-pressure regions in circular motions.

These are called anticyclones. In the northern hemisphere, the anticyclones move in a clockwise direction, and in the southern hemisphere, it moves in an anticlockwise direction. The winds move from the center outwards and descend downwards.

WBBSE Class 10 Geography And Environment Chapter 2 Atmosphere cyclones and anti cyclones

Question 33.  What are planetary winds? Describe the trade winds.
Answer:

Planetary winds: The winds blowing from the high-pressure belts towards the low-pressure belts of the earth throughout the year in a fixed direction, are called planetary winds.

There are three kinds of planetary winds—

  1. Trade winds,
  2. Westerly winds and
  3. Polar winds.

1. Trade winds: The planetary winds blowing from the sub-tropical high-pressure belt towards the equatorial low-pressure belt in both hemispheres are called the trade winds. These winds blow from the eastern direction and hence are also called easterly winds or easterlies. In early times, these winds helped ships to sail in the tropical regions for trade and business. Thus, they were named ‘Trade winds’.

Classification: Trade winds can be classified into two types

1. North-east trade winds: These winds blow from the sub-tropical high-pressure belt near the Tropic and Cancer in the northern hemisphere towards the equatorial low-pressure belt. The winds are deflected and Scanned towards the right according to Ferrel’s Law and blow from the northeast.

2. South-east trade winds: These winds blow from the subtropical high-pressure belt near the Tropic of Capricorn in the southern hemisphere towards the equatorial low-pressure belt. The winds are deflected towards the left according to Ferrel’s Law, and blow from the southeast.

Characteristics:

  1. The speed of the trade winds is less in the northern hemisphere due to the presence of more landmasses (15-25 km/hr),
  2. In the southern hemisphere, the speed of the trade winds is more (25-35 km/ hr) due to the presence of more water bodies,
  3. The trade winds blow between 0° and 30° latitudes in both the northern and southern hemispheres,
  4. The winds blow from the tropical to the equatorial region. Thus, the winds become warm, and their moisture-holding capacity increase.

Influence on climate:

  1. In the northern hemisphere, the trade winds fail to provide enough rainfall,
  2. In the southern hemisphere, the winds gather moisture from the sea (due to evaporation) and cause rainfall,
  3. The trade winds cause rainfall along the eastern margin of the continents and become dry as they move westwards. Thus, several hot deserts have been formed on the western
  4. side of the continents in the tropical region. E.g.— Sahara, Kalahari, Thar, Atacama, etc.

Question 34. What are Local winds? Describe some of them.
Answer:

Local winds:

Local winds: The winds that are generated over a region due to local geographical and environmental factors that create a difference in temperature and pressure conditions of the atmosphere are called local winds. The local winds are broadly classified as hot winds and cold winds.

1. Loo: In India, during summer, the northwestern region becomes too hot in the daytime. The air adjacent to this region also gets heated and starts blowing parallel to the earth’s surface at great speed. This very hot and dry wind is called Loo. Loo commonly blows over Delhi, Rajasthan, western Uttar Pradesh, etc.

The velocity of the wind decreases during the evening. The wind is so hot that the heat often kills people and cattle.

2. Foehn: The Foehn blows along the northern slopes of the Alps mountains in Europe and enters the valley of the river Rhine. Warm and dry air follows the down-slope of the Alps mountains and starts descending with speed. The temperature of the wind increases with the downward movement.

This warm, dry wind is known as Foehn. This wind can raise temperatures by as much as 15°C in just a matter of minutes and cause the snow to melt. The snow meltwater helps in the growth of vast grasslands in the valleys of the Alps mountains.

3. Chinook: In North America, the warm and dry wind descending along the eastern slopes of the Rocky Mountains is known as Chinook. ‘Chinook’ means snow-eater. This warm and dry wind melts the snow lying in the foothill regions of the Prairies in winter.

4. Sirocco and Khamsin: In Africa, during the summer, very hot, dry, dusty winds generate over the Sahara desert and blow towards the Mediterranean Sea in the north. Such winds are called Sirocco in Sicily and Khamsin in Egypt.

5. Nor’westers: This is a hot, humid local wind blowing over eastern India (Jharkhand, Odisha, Bihar, West Bengal and Assam) and Bangladesh during the summer season in the months of April-May. The wind generates from the Chotanagpur plateau region of Jharkhand. It causes thunderstorms, lightning, and little rainfall.

6. Aandhi: In the plains of north-western India, a hot dry dusty storm blows during the summer due to sudden pressure changes caused by extreme heating. This dust storm is known as ‘Gandhi’. The wind may blow at a speed of 70-100 km/hr and reduces visibility due to the huge amount of dust present in the air.

7. Mistral: This is a cold local wind. This wind generates in the Alps and blows over the valley of river Rhone in France. This wind causes the temperature of the Rhone valley to drop considerably.

8. Pampero: The cold dry wind blowing over the Pampas grasslands from the Andes mountains in South America, is called Pampero.

9. Bora: In Europe, during the winter, a cold dry wind blows from the Alps mountains towards the Adriatic sea coast. This is known as Bora. This wind decreases the temperature of the Adriatic coast considerably.

Question 35.  Describe the westerly winds.
Answer:

Westerlies:

The planetary winds blowing from the sub-tropical high-pressure belts towards the sub-polar low-pressure belts In both hemispheres are called westerly winds.

1. South-west westerlies:

  • In the northern hemisphere, the wind blowing from the sub-tropical high-pressure belt near the Tropic of Cancer towards the sub-polar low-pressure belt near the Arctic Circle is known as the southwest westerlies.
  • According to Ferrel’s law, these winds are deflected towards the right.

2. North-west westerlies:

  • In the southern hemisphere, the wind blowing from the sub-tropical high-pressure belt near the Tropic of
  • Capricorn towards the sub-polar low-pressure belt near the Antarctic Circle is known as the north-west westerlies.

According to Ferrel’s law, these winds are deflected toward the left.

Characteristics:

  • The winds are called westerlies as they blow from the west.
  • The winds blow between 30° and 60° latitudes in both hemispheres.
  • The winds are stronger in the southern hemisphere than in the northern hemisphere. Due to the tremendous speed of the winds, the latitudes have been named as ‘Roaring Forties’, ‘Furious Fifties’ and ‘Shrieking Sixties’

Influence on climate:

  • Cyclones and anticyclones occur in regions influenced by westerlies.
  • The winds are more active in winter than in summer.
  • The westerlies cause rainfall on the western margin of the continents.
  • Rainfall reduces as the winds none towards the east. Thus vast grasslands are created in the temperate region.

Example:

Prairies in North America Pampas in South America, Steppes in Russia and Europe, Downs in Australia and Veld in South Africa.

Question 36. Differentiate between temperate and tropical cyclones.
Answer:

The differences between temperate and tropical cyclones are-

WBBSE Class 10 Geography And Environment Chapter 2 Atmosphere The differences between temperate and tropical cyclones

Question 37.  Discuss the relationship of the planetary winds with the pressure belts of the world. OR, Classify the planetary winds based on the relation with the pressure belts of the world. OR, Why are the planetary winds related to the pressure belts of the world?
Answer:

Relation of planetary winds with world pressure belts: They are seven pressure belts found on the earth’s surface.

They are—

  1. Equatorial low-pressure belt.
  2. Sub-tropical high-pressure belt of the northern hemisphere.
  3. Sub-tropical high-pressure belt of the southern hemisphere.
  4. Sub-polar low-pressure belt of the
  5. northern hemisphere
  6. Sub-polar low-pressure belt of the southern hemisphere.
  7. The polar high-pressure belt around the North Pole.
  8. The polar high-pressure belt around the South Pole.

The winds always blow from the high-pressure regions toward the low-pressure regions. As these pressure belts exist on the surface of the earth permanently, they induce certain permanent winds to blow from the high-pressure belts towards the low-pressure belts permanently throughout the year.

These winds are called planetary/winds. The planetary winds are classified into three types—

  1. Trade winds,
  2. Westerly winds and
  3. Polar winds.

1. Trade winds: The winds that blow from the sub-tropical high-pressure belts in either hemisphere towards the equatorial low-pressure belt throughout the year, are called trade winds. Trade winds are of two types—

North-east trade winds:

  • These winds blow from the sub-tropical high-pressure belt of the northern hemisphere near the Tropic of Cancer, towards the equatorial low-pressure belt. The winds are deflected to the right according to Ferret’s law.
  • Thus, they blow from the northeastern direction.
  • South-east trade winds: These winds blow from the sub-tropical high-pressure belt of the southern hemisphere near the Tropic of Capricorn, towards the equatorial low-pressure belt.
  • The winds are deflected towards the left according to Ferrel’s law, and thus they blow from the south-eastern direction.

Characteristics:

  • The speed of trade winds is slower in the northern hemisphere (15-25 km/hr) due to the presence of more landmasses.
  • The speed of these winds is greater in the southern hemisphere (25-35 km/hr) due to the presence of more water bodies,
  • The winds blow between 0°and 30° N and S latitudes throughout the year, [iv] A number of deserts have been formed in the path of the trade winds. Example— Sahara, Thar, Kalahari, Atacama, etc.

2. Westerly winds:

The winds blowing from the sub-tropical high-pressure belts towards the sub-polar low-pressure belts in both the
northern and southern hemispheres throughout the year are called westerly winds, or westerlies.

The westerlies are of two types—

1. South-west westerlies:

  • The winds blowing from the sub-tropical high-pressure belt near the Tropic of Cancer towards the subpolar low-pressure belt near the Arctic Circle in the northern hemisphere throughout the year, are called southwest westerlies.
  • According to Ferrel’s law, they are deflected toward the right.

North-west westerlies:

  • The winds blowing from the sub-tropical high-pressure belt near the Tropic of Capricorn towards the sub-polar low-pressure belt near the Antarctic Circle in the southern hemisphere throughout the year, are called north-west westerlies.
  • According to Ferrel’s law, these winds are deflected toward the left.

North-west westerlies Characteristics:

  • The winds are named westerlies as they blow from the west,
  • They blow between 30° and 60°N and S latitudes in both hemispheres,
  • The westerlies cause more rainfall on the western margins of the continents than the east,
  • Less rainfall on the eastern margins of the continents has led to the formation of vast grasslands in the temperate region.

Example: Prairies in North America, Pampas in South America, Steppe in Russia and Europe, Downs in Australia, and Veld in South Africa.

3. Polar winds:

The winds that blow from the high-pressure belts around the poles towards the sub-polar low-pressure belts in both hemispheres are called polar winds.

The polar winds are of two types:

North-east polar winds:

  • The winds that blow from the polar high-pressure belt around the North Pole towards the sub-polar low-pressure belt near the Arctic in the northern hemisphere are called northeast polar winds.
  • They are deflected towards the right according to Ferrel’s law.

South-east polar winds:

  • The winds that blow from the high-pressure belt around the South Pole towards the sub-polar low-pressure belt near the Antarctic Circle in the southern hemisphere are called southeast polar winds.
  • They are deflected towards the left according to Ferrel’s law.

Characteristics:

  1. Polar winds are extremely cold and dry.
  2. The influence of these winds is more actively felt during the winter,
  3. Polar winds cause snowfall and a little rainfall on the eastern margins of the continents. They cause severe blizzards near the Arctic and Antarctic Circles.

Question 38.  Differentiate between trade winds and westerly winds.
Answer:

The differences between trade winds and westerly winds are as follows:

WBBSE Class 10 Geography And Environment Chapter 2 Atmosphere trade winds and westerly winds

Question 39. Classify different types of winds and give examples.
Answer:

Winds are classified as follows:

 

WBBSE Solutions Class 10 geography and environment chapter 2 atmosphere arevage annual classification of winds

Question 40. What are isohyets?
Answer:

Isohyets

  • The isohyets are imaginary lines drawn on maps to join places that receive equal amounts of rainfall.
  • The isohyets help to understand the distribution of rainfall through the earth’s

WBBSE Class 10 Geography And Environment Chapter 2 Atmosphere atmosphereric isohyets

Question 41. What is smog?
Answer:

Smog

  • When the fog particles mix with the smoke of the lower atmosphere, especially in urban and industrial regions, a hazy condition is created, which affects visibility.
  • This is known as smog (smoke + fog). Smog is created due to the presence of smoke, carbon particles, and dust particles in the sky. This is very harmful to health.

WBBSE Class 10 Geography And Environment Chapter 2 Atmosphere Smog

Question 42. What is a rain shadow area? v OR, How is a rain shadow area created?
Answer:

Rain shadow area

  • The slope of the mountain that receives very less rainfall or sometimes no rainfall is called the rain shadow area. In a mountainous area, the moisture-laden winds collide against the windward slope.
  • The moist air ends to rise along the slope, where it gets condensed and gives heavy amounts of orographic rainfall. As the winds become light after shedding the rainfall, they rise even more and cross the mountains.
  • On the leeward slope, these winds provide very less or almost no rainfall.
  • This region is called the rain shadow area.

Example: —The eastern slope of the Western Ghats.

