WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science Chapter 5 Energy

Chapter 5 Energy Synopsis

Energy is the capacity of a body to do work. It is measured by the amount of work that a body can perform.

In CGS system and SI, the absolute units of energy are erg and joule (J) respectively.

W • h and kW • h are also practical units of energy.

1 kW • h = 1000 W • h = 1000 J/s x 3600 s = 3.6 x 106 J

Dimensional formula of energy is ML2T-2.

The energy that a body or a system acquires by virtue of its configuration, position or motion, is known as mechanical energy. Mechanical energy is of two types:

  1. kinetic energy and
  2. potential energy.

Kinetic energy is the energy acquired by a body by virtue of its motion. If a body of mass m is moving with a velocity v, then its kinetic energy, Ek = 1/2 mv2.

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When E is the kinetic energy of a body of mass m, then its linear momentum, p = \(\sqrt{2 m E}\).

The energy acquired by a body by virtue of its position or configuration is called its potential energy.

When a body changes its position against gravity, it gains a certain amount of energy which is called gravitational potential energy.

A body of mass m is raised a height of h against gravity [h \(\ll\) R being the radius of the earth], then its gravitational potential energy, Ep = mgh.

Value of gravitational potential energy on the surface of the earth is taken to be zero. The sum of kinetic energy and potential energy is considered as mechanical energy.

The total mechanical energy of a body or a system remains constant in the absence of resistant forces or other dissipative forces.

Chapter 5 Energy Short And Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1. What is energy? What is its dimensional formula? What are its units in CGS system and SI?

Answer:

Energy, Dimensional Formula And Units In CGS And SI:-

  1. Energy is the capacity of a body to do work.
  2. Energy is measured by the amount of work a body can do. So, units and dimensional formulas of energy and work are the same.
  3. Dimensional formula of energy is ML2T-2.
  4. Units of energy in CGS system and SI are erg and joule, respectively.

Question 2. Name different forms of energy.

Answer:

Different Forms Of Energy Are:-

Energy is present in nature in different forms. These are

  1. Mechanical energy,
  2. Heat energy,
  3. Chemical energy,
  4. Sound energy,
  5. Electric energy,
  6. Magnetic energy,
  7. Light energy,
  8. Atomic energy.

Question 3. What is mechanical energy? How many types of mechanical energy are there? Name them.

Answer:

Mechanical Energy:-

Mechanical energy is the energy that is possessed by an object due to its motion or position or change of configuration or all these three.

Mechanical Energy Is Of Two Types:-

  1. kinetic energy and
  2. potential energy.

WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science Chapter 5 Energy

Question 4. What is kinetic energy? Establish the formula for the kinetic energy of a body of mass m moving with velocity u.

Answer:

Kinetic Energy:-

Kinetic energy is the energy acquired by a body by virtue of its motion.

Formula For The Kinetic Energy Of A Body Of Mass m Moving With Velocity u:-

Suppose, a body of mass m is moving in a straight line with velocity u. A constant force F is applied against the motion of the body to bring it to rest after traversing a distance s.

As the body has traversed a distance s against a force F, it has the capacity to do Fs amount of work. Hence, its kinetic energy = Fs.

If a is the deceleration of the body for applying force F against its motion, then a = \(\frac{F}{m}\).

It stops after traveling a distance s, so its final velocity, v = 0.

From the equation v2 = u2 – 2as, we get

0 = u2 – 2as or, 2as = u2

or, s = \(\frac{u^2}{2 a}\)

∴ kinetic energy of the body,

∴ \(E_k=F s=m a \times \frac{u^2}{2 a}=\frac{1}{2} m u^2\)

Question 5. Can the kinetic energy of a body be negative? Explain.

Answer:

The Kinetic Energy Of A Body Cannot Be Negative:-

The formula for measuring the kinetic energy of a body is 1/2mv2, where m is its mass and v is its velocity.

The value of m can never be negative.

On the other hand, v2 is a squared quantity and hence its value can never be negative. So, the kinetic energy of a body cannot be negative.

Question 6. The kinetic energy of a body of mass m is E, Show that its linear momentum, p = \(\sqrt{2 m E}\)

Answer:

Given

The kinetic energy of a body of mass m is E

Suppose, the body of mass m is moving with uniform velocity v.

∴ kinetic energy, E = \(\frac{1}{2} m v^2\)

or, \(v^2=\frac{2 E}{m} \text { or, } \quad v=\sqrt{\frac{2 E}{m}}\)

Now, the linear momentum of the body is given by

p = \(m v=m \sqrt{\frac{2 E}{m}}=\frac{\sqrt{2 E}}{\sqrt{m}} \times m=\sqrt{2 m E}\)

Question 7. If the kinetic energy of a body moving with velocity v Is E, show its linear momentum; p = 2EV.

Answer:

Given

If the kinetic energy of a body moving with velocity v Is E,

Let m be the mass of the body moving with velocity v.

So, kinetic energy of the body, E = 1/2mv2 momentum p = mv.

∴ \(\frac{P}{E}=\frac{m v}{\frac{1}{2} m v^2} \quad \text { or, } p=2 E v\)

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Question 8. The kinetic energies of two bodies (one light and one heavy) are equal. Which one has the higher linear momentum?

Answer:

Given

The kinetic energies of two bodies (one light and one heavy) are equal.

Suppose the masses of the light body and the heavy body are m1 and m2, respectively.

Further, they have the same kinetic energy, E.

∴ linear momentum of the light body, \(p_1=\sqrt{2 m_1 E}\)

and linear momentum of the heavy body, \(p_2=\sqrt{2 m_2 E}\)

∴ \(\frac{p_1}{p_2}=\frac{\sqrt{2 m_1 E}}{\sqrt{2 m_2 E}}=\sqrt{\frac{m_1}{m_2}}<1\)

or, \(p_1<p_2 \text { or } p_2>p_1\)

So, linear momentum of the heavy body is higher if the kinetic energies of the light body and the heavy body are equal.

Question 9. The linear momentum of two bodies (one light and one heavy) are equal. Which one has the higher kinetic energy?

Answer:

Given

The linear momentum of two bodies (one light and one heavy) are equal.

Suppose the masses of the light body and the heavy body are m1 and m2 respectively. Further they have the some momentum, p.

So the kinetic energy of the light body \(E_1=\frac{p^2}{2 m_1}\)

and kinetic energy of the heavy body, \(E_2=\frac{p^2}{2 m_2}\)

So, \(\frac{E_1}{E_2}=\frac{p^2}{2 m_1} \times \frac{2 m_2}{p^2}=\frac{m_2}{m_1}>1\)  [because \(m_2>m_1\)]

∴ \(E_1>E_2\)

Hence, if a light body and a heavy body have the same linear momentum, the lighter body has the higher kinetic energy.

Question 10. A body of mass m is moving with constant acceleration from rest. Its velocity is v after t seconds. What is its kinetic energy at time T?

Answer:

Given

A body of mass m is moving with constant acceleration from rest. Its velocity is v after t seconds.

If the acceleration of the body is a, then v = at or, a = \(\frac{v}{t}\)

After time T, its velocity V = aT or, V = \(\frac{vT}{t}\)

∴ kinetic energy of the body after time T,

∴ \(E_k=\frac{1}{2} m V^2=\frac{m}{2} \cdot \frac{v^2 T^2}{t^2}\)

Question 11. Two masses are attached to the two ends of a spring, which Is lying on a smooth horizontal table. The two bodies are pulled in opposite directions and then released. Show that at any moment, the kinetic energy of each body is inversely proportional to its mass.

Answer:

Given

Two masses are attached to the two ends of a spring, which Is lying on a smooth horizontal table. The two bodies are pulled in opposite directions and then released.

Suppose the masses of the two bodies are m1 and m2 respectively and at any moment, their velocities are u1 and u2, respectively.