WBBSE Class 10 Geography And Environment Chapter 2 Atmosphere RAin shadow

Question 43. Why does orographic rainfall occur on the western slope of the western ghats?
Answer:

  • The Arabian Sea branch of the southwest monsoon winds blow over the Arabian Sea and collide with the western slope of the Western Ghats.
  • These winds tend to rise along the western slope, where they are cooled and the water vapor condenses. This causes heavy rainfall.
  • As the moisture-laden winds cause rainfall after collision with the western slope of the Western Ghats, this rainfall is known as orographic rainfall.

WBBSE Class 10 Geography And Environment Chapter 2 Atmosphere Westren Ghats

Question 44. Differentiate between relative humidity and absolute humidity.
Answer:

The differences between relative humidity and absolute humidity are:

WBBSE Class 10 Geography And Environment Chapter 2 Atmosphere Humidity and absolute humidity

Question 45. Differentiate between cloud and fog.
Answer:

The difference between cloud and fog are-

WBBSE Class 10 Geography And Environment Chapter 2 Atmosphere Difference between Cloud and Fog

Question 46. What do you mean by global warming?
Answer:

Global warming:

  • The phenomenon of increase of the earth’s temperature gradually is known as global warming. The earth receives solar radiation through short waves and gets heated.
  • This heat is transferred through the atmosphere by long waves and finally released into outer space. But excessive emission of greenhouse gases like CFCs, carbon dioxide, etc. creates a transparent film of gases that prevent the escape of these long waves.
  • Thus, heat is retained in the atmosphere and the result is global warming. Radiated energy (longwave terrestrial radiation) into space is partly absorbed and partly reemitted by  the earth

WBBSE Class 10 Geography And Environment Chapter 2 Atmosphere Global Warming

Question 47. What are horse latitudes?
Answer:

Horse latitudes

In both the northern and southern hemispheres, at 30°-35°C latitudes, high pressure prevails due to the sinking of heavy and cold air over this region. Hence, there is no movement of wind felt in this region, and a calm condition prevails.

Horse latitude:

  • In the early days, the ships that used to sail from Europe to North America and West Indian islands with horses, used to lose their speed while crossing this calm region.
  • Then, the sailors used to throw away some horses into the sea in order to reduce weight and consumption of food and water.
  • This helped the ships to sail forward with the help of whatever little wind blowing. Due to this incident, the sub-tropical calm region between 30° and 35° latitudes came to be known as horse latitudes.

WBBSE Class 10 Geography And Environment Chapter 2 Atmosphere Horse Latitudes

Question 48.  Why do the pressure belts shift at certain times of the year?
Answer:

  • On the earth’s surface there are three low f pressure belts and four high-pressure belts. These belts are generally fixed in their locations, but at certain times of the year, they seem to deviate for a few degrees northwards and southwards.
  • This is known as the shifting of pressure belts.

Belts shift  Causes:

Due to the revolution of the earth, the sun apparently moves northwards and southwards. Thus, the thermal equator or the heat equator also shifts accordingly.

WBBSE Class 10 Geography And Environment Chapter 2 Atmosphere shifting of pressure

  • When it is summer in the northern hemisphere, the thermal equator and all the pressure belts move 5°-10° towards the north. During winter in the northern hemisphere, the thermal equator as well as all the pressure belts move 5°-10° towards the south.
  • Generally, the shifting of pressure belts is more prominent in the lower latitudes than the higher latitudes.

Question 49. What do you mean by cloudiness?
Answer:

Cloudiness

  • The amount of cloud cover in the sky is known as cloudiness. An okta is a unit of measurement used to describe the amount of cloud cover at any given location.
  • The sky is divided into 8 parts and the amount of cloudiness is measured in terms of how many eights of the sky are covered in cloud. Cloudiness is represented on weather maps with the help of certain symbols.

WBBSE Class 10 Geography And Environment Chapter 2 Symbols representing clouds

Question 50.  What is smog? How is it created?
Answer:

Smog

  • Smog is the combination of smoke and fog. In large cities and urban centers, the sky remains filled with smoke, carbon particles, and other solid chemical particles that float as aerosols in the air.
  • These particles act as the media of condensation. Early in the morning, the atmospheric water vapor condenses on these floating particles and creates a hazy sight.
  • The smoke emitted by vehicles and industries adds up to this and reduces visibility even more. This is known as smog. Smog is harmful to health as it contains pollutants coming from vehicles and industries.

Example: Shanghai and Beijing in China, industrial towns and cities in Europe, etc. are affected by dense smog.

Question 51.  How is rainfall measured?
Answer:

Rainfall is measured with the help of a ‘Rain gauge’. The instrument comprises a graduated cylinder, fitted inside a large outer cylinder with a wide funnel on top.

  • The instrument is kept in an open area that receives no other source of water apart from the rainfall. After every 24 hours or any fixed interval, the reading is taken to record the amount of rainfall.
  • The excess amount of rainwater overflows into the outer cylinder which is poured into another graduated cylinder. This reading is added to the previous one to record the total rainfall.

WBBSE Class 10 Geography And Environment Chapter 2 Atmosphere measurement of rainfall

Question 52.  Why are fog and dew not considered precipitation?
Answer:

In precipitation, the water vapor present in the rising air condenses with a gain in altitude due to cooling. Thus, they come down as rainfall or snowfall.

  • Dew is not formed from any rising air that carries water vapor. Due to radiation throughout the night, the air becomes cold and whatever water vapor is present in the lower layers of the air gets condensed on the cold surface of grasses, leaves, rooftops, etc.
  • Thus, it is not precipitation.
  • Fog is formed when the earth radiates back heat throughout the night, especially in winter. The air adjacent to the earth’s surface also cools down and the water vapor present in the air settles on the dust particles and condenses.
  • They form so little droplets that they remain floating in the air, thus reducing visibility.
  • As fog is not– dropped from the atmosphere maximum rate of evaporation and decreasing amount towards the earth’s surface, it is not considered precipitation.

WBBSE Class 10 Geography And Environment Chapter 2 Atmosphere Fog

WBBSE Class 10 Geography And Environment Chapter 2 Atmosphere Dew

Question 53. Where is the Tundra climate found in the world? Mention its characteristics.
Answer:

Tundra climate is found between 65″N- 80°N and 60°S-75°S latitudes. The regions where Tundra climate exists are—The coastal regions of the Arctic Ocean in Canada, Greenland, Europe, and Russia.

Characteristics:

  1. The temperature remains below the freezing point for about 8-9 months in a year.
  2. The maximum temperature recorded during the summer season is about 10°C.
  3. Snowfall is predominant in this region instead of rainfall due to very low temperatures.

WBBSE Class 10 Geography And Environment Chapter 2 Atmosphere Atmosphere location of tundra and stephere climate zones

Question 54. Where is the steppe climate found in the world? mention its characteristics.
Answer:

Steppe climate is found between 30° latitudes in both the northern and southern hemispheres.

The regions experiencing such climate are:

  • Prairie region of North America.
  • Pampas region of South America.
  • Eurasia.
  • Veld of South Africa.
  • Downs of Australia.

Characteristics:

  • The average summer temperature remains around 16-20°C.
  • The average winter temperature remains around 5-8°C.
  • The annual range of temperature is quite large.
  • The summers are hot and humid, the winters are dry.
  • The average annual rainfall varies from 25-75 cm. This helps in the growth of grasslands over extensive areas.
  • Snowfall occurs sometimes in winter.
  • The grasslands in the southern hemisphere enjoy maritime or moderate climates due to the influence of the oceans.

Question 55. Where is the marine west coast climate experienced In the world? What are its characteristics?
Answer:

The marine west coast climate is found between 40 and 65° latitudes in both the northern and southern hemispheres. The north-western part of Europe (western Norway, Denmark, etc.), a few places in the USA, the southwest coast of Chile, southeast coast of Australia experience such climate.

Characteristics:

  • The average summer temperature remains around 16°C.
  • The average winter temperature remains around 4°C.
  • The general climate is moderate or maritime.
  • Rainfall occurs mainly by the influence of westerly winds. The average annual rainfall is about 75-100 cm.
  • Sometimes snowfall occurs in winter.

Question 16 Where is China’s type of climate found in the world? What are its characteristics?
Answer:

The China type of climate is found between 20 and 40° latitudes in both northern and southern hemispheres along the eastern parts of the continents.

The regions under this climatic type are—

  • Southern and southeastern China.
  • Eastern coast of Australia.
  • The south-eastern part of the USA.
  • South-eastern parts of Brazil, Paraguay, and Uruguay.

Climate found Characteristics:

  • Summers are hot and humid and the winters are mild.
  • The average summer temperature is around 24-26°C.
  • The average winter temperature is around 6.6-10°C.
  • Rainfall occurs during summer under the influence of sea breeze.
  • The average annual rainfall is 100-150 cm.

WBBSE Solutions Class 10 geography and environment chapter 2 atmosphere atmosphereric climate zones

Question 56.  Where is a continental climate found in the world? What are its characteristics?
Answer:

The continental climate is found between 30 and 65°N latitudes in the northern hemisphere.

The regions receiving such climate are—

  1. Lake region of USA,
  2. Russia, Ukraine, and central Europe,
  3. Manchuria and Sakhalin islands

Continental climate found Characteristics:

  • The average summer temperature remains quite high (20-25°C).
  • The average maximum temperature recorded in the winter is 2-5°C.
  • The temperature remains below 0°C during most of the days in winter.
  • Snowfall occurs during winter. Heavy snowfall occurs for at least 60-80 days a year.
  • The average annual rainfall is 50-100 cm.
  • The range of average annual temperature is very large.

Question 57. Where is a wet temperate climate found in the world? Mention its characteristics.
Answer:

The wet temperate climate is found in the region between 55 and 65° latitudes in both the northern and southern hemispheres.

The regions that experience this climate are—

  1. The northern part of Eurasia, south of the Tundra region.
  2. North America, south of the Tundra region.

Temperate climate found Characteristics:

  • The summer season lasts for about 3 months when the average temperature remains around 10°C.
  • The temperature remains below the freezing point for most of the days in winter.
  • The average annual rainfall is about 20-25 cm.
  • Most of the rainfall occurs during summer.
  • Snowfall occurs during winter.
  • The range of temperature between summer and winter is quite large, which shows that the climate is of the extreme continental type.

WBBSE Class 10 Geography And Environment Chapter 2 Atmosphere Short Question And Answers

WBBSE Chapter 2 Atmosphere Short Question And Answers

Question 1. What may happen due to the creation of the ozone hole?
Answer:

  • Importance of the ozone layer: The ozone layer protects the earth like an umbrella from the harmful ultraviolet rays of the sun. It saves plant and animal life from decay and diseases.
  • The consequence of the ozone hole: The creation of an ozone hole will allow the harmful ultraviolet rays of the sun to enter the earth’s atmosphere. This will cause several diseases like skin cancer, damage of the cornea of the eyes, infertility, skin diseases, death of fishes and other aquatic life, wilting of leaves of plants, etc.

Question 2. Write the effects of depletion of the ozone layer.
Answer:

The effects of depletion of the ozone layer:

The ozone layer is being gradually depleted by CFCs, nitrogen oxide, sulfate compounds, etc.

The effects of ozone layer depletion are—

  • On climate: The depletion of the ozone layer allows the harmful ultraviolet rays of the sun to enter the earth’s atmosphere. This causes global warming, which further leads to the depletion of the ozone layer.
  • On human beings: The depletion of the ozone layer causes skin cancer and other skin diseases, reduces fertility, damages the cornea of the eyes, etc.
  • On ecosystem: The ecosystem is also hampered due to ozone layer depletion. Plants lose productive capacities. Many small animals may get extinct.

Question 3. Why do jet planes fly through the stratosphere?
Answer:

  • The jet planes fly through the stratosphere because—

    The stratosphere is free of water vapor and weather phenomena like winds, thunderstorms, rainfall, etc. The very fine dust particles present here do not hamper the flying of planes.
  • This layer is practically devoid of air and there is very little friction and no disturbances in the atmosphere.
  • The presence of jet streams in the tropopause also helps in saving costly aviation fuel because jet streams propel jet planes to fly easily following them.

Question 4. How is the ozone layer contracting?
Answer:

The ozone layer contracting:

  • The excessive emission of chlorofluorocarbons, nitrogen oxide, sulfur dioxide, and other greenhouse gases is harming the ozone layer. Big holes have been detected in this layer especially, over the Antarctic region.
  • According to scientists, the creation of ozone holes may lead to diseases such as skin cancer, damage to the cornea of the eyes, etc. due to the ultraviolet rays reaching the earth’s surface

Question 5. Why are days very hot and nights very
Answer:

The days are very hot and the nights are very cold in hot desert regions because—

  • The clear sky in hot desert regions allows solar radiation to reach the earth’s surface and heat it up fast. Thus, sands present in the desert regions get heated up fast and accordingly heat up the atmosphere. Thus, the temperature rises very high during the daytime.
  • After the sun sets, the sands of the deserts radiate back heat very fast. Due to the clear sky, the heat is released into space very fast and the sand cools down. This makes the nights cold in the hot desert regions.