∴ according to the law of conversation of linear momentum,

⇒ \(m_1 u_1+m_2 u_2=0 \text { or, } m_1 u_1=-m_2 u_2\)

or, \(m_1^2 u_1^2=m_2^2 u_2^2\)……(1)

At that moment, kinetic energy of the first body, \(E_1=\frac{1}{2} m_1 u_1^2\) and the kinetic energy of the second body, \(E_2=\frac{1}{2} m_2 u_2^2\)

WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science Chapter 5 Energy Two Masses Are Attached To The Two Ends Of Spring Lying On A Smooth Horizontal Table

∴ \(\frac{E_1}{E_2}=\frac{\frac{1}{2} m_1 u_1^2}{\frac{1}{2} m_2 u_2^2}=\frac{m_1^2 u_1^2}{m_2^2 u_2^2} \times \frac{m_2}{m_1}=\frac{m_2}{m_1}\) [from equation(1)]

or, m1E1 = m2E1

So, at any moment, kinetic energy of each body is inversely proportional to its mass.

Question 12. A body with kinetic energy of 10 J is thrown upward. If air resistance is ignored, what is the potential energy of the body at the highest point?

Answer:

At the highest point, the kinetic energy of the body becomes zero. Hence, according to the law of conservation of energy, potential energy becomes 10J.

Question 13. Explain elastic potential energy and gravitational potential energy with examples.

Answer:

Elastic potential energy

A stone is thrown from a rubber catapult with a high velocity. Here, when the rubber band is stretched to increase its length, it develops a capacity to work which enables it to throw the stone with high velocity. This energy of the stretched string is potential energy in nature and is called elastic potential energy.

Again, work is done if a body is raised to some height against gravity. Then, it also develops some capacity to work.

For example, if a hammer is placed on a nail standing erect on the ground, it does not pierce the ground but if the hammer is raised to some height and then hit straight on the top of the nail, the nail enters a bit into the ground.

Here, displacement of the nail is due to application of force by the hammer. In this case, when the hammer is raised upward, it develops the capacity of doing work. We may say that some amount of gravitational potential energy is stored in the hammer in this way.

Question 14. What is gravitational potential energy? Develop a formula for gravitational potential energy.

Answer:

Gravitational potential energy

  1. Gravitational potential energy is defined as the potential or capacity to work gained by a body due to the change of its position in a gravitational field.
  2. Suppose a body of mass m is raised to a height h against gravity (here, h \(\ll\) R, R being the radius of the earth). Force acting on the body m is the weight mg of the body. So, work done against gravity = mg x h = mgh This work is stored in the body as potential energy. Hence, the gravitational potential energy of the body, Ep = mgh.

WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science Chapter 5 Energy Gravitational Potential Energy

Question 15. Can gravitational potential energy be negative?

Answer:

Yes, Gravitational Potential Energy Can Be Negative:-

If a body of mass m is raised through a height h from the surface of the earth, gravitational potential energy of the body, Ep = mgh. Again, if it is taken to a depth of h from the earth’s surface, then Ep = -mgh .

So, it may be said that gravitational potential energy depends on the reference plane. Here, surface of the earth is the reference plane. If a body is above the reference plane, its potential energy is positive and if the body is below the reference plane, its potential energy is negative.

Question 16. What is the gravitational potential energy of a body on the surface of the earth if the earth’s surface is considered as the reference plane? At a height of h from the earth’s surface, what is the change of gravitational potential energy of the same body?

Answer:

If earth’s surface is taken as the reference plane, then gravitational potential energy on the surface is zero. It may also be said that if h = 0, then gravitational potential energy = mg x 0 = 0.

If a body of mass is raised to a height of h from the earth’s surface, then gravitational potential energy of the body, Ep = mgh.

Again, if the body is taken at a depth of h below the earth’s surface, then gravitational potential energy, Ep‘ = -mgh.

WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science Chapter 5 Energy Gravitational Potential Energy Of A Body On The Surface Of The Earth

Question 17. Give an example of the potential energy of a body due to change of its position.

Answer:

Hydroelectricity is produced by confining water in a raised place with a barrier. In this case, potential energy is stored in water due to change of its position.

Question 18. Give an example of the potential energy of a body due to change of its shape.

Answer:

The energy used by an archer to pull the string back in his bow is stored in the elastic material of the bow. This is an example of potential energy due to change of shape.

Question 19. Calculate the reduction in potential energy of a body of mass m at tth second, falling freely from rest.

Answer:

Suppose the body falling freely falls through distances h1 and h2 from rest during time (t-1)s and ts respectively, then

\(h_1=\frac{1}{2} g(t-1)^2 \text { and } h_2=\frac{1}{2} g t^2\)

∴ distance covered at the tth second,

h = \(h_2-h_1=\frac{1}{2} g t^2-\frac{1}{2} g(t-1)^2\)

= \(\frac{1}{2} g\left(t^2-t^2+2 t-1\right)=\frac{1}{2} g(2 t-1)\)

Now, as the body is falling down in a perpendicular direction, its potential energy is reduced.

∴ reduction in potential energy during the tth second

= mgh = mg x 1/2 g(2t- 1) = 1/2 mg2(2t- 1)

Question 20. A body has energy but no momentum is this situation possible?

Answer:

Yes, it is possible. A body when thrown upward, it stops for a moment at the highest point. At that moment, it has no momentum but has gravitational potential energy.

Question 21. A ball is kept on the top of a staircase. Is it possible to know without disturbing the ball, if there is any mechanical energy in it? How would one know if there is any potential energy stored in it?

Answer:

The ball is at rest on the top of the staircase. If it is not disturbed, it will forever remain in this state. This is due to the law of inertia. This means that the ball is an inert object and does not move itself.

Thus, if it is not disturbed, it cannot do any work. As energy is defined as a measure of the ability of a body to do work, unless the ball is shaken (disturbed), the external manifestation of energy in it is not possible. So, it is not known whether there is any mechanical energy in the ball or not.

As the ball is pushed from the top of the staircase, it starts rolling down the staircase. As a result, it may be said that the ball possesses kinetic energy. As energy cannot be created, so it may be reasoned that the potential energy stored in the ball changes into this kinetic energy.

Hence, in this way we come to know that gravitational potential energy is stored in this ball while it is on the top of the staircase.

Question 22. Write and explain the law of conservation of mechanical energy.

Answer:

Law Of Conservation Of Mechanical Energy:-

According to the law of conservation of mechanical energy, in the absence of any dissipative force (e.g. friction, air resistance, etc.), the total mechanical energy of a body or an agency always remains constant.

A stone is thrown up in a perpendicular direction. The more it goes up, more is the decrease of its velocity and finally, it comes to rest for a moment. Then it starts falling downwards and as it comes down, its velocity increases.

The stone was thrown upwards with a definite velocity or definite kinetic energy. Now as it goes up, its velocity decreases and kinetic energy also decreases. But its potential energy increases equivalently.

If air resistance is ignored, it can be proved that the decrease in kinetic energy of the stone is equal to the increase in its potential energy. That is, at any moment in its state of motion, the sum of kinetic energy and potential energy of the stone or total mechanical energy remains constant.

There is only a transformation from kinetic energy to potential energy or potential energy to kinetic energy. For example, at the highest point, the stone stops for a moment, and at that time, there is no kinetic energy of the stone.

Entire kinetic energy has been converted to potential energy. Next, when the stone drops downwards, then the potential energy decreases, and the kinetic energy increases. As the stone continues to drop down, its velocity continues to increase.

Question 23. A man pushes a chair on the ground to some distance and pulls it back to the same position, by push. Explain whether the theory of conservation of energy is valid in this case or not.

Answer:

Given

A man pushes a chair on the ground to some distance and pulls it back to the same position, by push.

If a chair is pushed on the ground to some distance, then there is no change in its potential energy. In a moving condition, there is a change of kinetic energy because the velocity of chair slowly diminishes to zero in this case.

Also, some amount of sound energy and heat energy due to friction are develop which are dissipative energies. In the same way, if the chair is brought back to the original position, the transformation of energy and resultant dissipative energy develop again.