Question 6. Why are cloudless nights cooler than cloudy nights?
Answer:

  • The cloud cover of the sky prevents the insolation to reach the earth’s surface during the daytime and terrestrial radiation of the solar energy into space in the afternoon. This makes the days comparatively cooler and the nights comparatively warmer in cloudy conditions.
  • On the other hand, if the sky is clear and cloudless, the insolation heats up the atmosphere very much during the daytime and the energy is fully radiated back during the night. Thus, the days seem to be warmer and the nights seem to be cooler.

Question 7. Mention the factors that influence the heat budget of the earth.
Answer:

The amount of solar energy received by the earth, or the heat budget of the earth is maintained by the following factors—

1. Angle of incidence of sun’s rays: The lower latitudes receive perpendicular rays of the sun and the rays become inclined as the latitudes increase. Thus, the equatorial region and lower latitudes receive more heat than the higher latitudes and polar regions.

2. Distance between the earth and the sun: The earth moves around the sun in an elliptical orbit. Hence, sometimes the distance between the sun and the earth decreases and sometimes increases. This affects the amount of heat received by the earth’s surface.

3. Length of day and night: The regions which have longer daytime receive more solar energy than the regions which have longer nights.

Question 8. Mention the different methods of calculating and recording the temperature of a place.
Answer:

The different methods of calculating and recording the temperature of a place

Temperature is recorded by the thermometer. Generally, the Six’s maximum and the minimum thermometer are used to record the maximum and minimum temperatures of the day of a particular place.

This is also used to calculate the—

  1. Average daily temperature = Highest temperature of the day + Lowest temperature of the day.
  2. Average annual temperature = Total of the monthly average temperatures
  3. Range of temperature = Highest temperature – The lowest temperature

Question 9. Why does Mt. Kilimanjaro remain snow-covered even though it is located on the equator? OR, Why does the capital of Ecuador, Quito have a subtropical highland climate?
Answer:

Mt. Kilimanjaro is located on the equator and is 5.9 km in altitude. The average temperature of the equatorial region is 27°C. By the lapse rate, the average temperature of the peak of Mt. Kilimanjaro is 27°C – (6.4°C x 5.9) = -10.76°C. Thus, Mt. Kilimanjaro remains snow-covered throughout the year.

  • The capital of Ecuador, Quito is located in the equatorial region at 2.8 km above mean sea level. The average temperature of the equatorial region is 27°C.
  • Thus, by the lapse rate, the average temperature of Quito is 27°C – (6.4°C x 2.8) = 9.08°C. Thus, Quito enjoys a sub-tropical highland climate.

Question 10. Why does the water of the Baltic Sea freeze but water around the British Isles does not freeze in spite of both lying along the same latitude?
Answer:

  • The latitude at which the British Isles as well as the Baltic Sea lies, makes the region very cold. Thus, it is very natural for water to freeze.
  • But the warm Gulf Stream passing along the coast of the British Isles keeps the water warm and prevents it from freezing during winter.
  • On the other hand, the Baltic Sea is surrounded by land, and no warm current flows through it. Thus, the water becomes very cold and freezes during winter.

Question 11.  Why do landmasses get heated faster than water bodies?
Answer:

Landmasses get heated faster than water bodies because of the following reasons—

  1. The heat received by water bodies is transferred to the depths by the convectional currents. No such convectional currents work on landmasses.
  2. The absorption of solar energy is lower over water bodies than landmasses. Thus, landmasses get heated quicker than water bodies.
  3. The amount of energy required to heat up per unit volume of water by 1°C is about three times the energy required to heat up per unit volume of landmasses by 1°C. Thus, if the same amount of energy is supplied, landmasses get heated faster than water bodies.
  4. Water being transparent, solar energy penetrates up to 200m depth and distributes the heat. Land being opaque, heat gets concentrated on the surface only.

Question 12.  Discuss the causes of global warming.
Answer:

The major causes of global warming are—

1. Excessive use of fossil fuels: The excessive use of fossil fuels in vehicles, industries, and thermal power plants is increasing the level of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere. The gas absorbs much heat and Increases the temperature of the earth.

2. Emission of methane gas: Methane is a greenhouse gas emitted from wetlands, waterlogged rice fields, decaying organic matter, excreta of domestic animals, etc. This plays an important role in increasing the temperature of the earth.

3. Deforestation: Reckless cutting down of trees leads to deforestation. This is gradually increasing the percentage of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere, which is a greenhouse gas. The concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere is increasing the earth’s temperature and causing global warming.

4. Emission of nitrous oxide: The use of nitrogen-rich fertilizers in agriculture, forest fires, etc. emits a huge quantity of nitrous oxide (N20), which leads to global warming.

5. CFC gases: The use of refrigerators, air; conditioners, electronic gadgets, body sprays, cosmetics, etc. increase the use of chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) which is one of the major causes of global warming.

Question 13. What is El Nino? Discuss its influences.
Answer:

El Nino:

El Nino is a southward-moving warm current of the Pacific Ocean which flows along the western coasts of Peru and Ecuador. El Nino causes a considerable rise in the air temperature of the eastern Pacific Ocean.

Influences or effects:

  1. El Nino causes heavy rainfall in the coastal areas of Peru and Ecuador that often leads to flooding.
  2. Dry weather persists in the Amazon basin, Central America and Australia. This often causes forest fires.
  3. According to climatologists, El Nino also influences the circulation of the monsoon winds. Hence, in the years when El Nino Occurs, India experiences droughts, The desert regions of Chile and Peru experience floods.
  4. The warm effect of El Nino kills the coral polyps and other marine creatures.
  5. El Nino results in a rise in general temperature and a decrease in rainfall in southeast Asia.

Question 14. What is La Nina? Discuss its influence.
Answer:

La Nina:

The opposite condition of El Nino is known as La Nina. During this time, the surface temperature of the Pacific Ocean in the coastal areas of Peru and Ecuador decreases by 49C or more.

Influence or effects:

  1. La Nina causes heavy rainfall along the western coast of the Pacific Ocean.
  2. The western coast of South America experiences droughts.
  3. Dry weather persists in the USA.
  4. Canada experiences chilling cold and heavy snowfall.

Question 15. Why does the atmosphere get heated?
Answer:

The chief source of heat in the atmosphere is the sun. Solar energy reaches the earth’s surface and heats it up. This heat is transmitted into the atmosphere by the processes of conduction, convection, and radiation. Apart from this, the absorption of the ultraviolet rays by the ozone layer in the Stratosphere also heats up the atmosphere considerably.

Question 16. Discuss the characteristics of air temperature as found in different regions of the earth.
Answer:

The characteristics of air temperature in different parts of the earth are as follows—

  1. Air is warmest at the equator and coldest at the poles in both the northern and southern hemispheres.
  2. The temperature in the equatorial region remains almost the same throughout the year.
  3. Although the polar regions remain very cold throughout the year, differences in air temperature between summer and winter can be seen.
  4. The revolution of the earth around the sun results in the highest temperature in the northern hemisphere in July and that in the southern hemisphere in January. Reverse conditions are found during winter.
  5. Temperature decreases by 6.4°C for every 1000 m rise in altitude. This is known as the normal lapse rate.
  6. Winds are warmer along coasts where warm ocean currents flow, and cooler along coasts where cold ocean currents flow.
  7. If a warm wind blows over an area, the temperature increases and vice versa.

Question 17. How is air temperature measured?
Answer:

Air temperature measured:

Air temperature is measured by the thermometer in degrees Celsius (°C) and degrees Fahrenheit (°F). The Six’s maximum and the minimum thermometer are used to measure the maximum and minimum temperature of a day. This is used to calculate the diurnal range of temperature, monthly average temperature, monthly range of temperature, and annual range of temperature.

Question 18. What are the ‘thermal zones’ of the earth? Name the different thermal zones on earth.
Answer:

The earth can be divided into different circular belts or zones according to the level of temperature persisting in different parts of the earth. These zones are known as thermal zones of the earth.

Thermal zones: There are five thermal zones on the earth’s surface—

  1. Torrid zone — (231/iN- 2334°S),
  2. North Temperate zone — (23y2N -661/2°N),
  3. South Temperate zone — (2334S -66/4°S),
  4. North Frigid zone — (661/2°N-90°N),
  5. South Frigid zone — (66/4°S-90°S)

Question 19. Discuss The Causes Of the Formation Of The Torrid Zone.
Answer: 

Location: The region lying between 231/2°N and 231/2°S latitudes across the equator is known as the Torrid zone.

Causes: The angle of incidence of sun’s rays varies between 43° and 90° in this region. Thus, the heat received here is maximum. The sun’s rays traverse a smaller distance in the atmosphere before reaching the earth’s surface. Thus, the loss of heat due to scattering, absorption, and reflection is less. The Torrid zone remains warm throughout the year, and the average temperature is around 27°C.

Question 20. What is the diurnal range of temperature of a place with a maximum temperature of 38°C and a minimum of 26°C?
Answer:

Diurnal Range of temperature = Maximum temperature – Minimum temperature = 38°C- 26°C = 12°C
Therefore, the diurnal range of temperature of the place is 12°C.

Question 21. Calculate the average temperature of Suri if the maximum temperature was 35X and the minimum was 2SX on 12th April 2018.
Answer:

Average temperature Maximum temperature + Minimum temperature/2
=35 +28/2 = 63/2
=31.5

Question 22. Calculate the average annual temperature of Maldah from the following table.

1. 

WBBSE Class 10 Geography And Environment Chapter 2 Atmosphere Average Annual Temperature 1

2. 

WBBSE Class 10 Geography And Environment Chapter 2 Atmosphere Average Annual Temperature 2

Answer: = Average annual temperature total of average monthly /12 = 2888.10/12 =24.01c

Question 23. Why are winter nights colder in Delhi than in Mumbai?
Answer:

The winter nights are colder in Delhi than in Mumbai because of the following reasons—

1. Mumbai is located on the coast of the Arabian Sea. Thus, it enjoys a moderate or maritime climate. Delhi is located far away from the influence of the sea. Thus, it experiences extreme or continental climates.

2. Mumbai is located at 19°04′ N latitude and Delhi is located at 28°42′ N latitude.

  • Thus, Delhi is located comparatively northward of Mumbai. The angle of incidence of sun’s rays is slightly more inclined in Delhi than in Mumbai.
  • Hence, Mumbai receives more heat than Delhi. During the night, the lesser amount of heat absorbed by Delhi is radiated back faster than that by Mumbai. Thus, nights are warmer in Mumbai than in Delhi.

Question 24. Why is London cooler than Kolkata?
Answer:

London is cooler than Kolkata for the following reasons—

  • Kolkata is situated at 22°30′ N latitude and London is situated at 51°30′ N latitude. London because of its location far north of Kolkata receives the sun’s rays at a more inclined angle than Kolkata.
  • Hence, the average temperature in London is lower than that of Kolkata. Thus, London is cooler than Kolkata.

Question 25.Why are places in higher altitudes cooler than that in lower altitudes?
Answer:

The causes of places at higher altitudes being cooler are as follows—

  1. The amount of water vapor and dust particles in the air decreases with an increase in altitude. Thus, absorption and retention of heat are less.
  2. The density of air in higher altitudes is less. The light winds radiate heat quickly and become cool.
  3. Effects of conduction, convection, and radiation of heat in higher altitudes are quite less. The temperature remains low due to the normal lapse rate.

Question 26. Mention the main characteristics of the range of temperature.
Answer:

The main characteristics of the range of temperature are—

  1. The range of temperature throughout the day, month, or year is lowest at the equator.
  2. The range of temperature is highest in higher latitudes.
  3. The range of temperature is greater over landmass than on water bodies.

Question 27. What do you mean by ‘Normal Lapse
Answer:

Normal Lapse:

  • The earth’s surface gets heated first by the insolation.
  • This energy is then transmitted to the atmosphere by the processes of conduction, convection, and radiation.
  • Generally, temperature decreases by 6.4°C for every 1000 m or 1 km rise in altitude. This rate of decrease in temperature is known as the normal lapse rate.
  • The higher altitudes remain cooler and the high mountains remain snow-capped due to the lapse rate of temperature.

Question 28. Explain the process of transfer of heat by conduction.
Answer:

The process of transfer of heat by conduction:

  • Conduction is the mode of heat transfer from one part of a substance to another part within the substance itself or to a different substance that is placed in physical contact. In conduction, there is no noticeable movement of molecules.
  • Energy is transferred by the movements of free electrons through vibrations between atoms and molecules.

Example: ln the atmosphere, the lower layers transfer heat to the upper layers by the method of conduction. This occurs best during the daytime.

Question 29. Explain the process of convection in the transfer of heat.
Answer:

The process of convection in the transfer of heat:

The air adjacent to the earth’s surface especially in the equatorial region gets most heated, becomes light and rises. Air from adjacent areas which is cooler and heavier rushes to fill up this vacuum created. This cyclical movement of warm air upward and cooler air downwards and sidewards to fill up the gap is known as convection.

The atmosphere gradually gets heated from below upwards by the physical movement of gas molecules from bottom to top. Convection is mostly seen in the equatorial region due to vertical rays of the sun falling on this region

Question 30. Name the factors responsible for differences in temperature in different parts of the earth.
Answer:

The main factors responsible for differences in temperature in different parts of the earth are—

  1. Latitude,
  2. Altitude,
  3. Length of day and night,
  4. Presence of mountains,
  5. The slope of the land and
  6. Distance from the sea.

Question 31. What do you mean by the greenhouse effect?
Answer:

Greenhouse effect:

The gradual increase of the earth’s temperature due to the presence of certain gases in the atmosphere is known as the greenhouse effect.

The carbon dioxide, methane, and chlorofluorocarbons present in the atmosphere create a transparent envelope in the atmosphere which prevents solar energy from radiating back to space. Thus, the temperature of the earth’s atmosphere gradually increases.

Question 32. Name some greenhouse gases.
Answer:

Some greenhouse gases present in the atmosphere are—

  1. Carbon dioxide,
  2. Methane,
  3. Chlorofluorocarbons,
  4. Carbon monoxide,
  5. Nitrous oxide,
  6. Water vapor, etc. Amongst these, carbon dioxide is the most important greenhouse gas.

Question 33. How does the difference in air pressure generate winds?
Answer:

  • Winds are generated primarily due to differences in pressure conditions between two regions. If the ground gets heated too much, the adjacent air also gets heated. This air becomes lighter and tends to rise upward.
  • Thus, a vacuum or low-pressure cell is created. Winds from the adjacent cooler regions rush towards this low-pressure region and try to bring a balance in the pressure conditions.
  • Thus, winds blow from high-pressure regions to low-pressure regions.

Question 34. List the characteristics of tropical cyclones.
Answer:

The characteristics of tropical cyclones are—

  1. The center of the cyclone, where the pressure remains the lowest is called the eye of the cyclone.
  2. Generally, clear skies and calm conditions prevail in the eye region of the cyclone.
  3. The eye of the cyclone is surrounded by cumulonimbus clouds.
  4. Winds rush in from the region around the eye with great speed and cause thunderstorms and rainfall.
  5. The cyclones move in an anticlockwise direction in the northern hemisphere and a clockwise direction in the southern hemisphere.

Question 35. Write a short ‘north westers’.
Answer:

‘North westers’

  • North ‘westers or Kalbaishakhi is a tropical storm that occurs in India and Bangladesh. In India, the states of West Bengal, Odisha, Bihar, Jharkhand, and Assam come under the influence of northwestern in the summer season.
  • This is a sudden wind that causes thunderstorms, rainfall, and sometimes hailstorms.

North westers Causes:

  • During the summer season, the day-long heating of the Chotanagpur plateau heats up the adjacent air.
  • Thus, warm air rises upwards and creates a low-pressure cell over the rocky plateau region.
  • This low-pressure cell is the main cause of drawing winds from the surroundings and forming a tropical storm.
  • Usually, the air comes from the north-western direction to fill up the low-pressure region, hence the name ‘northwestern’ (north + western).

North westers Effects:

  • The day’s temperature may fall up to 10° C with little rainfall.
  • However, rainfall is beneficial for tea, rice, and jute cultivation.

Question 36. What are the causes of planetary winds?
Answer:

The causes of planetary winds

  • The general characteristic feature of wind is that it blows from the high-pressure region to the low-pressure region. There are seven fixed pressure belts found on the earth’s surface.
  • These high-pressure and low-pressure belts lie and alternate with each other from the equator to the poles.
  • As these pressure belts are fixed, certain fixed winds blow between the two adjacent high-pressure and low-pressure belts. These winds are called planetary winds.
  • Planetary winds such as Trades, Westerlies, and Polar winds blow from sub-tropical high-pressure belts to equatorial and polar low-pressure belts over the earth’s surface throughout the year in fixed directions.

Question 37.  Why do the westerly winds blow with more speed in the southern hemisphere than in the northern hemisphere?
Answer:

The westerly winds blow between 35°and 60° latitudes in both the hemispheres.

  • The presence of huge landmasses in the northern hemisphere reduces the speed of the winds blowing over them due to friction.
  • But in the southern hemisphere, there are more water bodies or oceans than land.
  • Hence, the degree of friction is very less, and winds can blow uninterruptedly with great speed over oceans.
  • The speed of westerlies in the southern hemisphere is so great that they make roaring, screeching, and shrieking noises as they blow. 

Question 38. Discuss the role of the trade winds in the creation of deserts.
Answer:

The role of the trade winds in the creation of deserts

  • The trade winds blow from the subtropical regions to the equatorial regions, i.e, from higher latitudes towards lower latitudes.
  • As they blow from comparatively cooler regions to warmer regions, the wind gets warmer.
  • The moisture-holding capacity of the wind increases and hence chances of rainfall is reduced.
  • Thus, dry weather persists in the regions over which trade winds blow. The hot deserts of Sahara, Thar, Kalahari, Atacama, etc. lie in the path of trade winds.

Question 39. What are local winds? Give examples.
Answer:

Local winds

The winds that blow due to the influence of local geographical features and environmental conditions are called local winds.

Some of the local winds are-

Loo: This is a hot dry wind that blows over north-western India during the daytime.
Foehn: This is a warm dry wind that blows over the northern slopes of the Alps mountains in Europe through the Rhine river valley.

Question 40. What is loo’? When does this wind blow? Where in India is Loo found to blow?
Answer:

Loo

‘Loo’ is a strong, dusty, hot, dry wind. It blows during the summer season (very strong in April-May) in India.

Area: The Loo blows over the Indo-Gangetic Plain region of North India. Rajasthan, Uttar Pradesh, Delhi, and Madhya Pradesh mainly come under its influence.

Question 41. Explain the causes of winds.
Answer:

Causes of winds

  • Winds blow from high-pressure regions to low-pressure regions. If the temperature of a place increases, the air becomes warm and tends to rise as it becomes light.
  • Thus, a low pressure is created. Cooler winds from adjacent areas rush towards this low-pressure region to fill up the gap. Thus, the main cause of winds is a difference in air pressure.

Question 42. What do you mean by air pressure?
Answer:

Air pressure

Air pressure is an important element of weather and climate. Air has mass, and like any other material having mass, it is attracted by gravity.

Thus, the weight that a unit volume of air exerts on the earth’s surface is known as air pressure. Under normal conditions, air pressure is 1 kg per square centimeter.

Question 43. What are isobars?
Answer:

Isobars

  • Isobars are imaginary lines drawn on weather maps joining places having the same pressure conditions.
  • The air pressure decreases by 34 millibars with a 300 m rise in height above sea level.
  • Thus, before drawing the isobars, the pressure conditions of the places concerned must be converted to pressure conditions at sea level height.

Question 44. Why do mountaineers use oxygen cylinders in high altitudes in the Himalayan region?
Answer:

  • Air pressure remains high near the earth’s surface or the mean sea level and goes on the same decreasing with an increase in altitude as the air becomes thinner with the rise in altitude.
  • The density of air decreases with decreasing air pressure. The amount of oxygen left in the upper air is not sufficient for normal breathing.
  • Hence, mountaineers use oxygen cylinders when they go to higher altitudes or for climbing peaks

Question 45. Why have hot deserts been formed in the path of the trade winds?
Answer: The trade winds blow from the subtropical regions to the equatorial regions, i.e, from higher latitudes towards lower latitudes. As they blow from comparatively cooler regions to warmer regions, the wind gets warmer.

The wind’s moisture-holding capacity increases, reducing the chances of rainfall. Thus, dry weather persists in the regions over which trade winds blow. The hot deserts of the Sahara, Thar, Kalahari, Atacama, etc. lie in the path of trade winds.

Question 46. Why don’t we feel the pressure exerted by the earth’s atmosphere on us?
Answer:

  • Air pressure is 76 cm of mercury column which is about 10,360 kg per square meter.
  • The atmospheric pressure of the air around us is almost the same or similar to the pressure exerted by blood in our bodies.
  • Thus, there is a balance between atmospheric pressure and body pressure.
  • Hence, we do not feel the atmospheric pressure exerted by the column of air in the atmosphere around us.

Question 47. Why does air pressure decrease with an increase in altitude?
Answer:

The air pressure decreases with an increase in altitude because of the following reasons—

  1. The density of air decreases with an increase in altitude. Air becomes thin, and light, and hence pressure decrease.
  2. The number of air molecules or gaseous molecules present in higher altitudes is lesser than that present at lower altitudes.
  3. Air pressure decreases by 1 cm of mercury column with every 110 cm rise in altitude. If the air pressure at sea level is considered 100%, it becomes about 1% at an altitude of 18 km.

Question 48. What is the unit for measuring air W pressure?
Answer:

The unit of ‘millibar’ is used to measure air pressure.

1 millibar is equivalent to 1000 dyne per sq. cm. Dyne is the unit of measuring force.
1 dyne is almost equal to 1 kg. Air pressure is measured with the help of a barometer. The mercury column in the barometer indicates the pressure conditions of the surrounding area.

Question 49. What is a jet stream?
Answer:

Jet stream

The thin stream of air blowing through the I upper atmosphere from the west to the east
at a very high speed (110-500 km/hr) is known as the jet stream. The tropical and sub-tropical jet streams influence the climate of India.

Question 50. What are trade winds?
Answer:

Trade winds

The planetary winds that blow from the subtropical high-pressure zones in the northern and southern hemispheres towards the equatorial low-pressure zone in a particular direction throughout the year, are called trade winds.

They are basically easterly winds, i.e., they blow from the northeast to the southwest in the northern hemisphere and from the southeast to the northwest in the southern hemisphere. In the early days, these winds helped in trading across the oceans by sailing ships. Hence, they are called the trade winds.

Question 51. What are anti-trade winds
Answer:

Anti-trade winds

The planetary winds that blow in the opposite direction of trade winds are called anti-trade winds. In both the northern and southern hemispheres, the winds blow towards the sub-polar low-pressure zone near the Arctic and Antarctic circles from the high-pressure zone near the tropics.

The direction of the wind in the northern hemisphere is from southwest to northeast, and that in the southern hemisphere is from northwest to southeast. Thus, these winds are also known as westerly winds

Question 52. Why are the westerlies more speedy in the southern hemisphere?
Answer:

  • The amount of landmass is greater in the northern hemisphere than in the southern hemisphere. Thus wind gets obstructed in the northern hemisphere by the land and slows down due to friction.
  • On the other hand, winds blow unhindered in the southern hemisphere over the oceans. Thus, wind speed is greater in the southern hemisphere than in the northern hemisphere.

Question 53. What are roaring forties?
Answer:

Roaring forties

In the southern hemisphere, the presence of landmarks is very less beyond the 40JS latitude. Thus, the westerly winds blow with extreme speed over the oceans due to very less friction with the water. These winds make much noise while blowing. Hence, the latitude adjacent to the 40°S latitude is referred to as the roaring forties.

Question 54. What are planetary winds?
Answer:

Planetary winds

The winds that blow over the earth throughout the year from a fixed direction without much fluctuation, are called planetary winds. They can be classified into three types-

  1. Trade winds,
  2. Westerlies and
  3. Polar winds.
  4. The planetary winds develop due to the rotation of the earth and the existence of the pressure belts around the earth.

Question 55. What do you mean by monsoon winds?
Answer:

Monsoon winds

Monsoon winds are periodic winds generated in certain places due to differences in temperature and pressure conditions on land and water in different seasons of the year. Monsoon winds blow from opposite directions in different seasons of the year.

If the southwest monsoon blows over the Indian subcontinent from the southwest direction during summer. It blows from the reverse direction as the northeast monsoon wind during winter.

Question 56. What is a cyclone?
Answer:

Cyclone

  • A cyclone is a sudden wind developed due to a sudden difference in pressure conditions in a region.
  • If a low-pressure cell is created at any point due to excessive heating, winds from the adjacent high-pressure regions gush toward the low-pressure cell in circular motions with great speed.
  • Cyclones can be highly devastating and may last from a few hours to a few days. They may cause heavy rainfall if they are generated near coastal areas.

Cyclones can be classified into two types—

  1. Tropical cyclones and
  2. Temperate cyclones.

Question 57. What do you mean by the eye of a cyclone?
Answer:

Eye of a cyclone

  • The low-pressure cell at the center of a tropical cyclone is known as the eye of the cyclone. It can extend from 20-40 km in diameter.
  • The weather conditions in the eye remain calm and cloudless even though severe storms and rainfall may occur in other parts of the cyclone.

Question 58. What is’Chinook7?
Answer:

‘Chinook7

  • The ‘Chinook7 is a local wind blowing from the eastern slopes of the Rocky Mountains in North America towards the Prairie region at the foothills of the mountains.
  • These are hot and dry winds that cause the snow of the Prairie region to melt. The word ‘Chinook7 means ‘snow eater.
  • As this wind melts all the show, it has been so named. The snow melt water moistens the soil of the Prairie region and helps in the growth of vast grasslands.