Now, according to the theory of conservation of mechanical energy, mechanical energy of anybody is always constant, if there is no loss of energy due to friction or any other opposing force. But in the above case, the theory of conservation of mechanical energy does not hold good as there is loss of energy.

Question 24. Establish the law of conservation of mechanical energy for a freely falling body.

Answer:

Law Of Conservation Of Mechanical Energy For A Freely Falling Body:-

Suppose, a body of mass m is in a static position at point A which is at a height h from the earth’s surface. If the earth’s surface is taken as the reference plane, its kinetic energy at point A, E’k= 0, and potential energy, E’p = mgh.

∴ total mechanical energy of the body at point A is given by,

E’ = E’k + Ep‘ = 0 + mgh = mgh

Now as the body is allowed to fall, it falls under gravity with an acceleration g (acceleration due to gravity). After coming down a distance h1 to B, its velocity v1 at B is governed by the equation \(v_1^2=2 g h_1\).

∴ kinetic energy of the body at point B,

⇒ \(E_k^{\prime \prime}=\frac{1}{2} m v_1^2=\frac{1}{2} m \times 2 g h_1=m g h_1\)

Distance of point B from the surface of the earth is (h – h1).

∴ Potential energy of the body at point B, \(E_p^{\prime \prime}=m g\left(h-h_1\right)=m g h-m g h_1\)

WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science Chapter 5 Energy Gravitational Potential Energy Conservation Of Mechanical Energy For A Freely Falling Body

∴ Total mechanical energy at point B, \(E^{\prime \prime}=E_k^{\prime \prime}+E_p^{\prime \prime}\)

= \(m g h_1+m g h-m g h_1=m g h\)

Suppose, just before striking the earth’s surface, the body is at point C.

Its potential energy, E”‘ = mg x 0 = 0

If the velocity of the body at C is v, then v2 = 2gh.

∴ Kinetic energy of the body at point C, \(E_k^{\prime \prime \prime}=\frac{1}{2} m v^2=\frac{1}{2} m \times 2 g h=m g h\)

∴ Total mechanical energy at point C,

⇒ \(E^{\prime \prime \prime}=E_k^{\prime \prime \prime}+E_p^{\prime \prime \prime}=m g h+0=m g h\)

∴ \(E^{\prime}=E^{\prime \prime}=E^{\prime \prime \prime}\)

Hence, the mechanical energy is conserved for a freely falling body.

Question 25. As a balloon filled with hydrogen gas moves upwards, both the kinetic energy and the potential energy of the balloon increase. Is the law of conservation of energy violated in this case?

Answer:

Hydrogen gas is lighter than an equal volume of air. When a balloon is filled with hydrogen gas, it floats as the upward thrust of air on the balloon is greater than the weight of the balloon.

As a result, an upward resultant force acts on the balloon and the balloon goes up with acceleration. In this case, work done by this resultant force is equal to the sum of increase of kinetic energy and increase of potential energy of the balloon. In this case, law of conservation of energy is not violated.

Chapter 5 Energy Very Short Answer type Questions Choose The Correct Answer

Question 1. When the speed of a body is doubled, its kinetic energy becomes

  1. Doubled
  2. Quadrupled
  3. Halved
  4. Quartered

Answer: 2. Quadrupled

Question 2. When both the mass and the speed of a body is doubled, its kinetic energy becomes

  1. Four times
  2. Eight times
  3. Ten times
  4. Half

Answer: 2. Eight times

Question 3. Energy is

  1. The rate of doing work
  2. The capacity of doing work
  3. The power of doing work
  4. All of the above

Answer: 2. The capacity of doing work

Question 4. Amount of energy accumulated by a piece of stone falling freely just before touching the ground is

  1. Total kinetic energy
  2. Total potential energy
  3. Equal amounts of kinetic energy and potential energy
  4. Heat energy and sound energy

Answer: 1. Total kinetic energy

Question 5. The mechanical energy of a body thrown upward is

  1. Maximum at the highest point
  2. Minimum at the highest point
  3. Highest at the moment of just touching the ground
  4. Aame at all points

Answer: 4. Aame at all points

Question 6. Total energy of an oscillating simple pendulum for which the theory of conservation of mechanical energy holds good is

  1. Maximum at the central position
  2. Maximum at the terminal position
  3. Minimum at the central position
  4. Always constant

Answer: 4. Always constant

Question 7. Kinetic energy of the pendulum is

  1. Maximum at the central position
  2. Maximum at the terminal position
  3. Minimum at the central position
  4. Always constant

Answer: 1. Maximum at the central position

Question 8. potential energy of the pendulum is

  1. Maximum at the central position
  2. Maximum at the terminal position
  3. Minimum at the central position
  4. Always constant

Answer: 2. Maximum at the terminal position

Question 9. Dimensional formula of energy is

  1. ML2T-2
  2. MLT-2
  3. ML2T-1
  4. ML2T-3

Answer: 1. ML2T-2

Question 10. Linear momentum of a body of mass m and kinetic energy E is

  1. 2mE
  2. √2mE
  3. \(\frac{2E}{m}\)
  4. \(\sqrt{\frac{2 E}{m}}\)

Answer: 2. 2mE

Question 11. Kinetic energy of a particle of mass m and momentum p is

  1. \(\frac{p}{2 m}\)
  2. \(\frac{p^2}{2 m}\)
  3. \(\frac{2p^2}{2 m}\)
  4. \(\frac{p^2}{4 m}\)

Answer: 2. \(\frac{p^2}{2 m}\)

Question 12. Two objects have the same kinetic energy but their masses are in the ratio of 4:9. Ratio of linear momentum of the objects is

  1. 4:9
  2. 9:4
  3. 2:3
  4. 3:2

Answer: 3. 2:3

Question 13. Ratio of masses of two objects is 1: 2 and ratio of their kinetic energies is 2 :1. What is the ratio of their linear momentum?

  1. 1:1
  2. 2:1
  3. 1:2
  4. 1:4

Answer: 1. 1:1

Question 14. Linear momentum of two objects is same but the ratio of their masses is 2 : 3. Ratio of kinetic energies of these two objects is

  1. 3:2
  2. 2:3
  3. 4:9
  4. 9:4

Answer: 1. 3:2

Question 15. What is the kinetic energy of a bullet of mass 10 g moving with a velocity of 400 m/s?

  1. 100J
  2. 200J
  3. 400J
  4. 800J

Answer: 4. 800J

Question 16. Kinetic energy of a moving object of mass 2 kg is 16 J. Its momentum is

  1. 2 kg • m • s-1
  2. 4 kg • m • s-1
  3. 8 kg • m • s-1
  4. 12 kg • m • s-1

Answer: 3. 8 kg • m • s-1

Question 17. A mass of 0.03 kg is raised to a height of 20 m above the earth’s surface. The amount of potential energy stored in the mass is(g = 10 m/s2)

  1. 6J
  2. 6.28J
  3. 588J
  4. 0.588J

Answer: 1. 6J

Question 18. Unit of energy in SI is

  1. Newton
  2. erg
  3. Watt
  4. Joule

Answer: 4. Joule

Question 19. With increasing height of a body from the surface of the earth, the value of its gravitational potential energy

  1. Increases
  2. Decreases
  3. Remains same
  4. None of the above

Answer: 1. Increases

Question 20. If X = \(\frac{work}{energy}\), then the dimensional formula energy of X is

  1. ML-2T-2
  2. M2L2T-2
  3. MLT
  4. M°L°T°

Answer: 4. M°L°T°

Question 21. One empty lorry and a similar lorry loaded with goods are moving with the same speed. Which one of them has greater kinetic energy?

  1. Loaded
  2. Empty
  3. Both have the same energy
  4. None of the above

Answer: 1. Loaded

Question 22. Which of the following statements is not false?