Question 59. What is ‘Foehn7?
Answer:

Foehn7

‘Foehn7 is a local wind blowing from the Alps mountainous region towards the Rhine valley in Europe.

Effects: The hot and dry wind rises along the slope of the Alps mountains and starts cooling down. The water vapor present in the air condenses and causes rainfall and snowfall.

As the wind crosses the Alps mountains and moves down-slope towards the Rhine valley, it starts expanding. Thus, it becomes warm and dry.

Question 60. What is Sirocco?
Answer:

Sirocco

The hot, dry, dusty wind blowing locally over the Sahara desert is called Sirocco

Effects: The hot dry wind becomes humid as it moves towards the northeast and crosses the Mediterranean sea.
The Sirocco is harmful to the cultivation of olives in Italy and Sicily.

Question 61. What is a loop?
Answer:

Loo

The hot dry local wind blowing in northwestern India is called ‘Loo’. During summer, the land surface in north-western India gets extremely heated.

The air adjacent to this land also gets heated by radiation of this heat. During the afternoon, this heated air blows as very speedy wind parallel to the earth’s surface. The local people call this hot wind ‘Loo’.

Question 62. What is ‘Aandhi’?
Answer:

‘Aandhi’

The Aandhi is a violent, squally dust storm occurring in the summer season in northwestern states of India over Uttar Pradesh, Rajasthan, and Punjab. The wind blows at a very high speed, about 70-100 km per hour.

Question 63. The dust particles blown up by the wind reduce visibility to almost zero and makes
Answer: The surroundings are dark. Hence, it is named ‘Aandhi’ meaning darkness.

Effects: These dust storms may cause very little rainfall. Aandhi helps to reduce the air temperature and the weather feels pleasant after the storms stop blowing.

Question 64. What is a hurricane?
Answer:

Hurricane

The strong tropical cyclone that develops over the Caribbean sea and the islands of the West Indies is called a hurricane. The hurricane may have a diameter of 650 km and blow at an average speed of more than 140 km/hr.

The eye of the hurricane consists of a very deep low-pressure cell.

Question 65. What is a tornado?
Answer:

A violently rotating column of air extending from the base of a thunderstorm to the ground is called a tornado. Tornadoes are often associated with funnel-shaped clouds. In the USA, tornadoes are also known as twisters.

Characteristics:

  1. The speed of these storms may reach up to 500 km/hr.
  2. The center of the tornado maybe 100-500 m in diameter.
  3. A number of tornadoes generated close to each other over a region are considered as the tornado family.

Question 66. What is Mistral wind?
Answer:

Mistral wind

The strong, cold dry north-westerly wind blowing from the Alps mountain region to the Rhone valley in France in Europe, is known as the Mistral wind. The Mistral wind can reach velocities of 130 km per hour.

Question 67. What is Bora wind?
Answer:

Bora wind

The very strong cold wind blowing over northern Italy and the eastern coast of the Adriatic sea in Europe during the winter, is known as Bora. These winds often reach a speed above 120 km/hour and create cloudless skies and cold weather conditions.

Question 68. What do you mean by weather and climate?
Answer:

Weather:

  • The condition of temperature, air pressure, humidity, cloudiness, rainfall, snowfall, etc. of a certain place at a certain time is known as weather.
  • The weather may persist for a few moments, a few hours, or a few days.

Climate:

  • The average weather conditions persisting over an area for at least 35 years is known as the climate.
  • In other words, the climate is the average of weather conditions over a long period of time.

Question 69. Why are easterly winds also called Trade winds?
Answer:

  • In earlier days, ships used to sail across the oceans in the direction of the easterly winds for trade and commerce between the countries lying in the tropical region.
  • As the winds helped in trade by helping the ships to move faster along the direction of the winds, they came to be known as Trade winds.

Question 70. What are anticyclones?
Answer:

Anticyclones

  • Anticyclones are the opposite conditions of cyclones. In the Temperate and Frigid zones, over a small area of land, air may suddenly get cold and heavy and start moving downwards.
  • This creates a deep high-pressure cell over the area. In such a condition, the winds start gushing out of the high-pressure region towards the adjacent low-pressure regions in circular motions.
  • This is known as an anticyclone. Anticyclones rotate in a clockwise direction in the northern hemisphere and an anticlockwise direction in the southern hemisphere.

Question 71. What is the Buys Ballot’s Law?
Answer:

Buys Ballot’s Law

The Buys Ballot’s Law was proposed by the eminent scientist Buys Ballot during the 19th century. According to the law, if one stands with his back facing the wind direction in the northern hemisphere, air pressure felt on the left side is less than the pressure on the right side. The reverse condition is experienced in the southern hemisphere.

Question 72. What are the water column and sand column?
Answer:

  • Water column: When a severe storm passes over an ocean, the cyclonic winds attract the ocean water and pull it upwards. Thus, the water rises like a pillar over the ocean. This is known as the water column.
  • Sand column: When a cyclone blows over a desert region, it may attract the sand particles from the desert surface and draw them upwards, thus forming a big pillar of sand. This is known as the sand pillar.

Question 73. What is Sea breeze?
Answer:

Sea breeze

  • The sea breeze is an example of periodic wind. In coastal regions during the daytime, the land gets heated and causes the air to get heated accordingly.
  • This warm air becomes lighter and rises upward, thus creating a partial vacuum over land. The cool winds from the sea rush towards the land to fill up this vacuum.
  • This is known as the ‘Sea breeze’. The maximum speed of the sea breeze occurs during the afternoon when the difference in temperature between land and sea is at its highest. [Winds blow from the sea to land].

Question 74. What is a land breeze?
Answer:

Land breeze

  • Land breeze is an example of periodic winds in coastal regions. At night, the sea is warmer than the land. Thus, the air over the sea becomes warmer than the land.
  • This warm air becomes lighter and rises upwards, creating a vacuum over the sea.
  • Cool winds from the land then rush towards the sea to fill up the partial vacuum. This is known as a land breeze. The maximum speed of the land breeze occurs in the early morning [Winds blow from the land to the sea].

Question 75. What are geostrophic winds?
Answer:

Geostrophic winds

The thin streams of wind generated in the upper part of the atmosphere at 6-8 km altitude, parallel to the isobars are called geostrophic winds. Such winds are produced when the pressure gradient force and Coriolis force come into balance and the condition is called geostrophic balance.

Question 76. What do you mean by absolute humidity and relative humidity?
Answer:

Absolute humidity: The total amount of water vapor present in a unit volume of air at a particular temperature is known as absolute humidity. This is expressed in gm/kg.

Relative humidity: The ratio between the absolute humidity to the total amount of humidity that the volume of air can hold at that particular temperature, is known as relative humidity. This is represented in percentage (%).

Relative humidity = Absolute humidity at a particular temperature/Total humidity that the particular temperature 100

Question 77. How is Cyclonic rainfall caused?
Answer:

The rainfall caused by the formation of cyclones is known as cyclonic rainfall. If a low-pressure cell is created over land, winds from the surrounding high-pressure regions gush in circular motions toward the low-pressure cell to fill up the region. If the winds are moisture laden, they cause rainfall.

Processes:

  1. In tropical regions, if a low-pressure cell is created, winds from high-pressure regions gush in and start rising upwards with great speed. These winds get cooled as they rise, and the water vapor condenses and causes torrential rainfall.
  2.  In temperate regions, the cold winds and hot winds meet with each other along a margin known as the front. The hot winds lying below tend to rise upward while the heavy cold winds tend to move downwards. Thus, the water vapor present in hot winds comes in contact with the cold winds and condenses. This causes rainfall.

Question 78. Why does convectional rainfall occur in the equatorial region?
Answer:

In equatorial regions, the land gets highly heated and heats the air adjacent to it. Excessive evaporation occurs due to heat. The moisture-laden warm air tends to rise upward, where it meets cold air and starts condensing.

As the amount of water vapor is very high in the air, the air gets saturated very fast. During the afternoon, when the heat of the earth’s surface reduces considerably, the air cannot hold back the moisture, and drop it as rainfall. This phenomenon goes and repeats in a cyclical manner due to convection currents of air. Thus, convectional rainfall occurs in the equatorial region.

Question 79. Where is the monsoon climate seen in the world?
Answer:

The region lying between 10° and 25° latitudes in both the northern and southern hemispheres experiences a monsoon climate. The countries where monsoon climate is found are-

  1. Asia: India, Bangladesh, Laos, Myanmar, Pakistan, Cambodia, Thailand, Vietnam, etc.
  2. Africa: Liberia, Western Madagascar.
  3. Australia: Northern part of Australia.
  4. North America: South-eastern part of USA.

Question 80. List the characteristic features of monsoon climate.
Answer:

The characteristic features of monsoon climate are —

  1. Four prominent seasons are experienced in this climate namely, summer, rainy autumn, and winter.
  2. The temperature remains around 27-32°C in
  3. The annual range of temperature is seasonal

Question 81. List the characteristics and features of a hot desert climate
Answer:

The characteristic features of a hot desert climate are—

  1. The temperature rises as high as 40- 45°C in summer.
  2. Winter temperatures occur between 15 and 21°C.
  3. The diurnal range of temperature is very high.
  4. Rainfall is very scanty in desert regions. Annual rainfall is about 10-15 cm.
  5. In certain deserts, rainfall occurs at an interval of 2-4 years.

Question 82. Mention the areas of the world experiencing Mediterranean climate.
Answer: Mediterranean climate is found between 30 and 40° latitudes in both the northern and southern hemispheres.

The regions experiencing such climate are-

  1. Europe: Portugal, Spain, Italy, Greece.
  2. Asia: Western Turkey, Lebanon, Israel, Syria.
  3. Africa: Egypt, Libya, Morocco, northern Algeria, Cape Town of southern Africa.
  4. North America: Southern California.
  5. South America: Chile.
  6. Oceania: Southern and south-western coast of Australia.

Question 83. What are the characteristics of the Mediterranean climate?
Answer:

The characteristics of the Mediterranean climate are—

  1. The temperature remains moderate throughout the year. The average temperature is around 20-27°C.
  2. During winter temperature may drop to 5-10°C.
  3. The average annual range of temperature is 15-17°C.
  4. The summers are dry and the sky remains clear.
  5. Rainfall occurs during winters due to the influence of the moist westerly winds causing cyclones. The average annual rainfall is 37-65 cm.

Question 84. Discuss the role of humidity in the air.
Answer:

The humidity influences the weather and climate of a region to a great extent.

The role of humidity in the air is

  1. Water vapor is the cause of any kind of condensation and precipitation.
  2. Water vapor controls the temperature in the atmosphere.
  3. The rate of evaporation remains very less if the presence of humidity in the air is high. If the presence of humidity is less, the rate of evaporation becomes high

Question 85.  Why is rainfall not produced by all the clouds?
Answer:

A cloud is created by condensation of water vapor on dust particles, sea salt nude, etc. in the upper atmosphere, and the accumulation of tiny droplets of water thus formed.

All clouds do not cause rainfall because of the following reasons—

  1. The average diameter of water droplets forming the clouds is about 0.01 min. Unless they are at least 0.05 mm, they cannot fall down as rain. Even while falling down as rain, if the water droplets encounter a warm layer, they again evaporate back.
  2. The tiny droplets of water must accumulate and join with each other to grow in size and fall as rain.
  3. Condensation does not occur unless the relative humidity reaches 100%, hence no rainfall occurs

Question 86. Write down the characteristics of convectional rainfall.
Answer:

The characteristics of convectional rainfall are enough heat to cause evaporation, the air remains filled with a huge quantity of water-

1. Location: This type of rainfall occurs between 5 and 10° latitudes on either side of the equator

2. Time: This rainfall occurs the over the world. The equatorial region receives almost vertical rays of the sun, while the poles receive inclined rays. Thus, heat is maximum at the equator and goes on decreasing toward the poles. This leads to the year in the equatorial region, and at the beginning of summer in the temperate region.

3. Amount: On average, about 200-300 cm of rainfall occurs in the equatorial region

4. Name: Convectional rainfall occurs during the afternoon in the equatorial region every day. Hence, it is called the 4 o’clock rain.

5. Cloud: The rainfall is caused by cumulonimbus clouds.

6. Thunder: This type of rainfall causes thunder and lightning. E.g.—Java island has a record of 322 days of lightning in a particular year.

7. Nature of rainfall: Heavy downpour occurs for a short duration. After the rainfall, the sky becomes clear and bright.

Question 87. Identify the climate and the hemisphere of the region from the given temperature-rainfall diagram

WBBSE Class 10 Geography And Environment Chapter 2 Atmosphere Temperature And Rain fall 1

Answer: The temperature-rainfall diagram shows—

  1. The temperature curve is not very high.
  2. The range of temperature is low.
  3. The temperature graph remains the same throughout the year.
  4. Temperature lies between 26 and 28°C.
  5. Rainfall occurs throughout the year.

Conclusion: The diagram represents the equatorial climate. The temperature remains the same almost throughout the year. The little increase in temperature during the months of May and June shows that this is a diagram of the northern hemisphere.