  1. A moving body has no kinetic energy
  2. Potential energy is stored in a compressed spring
  3. Unit of power is W/m2
  4. Dimensional formula of work is ML-2T2

Answer: 2. Potential energy is stored in a compressed spring

Question 23. Mechanical energy is the sum of which of the following energies?

  1. Kinetic energy and potential energy
  2. Light energy and chemical energy
  3. Sound energy and light energy
  4. Heat energy and light energy

Answer: 1. Kinetic energy and potential energy

Question 24. Which of the following statements is not correct?

  1. SI unit of work is joule
  2. Potential energy and work have the same dimension
  3. 1hp = 746W
  4. Kinetic energy may be negative

Answer: 4. Kinetic energy may be negative

Question 25. Which of the following statements is correct?

  1. Dimensional formula of kinetic energy is ML2T-3
  2. Work = power x time
  3. Sum of mass and energy in this universe is constant
  4. Mathematical expression of potential energy is 1/2 mv2

Answer: 3. Sum of mass and energy in this universe is constant

Question 26. A body of mass m is falling freely from rest. Decrease of its potential energy in the first second is

  1. 1/2 mg2
  2. mg2
  3. 3/2 mg2
  4. 2mg2

Answer: 1. 1/2 mg2

Question 27. A body of 2 kg is allowed to fall from the top of a 50 m high tower. After one second of its journey, its kinetic energy is [g = 10 m/s2]

  1. 50J
  2. 75J
  3. 100J
  4. 200J

Answer: 3. 100J

Question 28. If the kinetic energy of a moving object increase by 20%, its linear momentum increases by

  1. 10%
  2. 11%
  3. 20%
  4. 21%

Answer: 1. 10%

Question 29. A student travels a distance of 200 m with his school bag of mass 5 Kg in his back his work done against the gravitational force is

  1. 0
  2. 0.6 J
  3. 6 J
  4. 6 x 102 J

Answer: 1. 0

Question 30. If a body moves with retardation its kinetic energy

  1. Decreases
  2. Increases
  3. Remain unchanged
  4. Increases first and then decreases

Answer: 1. Decreases

Question 31. A body of mass m is allow to fall freely from a height h. Kinetic energy of the body just before touching the ground is

  1. 0
  2. mgh
  3. \(\frac{mgh}{4}\)
  4. \(\frac{mgh}{2}\)

Answer: 2. mgh

Question 32. If kinetic energy of a body is 4 times that of the initial, then the ratio of initial momentum to that of the final is

  1. 1:2
  2. 4:1
  3. 1:4
  4. 2:1

Answer: 1. 1:2

Chapter 5 Energy Answer In Brief

Question 1. What is the relationship between kinetic energy and the momentum of a body of mass m?

Answer: If E is the kinetic energy of the mass m, its linear momentum, P = \(\sqrt{2 m E}\).

Question 2. If a body is raised some distance from the earth’s surface and then released, which energy is transformed to which energy?

Answer: In this case, gravitational potential energy stored in the body is transformed into its kinetic energy.

Question 3. What is the nature of energy conversion in the case of an arrow being shot from a bow?

Answer: An archer stores potential energy in the bow by bending its string which gets converted to kinetic energy when the arrow is shot.

Question 4. What is the condition of applicability of the law of conservation of mechanical energy?

Answer: Condition for applicability of the law of conservation of mechanical energy is that no dissipative force should be present.

Question 5. If air resistance is taken into consideration, is mechanical energy conserved in case of a body falling under gravity?

Answer: No, if air resistance is taken into consideration, mechanical energy is not conserved in case of a body falling under gravity.

Question 6. A body has momentum but no energy—is this situation possible?

Answer: No, it is not possible because if a body has momentum, it must have kinetic energy.

Question 7. What is the dimensional formula of kinetic energy?

Answer: Dimensional formula of energy is ML2T-2.

Question 8. What is the kinetic energy of a body of mass m with momentum p?

Answer: Kinetic energy of the body is \(\frac{p^2}{2 m}\)

Question 9. What is the condition of applicability of gravitational potential energy, Ep = mgh?

Answer: The condition of applicability of gravitational potential energy, Ep = mgh is h\(\ll\)R, where R is radius of the earth.

Question 10. Mechanical energy is the sum of which energies?

Answer: Mechanical energy is the sum of kinetic energy and potential energy.

Question 11. What is the relationship between work and energy?

Answer: Energy is the capacity of a body to do work.

Question 12. What is the relationship between the units of work and energy?

Answer: Energy is measured in the same unit as that of work.

Question 13. What is potential energy?

Answer:

Potential energy

Energy acquired by a body by virtue of its position or configuration is called its potential energy.

Question 14. What will be the kinetic energy of a body when its mass is made four times and the velocity is doubled?

Answer: Initial kinetic energy = 1/2 mv2 where m is mass and v is velocity of the body.

∴ Final kinetic energy of the body

= 1/2 x 4m x (2v)2 = (1/2 mv2) x 16

So, the kinetic energy becomes 16 times its initial value.

Question 15. Name the type of energy possessed by a raised hammer.

Answer: Potential energy.

Question 16. Two bodies of masses m1 and m2 have equal kinetic energies. What is the ratio of their linear momenta?

Answer:

Given

Two bodies of masses m1 and m2 have equal kinetic energies.

Momentum, P = \(\sqrt{2 E m}\) where E is kinetic energy and m is mass.

∴ \(\frac{P_1}{P_2}=\frac{\sqrt{2 E m_1}}{\sqrt{2 E m_2}}=\sqrt{\frac{m_1}{m_2}}\)

where P1 is momentum of the first body and P2 is momentum of the second body.

Chapter 5 Energy Fill In The Blanks

Question 1. When the velocity of a body is doubled, then its kinetic energy is ______

Answer: Quadrupled

Question 2. When the kinetic energy of a body is increased nine times, linear momentum becomes ______

Answer: Three times

Question 3. If two bodies have different masses but same kinetic energy, then the ______ body has more momentum.

Answer: Heavier

Question 4. If two bodies with different masses but same momentum, then the _______ body will have less kinetic energy.

Answer: Heavier

Question 5. If resistance due to air is neglected, its kinetic energy at a distance of \(\frac{h}{2}\) from the ground is _______

Answer: \(\frac{mgh}{2}\)

Question 6. According to the law of conservation of energy, _______ can neither be created nor destroyed.

Answer: Energy

Question 7. Total mechanical energy of a body is ________ when it falls under the influence of gravity.

Answer: Conserved

Question 8. Kinetic energy ______ be negative.

Answer: Cannot

Question 9. Gravitational potential energy _______ be negative.

Answer: Can

Question 10. If a bullet is fired from a gun, kinetic energy of the bullet is _________ than the kinetic energy of the gun.

Answer: Greater

Question 11. If the kinetic energies of two bodies of mass m and Am are in the ratio 2:1, then ratio of the momentum of the bodies is _________

Answer: 1:√2

Question 12. Gravitational potential energy is present due to existence of ________

Answer: Gravitational

Question 13. ________ is the energy acquired by a body by virtue of its motion.

Answer: Kinetic energy

Question 14. Energy is expressed in the unit of ________

Answer: Work

Question 15. Total ________ energy of a gas-balloon increases when it goes up with acceleration.

Answer: Mechanical

Question 16. Kinetic energy of a mass of m moving with a velocity v is \(\frac{1}{2}\) x m x ________

Answer: v2

Question 17. ________ energy of a freely falling body gradully increases.

Answer: Kinetic

Question 18. ________ energy of a freely falling body gradully decreases.

Answer: Potential

Question 19. ________ of a body of mass m with a kinetic energy E is \(\sqrt{2 m E}\)

Answer: Linear momentum

Question 20. Dimensional formula of kinetic energy is _________

Answer: ML2T-2

Question 21. __________ potential energy depends on the plane of reference.

Answer: Gravitational

Question 22. Total sum of ________ and sum of energy of this universe is a constant.