Question 88. Identify the climate from the given temperature-rainfall diagram. Which hemisphere is depicted here?

WBBSE Class 10 Geography And Environment Chapter 2 Atmosphere Temperature And Rain fall 2

Answer:

The temperature-rainfall diagram shows that:

  1. May is the hottest month and January-February is the coolest month.
  2. Most of the rainfall occurs during June, July, and August. A little rainfall occurs in winter.

Conclusion: The diagram depicts the tropical monsoon climate. May-June is very hot compared to other months. This depicts that this is a diagram of the northern hemisphere.

Question 89. Find out the climate depicted in the temperature-rainfall diagram. Detect the hemisphere being shown

WBBSE Class 10 Geography And Environment Chapter 2 Atmosphere Temperature And Rain fall 3

Answer: The temperature-rainfall diagram shows that—

  1. The temperature remains below the freezing point for the entire year except during June and September.
  2. The temperature in January is -23°C.
  3. The convex shape of the curve depicts that this is a diagram of the northern hemisphere.
  4. Rainfall is very low, snowfall is profuse.

Conclusion: Chilling cold temperature, little rainfall, and the convex temperature graph indicate that this is a diagram of the Tundra region of the northern hemisphere

Question 90. What problems are caused by daily life?
Answer:

The problems caused by fog in our daily life are:

  1. Fog reduces visibility. Thus, it becomes difficult to run trains, cars, and buses, especially on highways.
  2. In urban and industrial regions, fog combines with the smoke of vehicles and chimneys, creating smog.
  3. Fog is harmful to crops.
  4. Fog influences the local climate of a place

Question 91. Identify the climate and hemisphere of the place from the given temperature-rainfall diagram.

WBBSE Class 10 Geography And Environment Chapter 2 Atmosphere Temperature And Rain fall 4

Answer:

The given temperature-rainfall diagram shows that:

  1. The temperature curve is concave. Thus, it definitely depicts a place in the southern hemisphere.
  2. June, July, and August receive the maximum amount of rainfall.
  3. The temperatures are found in July-August and are called the rain shadow area.

Question 92.  Identify the climate and hemisphere of the place from the given temperature-rainfall diagram.

WBBSE Class 10 Geography And Environment Chapter 2 Atmosphere Temperature And Rain fall 5

Answer:

The temperature-rainfall diagram shows that:

  1. The temperature curve is convex and the highest temperature recorded in July-August is 33°C.
  2. Average annual rainfall is lower than 10 cm.

Conclusion: The diagram depicts locations in the northern hemisphere. Very hot summers and very less rainfall show that the place enjoys a hot desert climate.

Question 93. What do you mean by saturated air?
Answer:

Saturated air

  • Air can hold different amounts of water vapor at different temperatures. At a particular temperature, if the air holds the maximum possible amount of water vapor, the condition of the air is said to be saturated.
  • If the temperature of the air decreases, the moisture-holding capacity of the air also decreases and the extra water falls onto the earth’s surface as precipitation.
  • But if the temperature of the air increases, the moisture-holding capacity of the air also increases and the air will not be saturated with the amount of water vapor it was holding previously.

Question 94. What is dew point
Answer:

Dew point

The temperature at which the air becomes saturated and the water vapor starts condensing is known as the dew point. At the dew point temperature, the relative humidity of air remains 100%. The water vapor starts changing into small droplets of water by condensation.

Question 95. What is the importance of relative humidity?
Answer:

The importance of relative humidity is—

  1. Relative humidity gives an idea of the occurrence of rainfall, snowfall, dew, etc.
  2. The rate of radiation of heat from the earth’s surface can be calculated from relative humidity.

Question 96. What is precipitation?
Answer:

Precipitation

  • The water vapor present in the air on rising upward gets cooled gradually and starts condensing into very small crystals of ice in the upper atmosphere. These crystals of ice and tiny droplets of super-chilled water accumulate together to form clouds.
  • As more and more ice crystals and water droplets accumulate, the cloud grows bigger in size and becomes heavy. Thus, they are pulled downwards towards the surface of the earth by gravitational force.
  • This is known as precipitation. Precipitation may occur in the form of rain, sleet, drizzle, snow, hailstorm, etc

Question 97. What is humidity?
Answer:

Humidity

  • The measure of water vapor contained in the air is known as humidity. Air can hold different amounts of humidity at different temperatures.
  • If the air holds the maximum amount of water vapor possible at a particular temperature, it is said to be saturated. If the air can hold some more water vapor at that particular temperature, it is said to be unsaturated.

Question 98. What is absolute humidity?
Answer:

Absolute humidity

  • The total amount of water vapor actually contained in a particular volume of air at a particular temperature is known as absolute humidity. It is expressed in gm/kg.
  • If the temperature of the air changes, but the amount of water vapor in the air is kept constant, the relative humidity of the air will change, but the absolute humidity will remain the same.

Question 99. What is unsaturated air?
Answer:

Unsaturated air

The moisture-holding capacity of air depends upon its temperature. If at a particular temperature, the air contains less amount of water vapor than it can actually hold at that temperature, it is said to be unsaturated. An unsaturated air may become saturated if the temperature of the air is lowered. Similarly, saturated air may become unsaturated if the temperature is increased.

Question 100. What is snowfall?
Answer:

Snowfall

  • Water vapor condenses and forms tiny ice crystals in the upper atmosphere as they rise upward along with air. These ice crystals accumulate together and form clouds.
  • When they become much bigger and heavier, they start falling towards the earth’s surface as precipitation. If the air temperature is higher at lower altitudes the ice crystals melt and fall downwards as rain.
  • But in mountainous regions and high altitudes, where the temperature is lower than the freezing point, the ice crystals need not melt and come down as snowfall.

Question 101. What is a hail storm?
Answer:

Hail storm

  • Water vapor in the air rises upward along with air currents, cools down, and condenses, forming tiny crystals of ice. These crystals accumulate together and form clouds of ice.
  • When the clouds thus formed become quite heavy, they start moving downward as precipitation.
  • The warm air below forces some of the ice crystals to melt and fall as rain. But if the temperature suddenly drops after the occurrence of rain for some time, the ice crystals may come downward in solid form along with rainfall. This combination of ice crystals and rainfall is known as a hailstorm.

Question 102. How many types of rainfall are there? Name them.
Answer: Rainfall occurs due to condensation of water vapor present in the air. Rainfall can be classified into three types—

  1. Convectional rainfall,
  2. Orographic rainfall and
  3. Cyclonic rainfall.

Question 103. What are warm and cold fronts?
Answer:

Warm and cold fronts

The sloping boundary that separates two contrasting air masses is known as the front.

  1. A warm front is the gently sloping frontal surface along which the light warm air becomes active and gently rises over the cold dense air.
  2. A cold front is the sloping frontal surface along which the dense cold air becomes active, but, being dense this air remains on the ground and forcibly uplifts the light warm air.

Question 104. What do you mean by occlusion?
Answer:

Occlusion

Occlusion is a stage in the life of a temperate cyclone. Since its genesis, after which the cyclone dies out. The cold air displaces the warm air from the ground and the warm air glides over the cold air.

The cold front moves faster than the warm front, ultimately the former overtaking the latter. The warm air is completely lifted up, the front thus formed is an occluded front and the cyclone dissipates thereafter.

Question 105. What is the relation between humidity and temperature?
Answer:

Relation between humidity and temperature

  • Relative humidity is inversely related to temperature. In a particular volume of air, if the total amount of water vapor is kept constant, the relative humidity increases when the temperature of the air decreases.
  • The relative humidity decreases if the temperature of the air increases.
  • This is because the moisture-holding capacity of air is dependent on the temperature of the air.

Question 106. Why are rain shadow areas created on the leeward slope of mountains?
Answer:

  • Moisture-laden winds cause rainfall on the windward slope of mountains.
  • After showering rainfall, the winds become lighter and can easily cross the mountains, reaching the leeward side.
  • On the leeward side, the winds have very little moisture, which fails to cause much rainfall.
  • Moreover, these winds blow downward along the slopes of the mountain. As they reach lower altitudes they became warmer and moisture-holding capacity increases. Thus, they fail to cause rainfall with the little amount of water vapor present in the air. This turns the leeward slopes of the mountains into rain shadow areas.

Question 107. What is frost?
Answer:

Frost

  • As the air temperature reaches the dew point, the atmospheric water vapor starts changing into tiny droplets of water called dew drops.
  • If the air temperature falls below the dew point and reaches the freezing point, the dew drops tend to freeze into tiny crystals of ice. This is known as frost.

Question 108. On which factors does evaporation depend?
Answer:

Evaporation depends on the following factors—

  1. Nature of landforms,
  2. Height of water bodies,
  3. Relative humidity of the air,
  4. Wind speed.

The rate of evaporation is not the same all over the earth. It is highest near the tropical desert regions.

Question 109. Name the instrument by which humidity can be measured.
Answer:

  1. Humidity is measured with the help of a hygrometer or rain gauge.
  2. The relative humidity is measured by the Six’s maximum and minimum thermometer.
  3. Recently, numerous kinds of hygrometers have been invented, that measure humidity.

The common types of such hygrometers are-

  1. Dew point hygrometer,
  2. Hair tension hygrometer,
  3. Resistive hygrometer, etc.

Question 110. Why does fog occur in urban areas and industrial zones?
Answer:

  • The sky in the urban centers and industrial zones remain filled with suspended particles of carbon, dust, and other aerosols.
  • During the night, when these particles get cooled, the water vapor present in the atmosphere condenses on them and forms many tiny water droplets that remain suspended in the air.
  • This is known as fog. Fog reduces visibility considerably.

Example:  The iron and steel centers of Durgapur and Jamshedpur.

Question 111. List the significance of humidity in the air.
Answer:

The importance of humidity in the air is as follows—

  1. Humidity helps in conducting the water cycle.
  2. Condensation occurs due to the presence of water vapor.
  3. The heat radiated by the earth is arrested by the water vapor.
  4. Too much relative humidity makes the air very moist and feels very uncomfortable. Lack of humidity (in winter) makes the air very dry.

Question 112. What is the lower course or delta course of a river?
Answer:

Lower course

  • The course where the river flows through a plain land till it reaches the mouth of the river in a sea, lake, or any other depression, is called the lower course of the river.
  • This course spreads through the delta region. E.g.-The portion of the river Ganga, lying between south of Rajmahal hills to the mouth in the Bay of Bengal is known as the lower course of the river.

Long Question And Answers

Question 19. What is the water cycle? How is water transported through the water cycle?
Answer:

Water cycle

The circulation of water from the earth to the atmosphere and back occurring in a cyclical manner is known as the water cycle. Water escapes from the earth s surface, oceans, and other water bodies and underground into the atmosphere in the form of water vapor.

Later, this water comes back to the earth’s surface in solid or liquid form. Thus, the balance of water present in the atmosphere, lithosphere, and hydrosphere is maintained by the water cycle.

 

WBBSE Class 10 Geography And Environment Chapter 2 Atmosphere Water Cycle

Transportation of water:

  1. Evaporation: The sea is the main source of free water or open water. Other sources of water are rivers, lakes, ponds, canals, etc. Water evaporates from these water bodies and also from the underground and from plants and reaches the atmosphere as water vapor.
  2. Condensation: The water vapor present in the atmosphere condenses on the dust and salt particles present in the atmosphere and changes back to water droplets or ice crystals. These droplets accumulate together and fall as rain or snow when the temperature permits.
  3. Precipitation: The tiny water droplets or ice crystals formed in condensation, accumulate together, become heavy, and tend to fall downward. This is known as precipitation. It may occur in the form of rain, snow, hail, drizzle, etc.

Thus, the water cycle comprises evaporation, condensation, and precipitation, without which the circulation of water would not have been possible.

Question 7. Where is the equatorial climate formed in the world?
Answer:

Equatorial climate is formed within 5°-10° latitude in both northern and southern hemispheres.

The regions where the equatorial climate is found are as follows

  1. Asia: India, Bangladesh, Laos, Myanmar, Pakistan, Cambodia, Thailand, Vietnam, etc.
  2. Africa: Liberia, Western Madagascar.
  3. Australia: Northern part of Australia.
  4. North America: South-eastern part of USA.

 

WBBSE Class 10 Geography And Environment Chapter 2 AtmosphereLocation of equtorial and monsoon climate zones

Question 8 List the characteristic features of equatorial climates.
Answer:

The characteristic features of the equatorial climate are—

  1. The temperature remains high throughout the year. The diurnal range of temperature is very small. There is no change of seasons.
  2. The average annual temperature is about 27°C, and the annual range of temperature is about 2°-3°C.
  3. The sky remains covered with clouds during the afternoon due to the excessive rate of evaporation.
  4. Rainfall occurs every day during the afternoon. This is also known as 4 o’clock rain.
  5. Cyclones or heavy storms do not occur here due to the presence of the calm region nearby experienced in this climate namely, summer, rainy season, autumn, and winter.

Question 9 Where hot desert climate found in the world?
Answer: Hot desert climate is found between 15 and 35° latitudes in both the northern and southern hemispheres.