Answer: Mass

Question 23. Energy can neither be _______ nor _______

Answer: Created, destroyed

Question 24. Presence of ________  potential energy is not felt if there is no change in the height of the body.

Answer: Gravitational

Question 25. Two individuals A and B reach the peak of a mountain following two different paths. The value of their stored gravitational potential energy is _______

Answer: Same

Question 26. Potential energy of a body of mass m at a height h from the earth’s surface depends on the _______ of the earth.

Answer: Gravitational acceleration

Chapter 5 Energy State Whether True Or False

Question 1. In SI, the absolute unit of energy is joule (J).

Answer: True

Question 2. Energy acquired by a body by virtue of its position or configuration is called its kinetic energy.

Answer: False

Question 3. If a body changes its position against gravity, it gains certain amount of energy which is called gravitational potential energy.

Answer: True

Question 4. Kinetic energy of a body can be negative.

Answer: False

Question 5. Mechanical energy of a freely falling body is conserved.

Answer: True

Question 6. Linear momentum of a body of mass m and kinetic energy E is 2mE

Answer: False

Chapter 5 Energy Numerical Examples

Useful Information

  1. Kinetic energy of a body of mass m moving with velocity v is E = 1/2 mv2
  2. linear momentum of a body of mass m moving with kinetic energy E is p \(=\sqrt{2 m E} \quad \text { or, } E=\frac{p^2}{2 m}\)
  3. Gravitational potential of a body of mass m at a height h from the earth’s surface (h\(\ll\)R, R = radius of the earth) is Ep = mgh [g is acceleration due to gravity] and that of the body at a depth h from the earth’s surface is Ep = -mgh
  4. For a free falling body, total mechanical energy at any instant = kinetic energy + potential energy.

Question 1. What is the kinetic energy of a bullet of mass 20 g which is moving with a velocity of 500 m/s?

Answer:

Mass of the bullet, m = 20g = 0.02 kg

Velocity, v = 500 m/s

∴ kinetic energy of the bullet,

⇒ \(E_k=\frac{1}{2} m v^2=\frac{1}{2} \times 0.02 \times(500)^2=2500 \mathrm{~J}\)

Question 2. A body of mass 1 kg is allowed to fall from the top of a tower of height 100 m. What is the kinetic energy of the body

  1. after 1s of fall?
  2. at the moment of just reaching the base of the tower?

Answer:

Given

A body of mass 1 kg is allowed to fall from the top of a tower of height 100 m.

Mass of the body, m = 1 kg, acceleration of the body, a = g = 9.8 m/s2.

1. Velocity of the body after t = Is, v = at

or, v = gt = 9.8 x 1 = 9.8 m/s

∴ kinetic energy of the body after 1 s

= 1/2 mv2 = 1 x 1 x 9.82 = 48.02 J

2. Height of the tower, h – 100 m

If the velocity of the body at the base of the tower = v1, then

⇒ \(v_1^2=2 a h \quad \text { or, } v_1^2=2 g h\)

∴ kinetic energy at the base of the tower

= \(\frac{1}{2} m v_1^2=\frac{1}{2} \times m \times 2 g h=m g h\) = 1 x 9.8 x 100 = 980J

Question 3. The kinetic energy of a moving body of mass10 g is 2J. What is the linear momentum of the body?

Answer:

Given

The kinetic energy of a moving body of mass10 g is 2J.

Mass of the body, m = 10 g = 0.01 kg

Kinetic energy, E = 2 J

Velocity of the body = v

∴ linear momentum, p = mv

or, p2 = m2v2 = 2m x 1/2 mv2 = 2mE

∴ p = \(\sqrt{2 m E}\)

= \(\sqrt{2 \times 0.01 \times 2}=0.2 \mathrm{~kg} \cdot \mathrm{m} \cdot \mathrm{s}^{-1}\)

Question 4. The linear momentum of a moving body of mass 50 kg is 600 g • cm • s-1. What is its kinetic energy?

Answer:

Given

The linear momentum of a moving body of mass 50 kg is 600 g • cm • s-1.

Mass of the body, m = 50g

Linear momentum, p = 600g • cm • s-1

If velocity of the body = v, mv = p

or, \(v=\frac{p}{m}=\frac{600}{50}=12 \mathrm{~cm} \cdot \mathrm{s}^{-1}\)

∴ kinetic energy of the body,

⇒ \(E_k=\frac{1}{2} m v^2=\frac{1}{2} \times 50 \times 12^2=3600 \mathrm{erg}\)

Alternative method:

Mass of the body, m =50 g

∴ linear momentum, p = 600g • cm • s-1

∴ kinetic energy,

⇒ \(E_k=\frac{p^2}{2 m}=\frac{600^2}{2 \times 50}=3600 \mathrm{erg}\)

Question 5. If the kinetic energy of a body is increased by 44%, what is the percentage change in its linear momentum?

Answer:

Suppose, mass of the body =m and kinetic energy = E.

∴ linear momentum, p = \(\sqrt{2 m E}\) •••(1)

If the kinetic energy increases by 44%, then the new kinetic energy becomes

⇒ \(E_1=E+\frac{44}{100} E=1.44 E\)

and the new linear momentum becomes

⇒ \(p_1=\sqrt{2 m E_1}=\sqrt{2 m \times 1.44 E}\)

= \(1.2 \times \sqrt{2 m E}\)

or, p1 = 1.2p [from equation (1)]

∴ \(\frac{p_1-p}{p} \times 100 \%=\frac{1.2 p-p}{p} \times 100 \%\)

= 0.2×100% = 20%

So, if the kinetic energy of a body is increased 44%, its linear momentum increases by 20%.

Question 6. If the linear momentum of a moving body is increased by 30%, what is the change of its kinetic energy?

Answer:

Suppose the mass of the body is m and its linear momentum is p.

∴ kinetic energy, E = \(\frac{p^2}{2 m}\)……(1)

If the linear momentum is increased by 30%, the new linear momentum becomes

⇒ \(p_1=p+\frac{30}{100} p=1.3 p\)

and the new kinetic energy becomes

⇒ \(E_1=\frac{p_1^2}{2 m}=\frac{(1.3 p)^2}{2 m}=1.69 \frac{p^2}{2 m}=1.69 E\)

∴ \(\frac{E_1-E}{E} \times 100 \%=\frac{1.69 E-E}{E} \times 100 \%\)

= 0.69 x 100% = 69%

So, if the linear momentum of the body is increased by 30 %, its kinetic energy increases by 69%.

Question 7. A body of mass 200 g is thrown downwards with a velocity of 4.9 m/s from the top of a tower of height 15m. What is its kinetic energy just a moment before it strikes the ground? What is the total time of its fall?

Answer:

Giiven

A body of mass 200 g is thrown downwards with a velocity of 4.9 m/s from the top of a tower of height 15m

Mass of the body, m = 200 g = 0.2 kg

Initial velocity of the body which is going downwards, u = 4.9 m/s

Height of the tower, h = 15 m

If v is the velocity just a moment before it strikes the ground, then

v2 = u2 + 2gh = 4.92 + 2 x 9.8 x 15 = 318.01

or, v = 17.83 m/s

∴ kinetic energy of the body at that time,

⇒ \(E_k=\frac{1}{2} m v^2\)

= \(\frac{1}{2}\) X 0.2 x 318.01 = 31.801J

If total time of its fall = t, then v = u + gt

or, 17.83 = 4.9 + 9.81 or, 9.81 = 12.93 12.93

∴ t = \(\frac{12.93}{9.8}\) = 1.32 s

Question 8. A bomb of mass 4 m is disintegrated into two pieces of masses m and 3 m after an explosion. If the velocity of the first piece is u, how much energy is emitted in this explosion?

Answer:

Given

A bomb of mass 4 m is disintegrated into two pieces of masses m and 3 m after an explosion. If the velocity of the first piece is u

Suppose, the velocity of the piece with mass 3 m is v.

From the law of conservation of linear momentum, we get mu + 3mv = 0

or, 3 mv = -mu or, v = –\(\frac{u}{3}\)

∴ the energy emitted in the explosion,

E = \(\frac{1}{2} m u^2+\frac{1}{2} \cdot 3 m v^2=\frac{1}{2} m u^2+\frac{3}{2} m\left(-\frac{u}{3}\right)^2\)

= \(\frac{1}{2} m u^2+\frac{m u^2}{6}=\frac{2}{3} m u^2\)

Question 9. A tennis ball coming with a velocity of 15 m/s is sent back in the opposite direction with a velocity of 20 m/s. If the change of kinetic energy of the ball is 8.75 J, what is the change of momentum of the ball?

Answer:

Given

A tennis ball coming with a velocity of 15 m/s is sent back in the opposite direction with a velocity of 20 m/s. If the change of kinetic energy of the ball is 8.75 J,

Suppose the mass of the ball is m.

If the direction of the return path of the ball is taken as positive, then

initial velocity, u = -15m/s,

final velocity, v = 20 m/s,

change of kinetic energy of the ball is 8.75 J.

∴ \(\frac{1}{2} m v^2-\frac{1}{2} m \dot{u}^2=8.75 \text { or, } \frac{m}{2}\left(v^2-u^2\right)=8.75\)

or, \(m(v-u)(v+u)=2 \times 8.75\)

or, \(m(v-u)=\frac{2 \times 8.75}{(v+u)}=\frac{2 \times 8.75}{20-15}\)

= \(\frac{2 \times 8.75}{5}=3.5 \mathrm{~kg} \cdot \mathrm{m} \cdot \mathrm{s}^{-1}\)

So, change of momentum of the tennis ball is 3.5 kg • m • s-1.

Question 10. From a height of 8 m above the earth’s surface, a body of mass 1kg is thrown upwards in a perpendicular direction with a velocity of 250cm/s. What is its kinetic energy just before touching the ground?

Answer:

Given

From a height of 8 m above the earth’s surface, a body of mass 1kg is thrown upwards in a perpendicular direction with a velocity of 250cm/s

Mass of the body, m = 1 kg.

The body is thrown upwards in a perpendicular direction with a velocity of 250 cm/s.

Initial velocity of the body in the downward direction,

u = -250 cm/s = -2.5 m/s

If the velocity of the body is v just before touching the ground,

v2 = u2 + 2gh = (-2.5)2 + 2 X 9.8 x 8

or, v2 = 163.05

∴ kinetic energy of the body at that time,

⇒ \(E_k=\frac{1}{2} m v^2=\frac{1}{2} \times 1 \times 163.05\)

= 81.525 J

Question 11. The ratio of the kinetic energies of two bodies of masses m and 2m is 1:2. What is the ratio of their linear momentum?

Answer:

If the kinetic energy of the first body is E1, its linear momentum, \(p_1=\sqrt{2 m E_1}\)

and if the kinetic energy of the second body is E2, its linear momentum,

⇒ \(p_2=\sqrt{2 \cdot 2 m \cdot E_2}\)1

0∴ \(\frac{p_1}{p_2}=\frac{\sqrt{2 \cdot m \cdot E_1}}{\sqrt{2 \cdot 2 m \cdot E_2}}=\sqrt{\frac{E_1}{2 E_2}}\)

= \(\sqrt{\frac{1}{2} \times \frac{1}{2}}\left[because \frac{E_1}{E_2}=\frac{1}{2}\right]\)

or, \(\frac{p_1}{p_2}=\frac{1}{2}\)

∴ \(p_1: p_2=1: 2 \)

Question 12. What is the potential energy of a body of of mass 2 kg which is kept at a height of 15 m from the surface of the earth?

Answer:

Mass of the body, m = 2 kg.

Height of the body from the earth’s surface, h = 15 m

Acceleration due to gravity, g = 9.8 m/s2

∴ the potential energy of the body,

Ep = mgh = 2 kg x 9.8 m/s2 x 15 m = 294 J

Question 13. A ball of mass. 100g is thrown 5 m upwards in a vertical direction. What form of energy is present in the ball at the highest point? What is the value of this energy? What is its total energy just before striking the ground?

Answer:

Given

A ball of mass. 100g is thrown 5 m upwards in a vertical direction.

At the highest point, the ball does not have any velocity.

So, at a distance of 5 m from the ground, it has only potential energy stored in it.

∴ value of this energy = mgh = 100 g x 9.8 m/s2 x 5 m

= \(\frac{100}{1000}\)kg x 9.8 m/s2 x 5 m = 4.9 J

Just before it strikes the ground, its distance (h) from the ground is zero.

So, its kinetic energy = total mechanical energy.

According to the law of conservation of mechanical energy, this kinetic energy is equal to the potential energy stored in the ball when it is at the highest distance = 4.9J.

Question 14. Velocity-time graph of a body is shown

WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science Chapter 5 Energy Velocity Time Graph

  1. What is the change of kinetic energy from t = 5 s to t = 10 s?
  2. What is the acceleration of the body?
  3. What is the value of force applied on the body?
  4. Calculate the amount of work done by the applied force during time t = 5 s to t = 10 s. Show that the amount of work done during this time is equal to the Increase of kinetic energy of this body.

Answer:

1. From the graph, at time t1 = 5s, velocity v1 of the body is 15 m/s and at time t2 = 10 s, velocity v2 of the body is 20 m/s.

∴ change of kinetic energy during 5 s to 10 s,

⇒ \(E_k=\frac{1}{2} m v_2^2-\frac{1}{2} m v_1^2=\frac{m}{2}\left(v_2^2-v_1^2\right)\)

= \(\frac{2}{2}\left(20^2-15^2\right)=175 \mathrm{~J}\)

2. Acceleration of the body,

⇒ \(a=\frac{v_2-v_1}{t_2-t_1}=\frac{20-15}{10-5}=1 \mathrm{~m} / \mathrm{s}^2\)

3. Force applied on the body, F = ma = 2 x 1 = 2 N

Distance covered by the body during the time from 5 s to 10 s,

s = area of the trapezium EBCF

= \(\frac{1}{2}\)(BE+ CF) x EF = \(\frac{1}{2}\)(15+ 20)(10-5) = 87.5 m

∴ work done by the applied force during this time, W = F.S = 2 x 87.5 = 175 J

∴ W = E

Question 15. A body of mass 50 kg is falling freely from a height of 10 m. What is its total mechanical energy at any point of time?

Answer:

Given

A body of mass 50 kg is falling freely from a height of 10 m.

Total potential energy stored in a body of mass 50 kg at a height of 10 m and at rest is converted to total mechanical energy at any point of time during its free fall.

∴ required total mechanical energy = mgh = 50 x 9.8 x 10J = 490 J

Question 16. At what height above the surface of the earth, does the total energy of a freely falling body of mass 15 kg at any moment becomes 1176 J?

Answer:

The total mechanical energy of a body falling freely from rest always remains constant.

Suppose, the body falls from a height h.

So, mgh = 1176

or, h = \(\frac{1176}{m g}=\frac{1176}{15 \times 9.8}\) = 8m

Question 17. What amount of total work can a man do in 10 minutes, working with a power of 6 J/s?

Answer:

Power of the man, P = 6 J/s

Time of doing work, t = 10 min = 10 x 60s

∴ work done by the man,

W = P X t = 6 x 10 x 60J = 3600 J

Question 18. What is the velocity with which a bullet of mass 80 g has to be fired so that the value of its kinetic energy is 400 J?

Answer:

Mass of the bullet, m = 80 g = 80 x \(\frac{1}{1000}\) kg

Kinetic energy of the bullet, Ek = 400 J

Suppose the velocity of the bullet is v at the time of firing.