The regions where the hot desert climate is found are—

  1. Africa: Sahara, Kalahari and Namib deserts
  2. Asia: Saudi Arabia, Lebanon, Iran, the Thar desert of India, and Pakistan.
  3. Oceania: Australian deserts.
  4. North America: Arizona desert.
  5. South America: Atacama desert.

WBBSE Class 10 Geography And Environment Chapter 2 Atmosphere Equtorial and monsoon climate zones

Question 33. What are pressure cells?
Answer:

Pressure cells

The pressure belts sometimes break into small portions and lie over small regions in the shape of cells. This occurs due to differential.

This occurs due to differential heating of water and landmass and hence the development of high-pressure and low-pressure conditions on land and water accordingly.

The location of the continents and oceans and their shapes lead to the formation of a number of pressure cells in the northern hemisphere compared to the south.

WBBSE Class 10 Geography And Environment Chapter 2 Atmosphere Pressure Cells

Question 36. What do you mean by pressure gradient?
Answer:

Pressure gradient

The isobars are imaginary lines to join places having the same pressure conditions. The pressure gradient refers to the difference in pressure conditions over a unit distance in an area. It is measured as the force per unit area in a region.

pressure gradient = Vertical Interval (VI)/Horizontal Equivalent (HE)

Where, VI = Difference in pressure between two places HE = Actual horizontal distance between the two places
In a weather map,

  1. The pressure gradient is high or steep if the Pressure gradient = isobars lie very close to each other over a period of time
  2. The pressure gradient is gentle when the isobars lie far away from each other.
  3. The pressure gradient will become steeper with increasing differences in air pressure between the two places.
  4. Winds blow with greater speed if the pressure gradient is steep, while winds blow with less speed if the pressure gradient is normal or gentle.

WBBSE Class 10 Geography And Environment Chapter 2 Atmosphere Pressure Gradient

Question 26. What are mountain breeze and valley breeze?
Answer:

Mountain breeze: In the mountainous regions during the night, the air cools down and becomes heavy due to radiation of heat, and slips downwards along the slope.

This causes the warm air to stay above the cold air. These breezes or winds are known as katabatic winds.

WBBSE Class 10 Geography And Environment Chapter 2 Atmosphere mountain breeze

 

Valley breeze:

In mountainous regions during the daytime, air starts getting heated, becomes lighter, and tends to rise along the slopes of the mountain valleys and yield precipitation on reaching greater heights. These are known as anabatic winds or valley breezes or winds. Valley breezes cause the formation of clouds in the upper parts of the mountains.

Chapter 2 Atmosphere Topic 4 Humidity And Precipitation


Question 1 How does rainfall occur?

Answer:

Rainfall occurs through the following processes

WBBSE Class 10 Geography And Environment Chapter 2 Atmosphere Atmosphere formation of rainfall

Air Contains some account of water vapor, Which makes the air light and it tends to rise.

  • As the moist air rises upward, pressure decreases, and the air starts cooling down.
  • Gradually, the air in the upper atmosphere starts getting saturated, as the moisture-holding capacity of the air decreases with an increase in altitude. When the temperature of the saturated air falls below the freezing point, the extra water vapor starts condensing on the dust particles, carbon, and salt particles floating in the air, forming tiny droplets of water and ice crystals.
  • The water droplets thus formed collide with each other and adhere to form bigger droplets.
  • These bigger droplets become heavy and cannot float in the air anymore.
  • Thus, they fall as rainfall. If the temperature in the lower layers is quite low, snowfall may occur instead of rainfall.

Question 2 Describe the different types of rainfall. OR’ Discuss the difference between rain, a and give examples
Answer:

Rainfall is classified into three types according to their mode of origin:

 

WBBSE Class 10 Geography And Environment Chapter 2 Atmosphere Atmosphere Types of rainfall

 

Rainfall concept  Method Example
Correctional rainfall The moisture-laden air rises upward due to excessive heating of the earth’s surface, cools down, and causes rainfall. In hot regions, where there are enough water bodies, the water evaporates in huge amounts due to excessive heat.

This rises upward along with the air, gets cooled, and condenses on the dust and salt particles, forming clouds.

In the afternoon, when the surface temperature falls, the air gets saturated and cannot hold back the water droplets in the clouds.

Thus, they come down as rainfall. This process goes on in a cyclical form, and so is called convectional rainfall.

Convectional rainfall occurs In the equatorial region throughout the year in the afternoon. It is also known as the 4 o’clock rain.
Orographic The moisture-laden air collides with the hill slopes, it rises and gets cooled and causes rainfall. If the moisture-laden air is obstructed by high landforms in its path, it rises upward.

Here, it gets cooled and condenses to cause enough rainfall.

After shedding water, the air becomes lighter and rises higher.

As it crosses the mountains and blows over the leeward side, due to insufficient moisture very little rainfall occurs.

Thus, this region becomes a rain shadow area. As the air slips down the slope of the leeward side, its temperature and moisture-holding capacity increase.

Thus, the chances of rainfall decrease even more.

enough rainfall. After shedding water, the air becomes lighter and rises higher.

As it crosses the mountains and blows over the leeward side, due to insufficient moisture very little rainfall occurs.

Thus, this region becomes a rain shadow area.

As the air slips down the slope of the leeward side, its temperature and moisture-holding capacity increase.

Thus, the chances of rainfall decrease even more.

The western slope of the Western Ghats, foothills of the Himalayas, the Mawsynram, and Cherrapunjl in Meghalaya all receive rainfall due to the southwest monsoons.

 

Convention Rainfall:

WBBSE Class 10 Geography And Environment Chapter 2 Atmosphere Convention Rainfall

Orographic Rainfall:

WBBSE Class 10 Geography And Environment Chapter 2 Atmosphere Orographic Rainfall

Cyclonic Rainfall:

WBBSE Class 10 Geography And Environment Chapter 2 Atmosphere Cyclonic Rainfall

 

Question 3 How is rainfall caused by temperate cyclones?
Answer: In temperate regions, two air masses of opposite characteristics meet each other along a front. The cold and dry air coming from the northeastern side meets the warm moist air coming from the southwestern side along a front.

The warm air enters the cold air from below and the cold air enters the warm from the top. The place where the warm air meets the cold air is known as the warm front. The place where the cold air hits the warm air from the back is known as the cold front.

Rainfall at the warm front: The warm air rises upward through the cold air. In this process, the water vapor present in the warm air comes in contact with the cold air and condenses. This causes rainfall.

 

Rainfall at the cold front: The cold air pushes the warm air upward from the back. Thus, the warm air rises up and cools down and the water vapor present in the warm air starts condensing. This causes heavy rainfall with thunder and lightning.

Regions: Rainfall from temperate cyclones occur in many places in Europe during the winter season.

WBBSE Class 10 Geography And Environment Chapter 2 Atmosphere Temperate cyclones

Question 4 How does rainfall occur from tropical cyclones?
Answer: Tropical cyclones occur between 5-20°N and S latitudes during summers. Excessive heating of the region causes the development of low-pressure cells on the land.

Cool and heavy air from the adjacent areas gushes with great speed toward the low-pressure cell in circular motions. This air gradually rises upward in a circular motion and starts becoming cooler.

The water vapor present in the air condenses. The center or eye of the cyclone remains calm, but winds from the surrounding areas rush with such speed that they cause severe storms along with heavy rainfall.

Example: Cyclones originate in the Bay of Bengal when the eastern coastal regions of India get heated in the summer season and develop low-pressure cells. This type of cyclone forms when the warm and moist southwest monsoon winds meet with the hot dry winds on land. Such a weak cyclone may cause rainfall for a few days continuously.

WBBSE Class 10 Geography And Environment Chapter 2 Atmosphere Rainfall caused by tropical cyclones

Question 5 Classify precipitation.
Answer:

Precipitation:

The warm and moist air tends to rise upward and the water vapor condenses to form tiny droplets of water or ice crystals.

These crystals and droplets come close and adhere to each other, thus growing in size. When they grow quite big, they cannot float in the air, and thus fall on the earth’s surface due to gravitational force.

This is known as precipitation. Precipitation may occur in two forms—

  1. Liquid and
  2. Solid.

1. Liquid:

  • The tiny droplets of water formed due to condensation of water vapor adhere to each other and form clouds.
    When the water droplets grow bigger in size, they come down due to gravity.
  • This precipitation in the liquid form is known as rainfall. Rainfall can be of three types— Convectional, Orographic, and Cyclonic.

2. Solid:

  1. Snowfall: In higher latitudes or cold regions, the moisture in the air condenses in the upper atmosphere and forms ice crystals. These ice crystals come down as snowfall when they grow bigger in size.
  2. Hailstorm: The upward-moving stormy air drives the moisture-laden air to great heights in the atmosphere, where they cool down and condenses to form ice crystals.

These ice crystals become heavy and tend to fall downward. They are once again driven upward by the stormy winds, where they collect more water droplets, freeze and become bigger and heavier.

These large crystals of ice then fall on the earth’s surface along with rainfall as hailstorms. The hailstones that fall with hailstorms have a diameter of 5 to 50 mm.

3. Sleet:

  • In cool temperate regions, the rain drops cool down while falling through the cooler layers of the atmosphere, and tend to freeze.
  • Thus, precipitation occurs in the form of very small granules called sleet, which have a diameter of less than 5 mm.

Question 6 Discuss the major characteristic ‘and features of Tropical Monsoon climatic regions.
Answer: The tropical monsoon climate extends from 10°-25° latitudes in both hemispheres. In India and Pakistan, the influence of this climatic region extends up to 30°N latitude in the north.

Climatic characteristics:

The major characteristics of the tropical monsoon climatic region are as follows—

1. Wet summers and dry winters:

  • In monsoon climatic regions during the summer season, the wet monsoon winds while blowing over the ocean pick up moisture and cause rainfall. But during the winter season
  • The cold dry winds blow from the land and do not cause rainfall. Hence, the weather remains dry.

2. Two oppositely blowing winds during summer and winter:

In the monsoon climatic regions, during summer, winds blow from the south while during winter winds blow from the north.

For example:

  • In the Indian subcontinent during summer, wet southwest monsoon winds and in winter the dry northeast monsoon winds blow. This reversal of wind system is a typical feature of monsoon climate.
  • It can be mentioned here that the word monsoon is derived from the Arabic word ‘Muslim’, meaning season.

3. Moderate temperature:

  • Monsoon climatic regions experience 30-32°C temperature in summer and 19-22°C temperature in winter.
  • In summer the wet monsoon winds bring rainfall and give relief from sweltering heat conditions.

4. Moderate rainfall:

  • In monsoon regions average annual rainfall varies from 75-100 cm.
  • However, topography and distance from the sea have a profound influence on the amount of rainfall.

For example:

Mountainous and coastal areas receive very high amounts of rainfall, nearly 150-200 cm.

  • In India, Mawsynram lying on the southern slope of the Khasi hills in Meghalaya receive about 1187 cm of rainfall annually.
  • But, Shillong lying on the leeward side of the Khasi hills receives only 250 cm of rainfall annually.

Again, Allahabad located far away from the coast receives about 100 cm of rainfall annually.

5. Change of seasons:

The change of seasons is one of the important characteristics of monsoon climate. The onset and retreat of two opposite monsoon winds cause a change of seasons.

For example in the northern hemisphere:

  • The cold, dry season lasting from December to February is called winter,
  • The hot, dry season from March to May is known as summer,
  • The hot, wet season from June to September is called the season of south-west monsoon or rainy season,
  • October and November is the season of retreating southwest monsoon or autumn. In the southern hemisphere, the opposite seasons occur during the same period.

Question 25. What are the differences between the land breeze and the sea breeze?
Answer:

The differences between the land breeze and sea breeze are:

WBBSE Class 10 Geography And Environment Chapter 2 Atmosphere land breeze and the sea breeze

Question 26. What are the differences between cyclone and anticyclone? OR, Mention four differences between cyclones and anticyclones.
Answer:

The differences between cyclone and anticyclone

WBBSE Class 10 Geography And Environment Chapter 2 Atmosphere Cyclone and anticyclone

Question 3. How are clouds formed?
Answer:

The water vapor present in warm air rises upward along with the air currents. As it gains altitude, it starts becoming cooler. The moisture-holding capacity of the air decreases with a fall in temperature.

Thus, the air gets saturated at the dew point. The water vapor starts condensing on the dust particles, sea salt nuclei, and tiny ice crystals present in the air and forms very tiny droplets of water or ice. These droplets accumulate together to form clouds. When the clouds become very heavy, they cannot hold the water anymore, and drop them as precipitation.

WBBSE Class 10 Geography And Environment Chapter 2 Atmosphere formation of coluds

Question 16 Why does temperature decrease with an increase in altitude in the Troposphere?
Answer:

Temperature decreases with the increase of altitude in the Troposphere at the rate of 6.4° C with every 1000 m altitude. This is known as a normal lapse of temperature.

This happens because of the following reasons—

1. Less radiation received: The atmosphere does not get heated directly. It gets heated up by the radiation received from the surface of the earth. Thus, the lower part of the atmosphere coming in direct contact with the surface of the earth gets more heat than the portion lying above.