Now, according to the equation \(E_k=\frac{1}{2}mv^2\), \(v^2=\frac{2 E_k}{m}\)

or, \(v =\sqrt{\frac{2 E_k}{m}}=\sqrt{\frac{2 \times 400}{80 \times \frac{1}{1000}}}=\sqrt{\frac{2 \times 400 \times 1000}{80}}\)

= \(\sqrt{10 \times 1000}=100 \mathrm{~m} / \mathrm{s}\)

Question 19. A body of mass 100g is rolled up to the top of a smooth plane inclined at 30°. The height of the inclined plane from the ground is 1 m. Determine the value of gravitational potential energy stored in the body when it is at the top of the inclined plane.

Answer:

Given

A body of mass 100g is rolled up to the top of a smooth plane inclined at 30°. The height of the inclined plane from the ground is 1 m.

When the body is rolled up to the top of the inclined plane, its perpendicular height from the surface of the earth is 1 m.

Mass of the body, m – 100 g = 1/100 kg

Acceleration due to gravity, g = 9.8 m/s2

∴ the required gravitational potential energy,

Ep = mgh = 10 x 9.8 x 1 = 0.98 J

Question 20. A body of mass 100 g is thrown upwards in a vertical direction with a velocity of 10m/s. Calculate the kinetic energy of the body at a height of 2 m from the earth’s surface with the help of the law of conservation of mechanical energy.

Answer:

Given

A body of mass 100 g is thrown upwards in a vertical direction with a velocity of 10m/s.

Mass of the body, m = 100 g = 0.1 kg

Velocity with which the body is thrown, u = 10 m/s

Kinetic energy at the moment when the body is thrown,

⇒ \(\dot{E}_k=\frac{1}{2} m u^2=\frac{1}{2} \times 0.1 \times 10^2=5 \mathrm{~J}\)

Gravitational potential energy, Ep = 0

At a height of h = 2 m from the surface of the earth, gravitational potential energy,

⇒ \(E_p^{\prime}=m g h=0.1 \times 9.8 \times 2=1.96 \mathrm{~J}\)

If the kinetic energy of the body is Ek in that position, then from the law of conservation of mechanical energy, we get

⇒ \(E_k^{\prime}+E_p^{\prime}=E_k+E_p \quad \text { or, } E_k^{\prime}+1.96=5+0\)

∴ \(E_k^{\prime}=5-1.96=3.04 \mathrm{~J}\)

Question 21. A body of mass 1 kg is allowed to fall freely from a height of 20 m from the surface of the earth. Calculate the

  1. kinetic energy and potential energy of the body after 1 s of its release.
  2. kinetic energy and potential energy of the body after 2 s of its release (fall).
  3. Show that in the above two cases, total mechanical energy remains unchanged.

Answer:

Given

A body of mass 1 kg is allowed to fall freely from a height of 20 m from the surface of the earth.

Mass of the body, m = 1kg

Initial height, h = 20m

Acceleration due to gravity, g = 9.8 m/s2.

1. If v1 is the velocity of the body after t1 = 1s, then, v1 = gt1 = 9.8 x 1 = 9.8 m/s

If the body descends a distance h1 in one second,

⇒ \(h_1=\frac{1}{2} g t_1^2=\frac{1}{2} \times 9.8 \times 1^2=4.9 \mathrm{~m}\)

Kinetic energy of the body after 1 second, \(E_k^{\prime}=\frac{1}{2} m v_1^2=\frac{1}{2} \times 1 \times 9.8^2=48.02 \mathrm{~J}\)

and potential energy, E’p =mg(h – h1)

= 1 x 9.8(20 – 4.9) = 147.98J

2. If v2 is the velocity of the body after t2 = 2s, v2 = gt2 = 9.8 X 2 = 19.6 m/s

If the body descends a distance h2 in two seconds, then

⇒ \(h_2=\frac{1}{2} g t_2^2=\frac{1}{2} \times 9.8 \times 2^2=19.6 \mathrm{~m}\)

So, kinetic energy of the body after 2 seconds,

⇒ \(E_k^{\prime \prime}=\frac{1}{2} m v_2^2=\frac{1}{2} \times 1 \times 19.6^2=192.08 \mathrm{~J}\)

and potential energy, \(E_p^{\prime \prime}=m g\left(h-h_2\right)\)

= 1 x 9.8 X (20 – 19.6)= 3.92 J

3. Total kinetic energy of the body after 1 second,

⇒ \(E^{\prime}=E_k^{\prime}+E_p^{\prime}\) = (48.02 + 147.98) J =196J

and total kinetic energy of the body after 2 seconds,

⇒ \(E^{\prime \prime}=E_k^{\prime \prime}+E_p^{\prime \prime}\)

= (192.08+ 3.92)J = 196 J

∴ E’ = E ”

Hence, total mechanical energy remains unchanged.

WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science Chapter 5 Power

Chapter 5 Power Synopsis

Power is the rate of work done with respect to time, i.e., power is the work done in unit time. Power is a scalar quantity.

If W amount of work is done by a body in time t, then the power, P = \(\frac{W}{t}\).

Dimensional formula of power is ML2T-3

In CGS system and SI, the absolute units of power are erg/s and watt (W or J/s), respectively.

1 horse power is given by, 1hp = 550 ft • lb • s-1 = 746 W

Read and Learn More WBBSE Solutions for Class 9 Physical Science and Environment

Chapter 5 Power Short And Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1. Define power. What is the relationship between power and work done?

Answer:

Power:-

Power is defined as the rate of doing work with respect to time.

If the amount of work W is done in time t, then power, P = \(\frac{W}{t}\).

Question 2. What is the dimensional formula of power? What are the dimensions of power?

Answer:

Dimensional Formula Of Power:-

= \(\frac{\text { dimension expression of work }}{\text { dimension expression of time }}=\frac{\mathrm{ML}^2 \mathrm{~T}^{-2}}{\mathrm{~T}}\)

= ML2T-3

Dimensions of power are 1 in length, 2 in mass, and -3 in time.

Question 3. What is the relationship between power and velocity?

Answer:

Relationship Between Power And Velocity:-

We know, power = \(\frac{\text { work }(W)}{{time}(t)}\)

Suppose a small displacement s of a body takes place in the direction of a constant force F while being acted on the body for a time t.

∴ work done, W = Fs

So, power, P = \(\frac{W}{t}=\frac{F s}{t}\) = Fv, where v is the instantaneous velocity and time interval t is very small.

Question 4. Define absolute units of power in CGS system and SI.

Answer:

Absolute Units Of Power In CGS System And SI:-

Absolute unit of power in CGS system is erg/s.

1erg/s: 1 erg/s is the power of doing lerg of work in 1 second.

Absolute unit of power in SI is J/s or watt.

1 watt: 1 watt is the power of doing 1 joule of work in 1 second.

Question 5. Suppose a man walks a distance of 3 m in a horizontal path in 5 s with a bucket of water in hand. Then he climbs up 3 m in a staircase in 5 s with the same bucket. Explain in which case, the man has more power.

Answer:

Given

Suppose a man walks a distance of 3 m in a horizontal path in 5 s with a bucket of water in hand. Then he climbs up 3 m in a staircase in 5 s with the same bucket.

While walking in a horizontal plane with a bucket in hand, the force of graving acts in a direction opposite to the weight of the bucket. But the displacement of the bucket is horizontal, i.e., in a direction perpendicular to the force applied on the bucket.

Hence, this is a no-work force. As the amount of work is zero, the value of power is also zero. But while going up the staircase with the bucket, work is done against gravity. As a result, value of power is not zero. Hence, power is more in the second case.

WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science Chapter 5 Power

Question 6. What do you mean by kilowatt and horsepower?

Answer:

Kilowatt And Horsepower:-

Kilowatt: 1 kW (kilowatt) is defined as the power of doing 1000 J of work in Is. So, lkW = 1000W.

Horsepower: 1 horsepower is defined as the power of doing 550ft. ib of work by any machine or by a system in 1s.

∴ 1 horsepower = 550 ft • lb • s-1 = 746 W

Question 7. The power of an engine is 5 horsepower. What do you mean by the above statement?

Answer:

The power of an engine is 5 horsepower.