2. Less dense air: The layers of air are denser near the earth’s surface and become lighter with increasing altitude. Hence, the upper layers receive less heat.

3. Less heat absorbing capacity: The lower layer of the atmosphere contains more water vapor, dust particles, and sea salt nuclei than the layers above and hence heat retentive and heat absorbing capacity considerably decrease with the increase of altitude.

4. Thin layer of air: The atmosphere gradually thins out with an increase in altitude. For this reason, the air in the upper layers expands quickly and cools rapidly by the release of radiation.

Question 22 Differentiate between weather and climate.
Answer:

The difference between weather and climate are –

WBBSE Class 10 Geography And Environment Chapter 2 Atmosphere Weather and climate.

WBBSE Class 7 History Chapter 2 Some Aspects Of The Indian Political History Multiple Choice Questions

WBBSE Class 7 History Chapter 2 Some Aspects Of The Indian Political History Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. The word ‘Vanga’ was first mentioned in

  1. Mundaka Upanishad
  2. Aitareya Aranyaka
  3. Raghuvangsham
  4. Mudrarakshasa

Answer: 2. Aitareya Aranyaka

Question 2. Ancient Samatata was located on the eastern bank of

  1. Ganga
  2. Yamuna
  3. Meghna
  4. Rupnarayan

Answer: 3. Meghna

Question 3. ‘Ain-i Akbari’ is written by

  1. Abul Fazl
  2. Al Beruni
  3. Minhaj-i-Siraj
  4. Ibn Battuta

Answer: 1. Abul Fazl

WBBSE Class 7 History Chapter 2 Some Aspects Of The Indian Political History Multiple Choice Questions

Question 4. The capital of Sasanka was

  1. Gauda
  2. Kanauj
  3. Varanasi
  4. Karnasuvarna

Answer: 4. Karnasuvarna

WBBSE Class 7 Geography Notes WBBSE Solutions For Class 7 History
WBBSE Solutions For Class 7 Geography WBBSE Class 7 History Multiple Choice Questions
WBBSE Class 7 Geography Multiple Choice Questions WBBSE Solutions For Class 7 Maths

 

Question 5. The largest among the territories of ancient Bengal was

  1. Pundravardhana
  2. Varendra
  3. Vangala
  4. Samatata

Answer: 1. Pundravardhana

Question 6. ‘Bhukti’ means

  1. Country
  2. District
  3. Territorial Division
  4. River

Answer: 3. Territorial Division

Question 7. Sylhet was a part of

  1. Radh-Suhma
  2. Gauda
  3. Pundravardhana
  4. Varendra

Answer: 3. Pundravardhana

Question 8. The river between Northern and Southern Radh was

  1. Ajay
  2. Kangsabati
  3. Mayurakshi
  4. Damodar

Answer: 1. Ajay

Question 9. Which dynasty had Sasanka as a Mahasamanta?

  1. Maurya
  2. Pushyabhuti
  3. Gupta
  4. Pala

Answer: 3. Gupta

Question 10. In which text, was King Sasanka described as an ‘adversary of Buddhism?

  1. Indika
  2. Arya-Manjushri-mula-kalpa
  3. Meghaduta
  4. Nagananda

Answer: 2. Arya-Manjushri-mula-kalpa

Question 11. Who ended Matsya-nyaya?

  1. Sasanka
  2. Dharmapala
  3. Mahipala
  4. Gopala

Answer: 4. Gopala

Question 12. Who was the court poet of Harshavardhana?

  1. Kalidasa
  2. Banabhatta
  3. Vishakhadatta
  4. Dandin

Answer: 2. Banabhatta

Question 13. The eastern part of Bengal is called Bangladesh.

  1. In 1947, the eastern part of Bengal became independent.
  2. In 1947, Bengali was recognized as the national language of East Pakistan.
  3. In 1971, eastern Bengal emerged as an independent state named Bangladesh.

Answer: 3. In 1971, eastern Bengal emerged as an independent state named Bangladesh.

Question 14. To say that Sasanka was against Buddhism is a rather exaggerated view.

  1.  Sasanka was a follower of Buddhism.
  2. Xuanzang noticed the prosperity of Raktamrittika vihar (Monas¬tery) near Karnasuvarna.
  3. Sasanka spent lavishly on the spread of Buddhism and the construction of Buddhist monasteries.

Answer: 2. Xuanzang noticed the prosperity of Raktamrittika vihar (Monas¬tery) near Karnasuvarna.

Question 15. The value of gold coins declined during Sasanka’s reign.

  1. Counterfeit gold coins were circulated.
  2. An excess of silver coins were minted.
  3. An excess of bronze coins were minted.

Answer: 1. Counterfeit gold coins were circulated.

Question 16. The power of Gauda declined.

  1. Harshavardhana defeated Sasanka, the ruler of Gauda.
  2. Sasanka could not set up a long-lasting dynasty.
  3. Sasanka’s army was very weak.

Answer: 2. Sasanka could not set up a long-lasting dynasty.

Question 17. Karnasuvarna had commercial links with South-East Asia.

  1. A trader from Raktamrittika of Karnasuvarna went to Malaya of Southeast Asia for trade.
  2. Many people from the adjoining areas of Karnasuvarna went to South East Asia for trade.
  3. Karnasuvarna was an international commercial center.

Answer: 1. A trader from Raktamrittika of Karnasuvarna went to Malaya of Southeast Asia for trade.

Question 18. During Sasanka’s reign, society gradually turned village-centric.

  1. The demand for land increased in society.
  2. Agriculture grew important.
  3. Commerce grew important.

Answer: 2. Agriculture grew important.

Question 19. The Palas lost Varendra due to the

  1. Brahmana revolt
  2. Dasa revolt
  3. Kaivarta revolt
  4. Sepoy mutiny

Answer: 3. Kaivarta revolt

Question 20. Three leaders of the Kaivarta Revolt were

  1. Divya, Rudok, and Bhim
  2. Gopala, Lakshmanasena and Mahipala
  3. Sasank, Devapala and Mahipala I
  4. Ramapala, Dharmapala and Devapala

Answer: 1. Divya, Rudok, and Bhim

Question 21. The last king of the Sen dynasty was

  1. Samantasena
  2. Vijaysena
  3. Lakshmanasena
  4. Hemantasena

Answer: 3. Lakshmanasena

Question 22. The Palas were

  1. Brahmanas
  2. Kshatriyas
  3. Vaishyas
  4. Shudras

Answer: 2. Kshatriyas

Question 23. The objective of the Tripartite Struggle was capturing

  1. Lakhnauti
  2. Kanauj
  3. Bikrampur
  4. Magadha

Answer: 2. Kanauj

Question 24. Which Indian dynasty established dominance over foreign land?

  1. Maurya
  2. Gupta
  3. Pushyabhuti
  4. Chola

Answer: 4. Chola

Question 25. Who defeated the Chalukyas of Kalyani?

  1. Rajendra Chola I
  2. Rajaraja
  3. Vijayalaya
  4. Dantidurga

Answer: 1. Rajendra Chola I

Question 26. Which region became the focal point of the Uttarapatha?

  1. Ujjain
  2. Magadha
  3. Gandhara
  4. Kanauj

Answer: 4. Kanauj

Question 27. The Sena power in Bengal came to an end.

  1. The Sena rulers could not resist the Turkish invasions.
  2. The administration became weak due to the conservative nature of the rulers.
  3. The subjects revolted incessantly against the rulers.

Answer: 1. The Sena rulers could not resist the Turkish invasions.

Question 28. Rajendra, I took the title of Gangaikondachola.

  1. Rajendra I worshipped Goddess Ganga.
  2. Rajendra I stationed a powerful navy in the Ganges.
  3. Rajendra I defeated Gangetic Bengal successfully.

Answer: 3. Rajendra I defeated Gangetic Bengal successfully.

Question 29. The Palas weakened after Devapala’s reign.

  1. The Palas lacked a powerful navy.
  2. The Palas had strong discord among themselves.
  3. The Pala rulers were weak.

Answer: 2. The Palas had strong dissension among themselves.

Question 30. The Cholas controlled Indian trade and commerce in South-East Asia.

  1. The Chola rulers were skilled in trade and commerce.
  2. The Cholas brought the whole of Southeast Asia under control.
  3. Rajaraja I and Rajendra I built a strong navy.

Answer: 3. Rajaraja I and Rajendra I built a strong navy.

Question 31. The founder of Islam is

  1. Abu Bakr
  2. Oman
  3. Osman
  4. Hazrat Muhammad

Answer: 4. Hazrat Muhammad

Question 32. In the 6th century Arabs took up their means of livelihood

  1. Carpentry
  2. Agriculture
  3. Goldsmith
  4. Trade

Answer: 4. Trade

Question 33. Hazrat Muhammad was

  1. A TeacherAn Artist
  2. A MusicianA Merchant

Answer: 4. A Merchant

Question 34. Before Islam the Arabs were

  1. Peace-Loving
  2. Quarrelsome
  3. Militant
  4. Nomadic

Answer: 2. Quarrelsome

Question 35. Muhammad went to Medina in

  1. 610 AD
  2. 620 AD
  3. 630 AD
  4. 622 AD

Answer: 4. 622 AD

Question 36. Hazrat Muhammad passed away in

  1. 632 AD
  2. 642 AD
  3. 652 AD
  4. 662 AD

Answer: 1. 632 AD

Question 37. Caliph means

  1. Governor
  2. President
  3. Chairman
  4. Director Of An Organisation

Answer: 1. Governor

Question 38. Caliphate means

  1. Territory
  2. A State
  3. A Province
  4. A District

Answer: 1. Territory

Question 39. Conquest of Sind took place in

  1. 710 AD
  2. 711 AD
  3. 712 AD
  4. 714 AD

Answer: 3. 712 AD

Question 40. The Conquest of Sind was led by

  1. Muhammad bin Qasim
  2. Bakhtiyar Khilji
  3. Sultan Mahmud
  4. Muhammad Ghori

Answer: 1. Muhammad bin Qasim

Question 41. The first battle of Tarain took place in

  1. 1090 AD
  2. 1091 AD
  3. 1092 AD
  4. 1191 AD

Answer: 4. 1191 AD

Question 42. Prithviraj Chauhan III died in

  1. 1191 AD
  2. 1192 AD
  3. 1193 AD
  4. 1194 AD

Answer: 2. 1192 AD

Question 43. Delhi Sultanate was established by

  1. Muhammad Ghori
  2. Bakhtiyar Khilji
  3. Sultan Mahmud
  4. Qutbuddin Aibak

Answer: 4. Qutbuddin Aibak

Question 44. The capital of Lakshmanasena was in

  1. Nabadwip
  2. Medinipur
  3. Burdwan
  4. Cooch Behar

Answer: 1. Nabadwip

Question 45. Bakhtiyar Khilji died in

  1. 1202 AD
  2. 1204 AD
  3. 1206 AD
  4. 1208 AD

Answer: 3. 1206 AD

Question 46. Clashes broke out between different tribes over the occupation of the city of Mecca.

  1. The tribes were formidable nomads.
  2. Mecca was located at the junction of two trade routes.
  3. Foreign enemies wanted to occupy Mecca in greed for wealth.

Answer: 2. Mecca was located at the junction of two trade routes.

Question 47. The Arab tribes were able to unite.

  1. Muhammad’s religious view differed from the religious practices of the people of Mecca.
  2. Muhammad introduced a new religious belief to stop religious divisions.
  3. The Arab tribes accepted the religious views of the people of Mecca.

Answer: 2. Muhammad introduced a new religious belief to stop religious divisions.

Question 48. In the history of India, Sultan Mahmud is known as an invader.

  1. Mahmud plundered a lot of wealth from India many times.
  2. Mahmud, a devout Muslim, repeatedly invaded India only to spread Islam.
  3. Mahmud has repeatedly attacked to occupy India.

Answer: 1. Mahmud plundered a lot of wealth from India many times.

Question 49. Mohammad Ghori attacked India.

  1. He wanted to make India a part of the Caliphate.
  2. He wanted to be the ruler of India.
  3. He wanted to plunder the wealth of India and take it to his kingdom.

Answer: 2. He wanted to be the ruler of India.

Question 50. The capital of Sasanka was

  1. Karnasuvarna
  2. Tanjore
  3. Delhi
  4. Kalinga

Answer: 1. Karnasuvarna

Question 51. The poet of Ramcharita was

  1. Banabhatta
  2. Ravikirti
  3. Sandhyakar Nandi
  4. Tulsidas

Answer: 3. Sandhyakar Nandi

Question 52. The Turkish warrior during Lakshmanasena was

  1. Minhaj-i-Siraj
  2. Al Biruni
  3. Bakhtiyar Khilji
  4. Alauddin Khilji

Answer: 3. Bakhtiyar Khilji

WBBSE Class 7 Geography Multiple Choice Questions 

WBBSE Class 7 Geography Multiple Choice Questions

WBBSE Class 7 Geography Notes

WBBSE Class 7 Geography Notes