As 1 hp = 746 W, 5 hp = 5 x 746 = 3730 W.

That is, the power of the engine is 3730 W. This means that the engine can do a work of 3730 J per second.

Question 8. Sand is falling from the lower portion of a sand-filled moving truck. How does the kinetic energy of this truck change if the power spent by the engine remains unchanged?

Answer:

Given

Sand is falling from the lower portion of a sand-filled moving truck.

Power of the engine of the moving truck

= \(\frac{\text { work done by the engine }(W)}{\text { time of work done }(t)}\)

= \(\frac{\text { force } \times \text { displacement }}{\text { time }}\)

= \(\frac{\text { weight of the truck } \times \text { displacement }}{\text { time }}\)

= \(\text { weight of the truck } \times \text { average velocity }\)

= mg x v

In this case, due to the fall of sand from the truck, its mass (m) decreases gradually. But according to the question, in order to keep the power spent by the engine constant, the velocity (v) of the truck has to be increased in the same proportion.

Thus, the value of the quantity mg x v remains constant.

∴ mg x v = constant

or, mv = constant [g = constant]

Again, kinetic energy of the truck

= 1/2 mv2 = 1/2(mv) x v

Since v increases in spite of mv remaining constant, hence the kinetic energy of the truck increases in this case.

NEET Biology Class 9 Question And Answers WBBSE Class 9 History Notes WBBSE Solutions for Class 9 Life Science and Environment
WBBSE Class 9 Geography And Environment Notes WBBSE Class 9 History Multiple Choice Questions WBBSE Class 9 Life Science Long Answer Questions
WBBSE Solutions for Class 9 Geography And Environment WBBSE Class 9 History Long Answer Questions WBBSE Class 9 Life Science Multiple Choice Questions
WBBSE Class 9 Geography And Environment Multiple Choice Questions WBBSE Class 9 History Short Answer Questions WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Maths
WBBSE Solutions for Class 9 History WBBSE Class 9 History Very Short Answer Questions

 

Chapter 5 Power Very Short Answer Type Questions Choose The Correct Answer

Question 1. The product of applied force on a body with its speed gives a measure of its

  1. Power
  2. Energy
  3. Work
  4. Momentum

Answer: 1. Power

Question 2. Horsepower is the unit of which of the following physical quantities?

  1. Work
  2. Power
  3. Kinetic energy
  4. Potential energy

Answer: 2. Power

Question 3. Amount of work done by a machine of 1000W power in 1 minute is

  1. 60000 J
  2. 1000 J
  3. 600 J
  4. 100 J

Answer: 1. 60000 J

Question 4. A body is lifted from the ground slowly to a certain height in the first case. Again in the second case, the same body is lifted more rapidly to the same height from the ground. Which of the following statements is true?

  1. Though the amount of work done is same in both the cases, amount of power is higher in the first case
  2. Though the amount of work done is same in both the cases, amount of power is higher in the second case
  3. In both the cases, work and power are different
  4. In both the cases, work and power are same

Answer: 2. Though the amount of work done is same in both the cases, amount of power is higher in the second case

Question 5. 100W is written on an electric bulb. W is the unit for which quantity?

  1. Electrical energy
  2. Electrical power
  3. Electrical work
  4. Mechanical energy

Answer: 2. Electrical power

Question 6. Dimensional formula of power is

  1. MLT-3
  2. ML2T3
  3. ML2T-2
  4. ML2T-3

Answer: 4. ML2T-3

Question 7. Relationship between work (W) and power (P) is

  1. P = Wt
  2. P = W/t
  3. P = \(\frac{W}{t^2}\)
  4. P = \(\sqrt{W t}\)

Answer: 2. P = W/t

Question 8. The power of a pump is 490 W. How much time is required to raise 400 L of water to a height of 15 m using this pump?

  1. 60s
  2. 90s
  3. 120s
  4. 30s

Answer: 3. 120s

Question 9. Unit of power in CGS system is

  1. J/s
  2. erg/s
  3. W
  4. erg.s

Answer: 2. erg/s

Question 10. Power of the engine of a motorbike is generally expressed in which unit?

  1. Horsepower
  2. Watt
  3. Joule/second
  4. erg/second

Answer: 1. Horsepower

Question 11. Which of the following physical quantities has joule/hour as its unit?

  1. Work
  2. Kinetic energy
  3. Force
  4. Power

Answer: 4. Power

Question 12. A boy of mass 40 kg climbs up 40 steps of a staircase in 20 s. Each step is 20 cm high. What is the power applied by the boy? (g = 9.8 m/s2)

  1. 156.7 erg/s
  2. 156.8 J/s
  3. 165.84 W
  4. 165.84 erg/s

Answer: 2. 156.8 J/s

Question 13. Rate of doing work by a body with respect to time is called

  1. Force
  2. Power
  3. Energy
  4. Linear momentum

Answer: 2. Power

Question 14. If Y = \(\frac{\text { work }}{\text { power }}\), then the dimensional formula of Y is

  1. M0L0T0
  2. M0L2T0
  3. M0L2T1
  4. T

Answer: 4. T

Question 15. Compared to one kilowatt (kW), one horsepower (hp) is

  1. More
  2. Less
  3. Same
  4. Cannot be said

Answer: 2. Less

Question 16. The relationship between horsepower and watt is

  1. 1hp = 476 W
  2. 1hp = 764 W
  3. lhp = 746 W
  4. lhp = 674 W

Answer: 3. lhp = 746 W

Question 17. If Z = \(\frac{\text { work }}{\text { power }}\) work , then which quantity is represented by Z?

  1. Kinetic energy
  2. Potential energy
  3. Time
  4. Linear momentum

Answer: 3. Time

Question 18. A train moves against a frictional force of 5000 N at a velocity of 25 m/s. What is the power of the engine of the train?

  1. 1250 W
  2. 125000 J/s
  3. 1.25 X 106W
  4. 12.5W

Answer: 2. 125000 J/s

Question 19. A boy does a work of 400 erg in 5 s and a girl takes 10 s to do the same work. Which of the following statements is correct?

  1. The boy has more power
  2. The girl has more power
  3. Both have the same power
  4. None of the above

Answer: 1. The boy has more power

Question 20. Which of the following physical quantity have the unit J/h?

  1. Work
  2. Kinetic energy
  3. Force
  4. Power

Answer: 4. Power

Question 21. Work done = power x

  1. Velocity
  2. Speed
  3. Time
  4. Displacement

Answer: 3. Time

Question 22. Which one of the following is not the unit of power?

  1. erg/s
  2. W
  3. W.h
  4. J/s

Answer: 3. W.h

Chapter 5 Power Answer In Brief

Question 1. What is the unit of power in SI?

Answer: Watt is the unit of power in SI.

Question 2. What is the relationship between work and power?

Answer: Relationship between work and power is expressed by power = \(\frac{work}{time}\)

Question 3. What is the relationship between power and velocity?

Answer: The relationship between power and velocity is expressed by power = applied force x velocity of the body

[In this case, velocity of the body means instantaneous velocity.]

Question 4. Horsepower is the unit of which quantity?

Answer: Horsepower is the practical unit of power in FPS system.

Question 5. 1 horsepower = how many W?

Answer: 1 horsepower = 746 W.

Question 6. 1 kW = how much horsepower?

Answer: 1 kW = 1.34 horsepower

Question 7. What do you mean by 1 kilowatt of power?

Answer:

1 kilowatt of power

One kW (kilowatt) is defined as the power required to do a work of 1000J in one second, i.e., 1 kW = 1000W.

Question 8. The power of a pump is 1.2 kW. What do you mean by the above statement?

Answer: The power of a pump is 1.2 kW means that the pump can do a work of 1.2 kJ or 1200 J in one second.

Question 9. What is average power?

Answer:

Average power

Average power of is defined as the ratio of total work done to the total time taken.

i.e., average power = \(\frac{\text { total work done }}{\text { total time }}\)

Chapter 5 Power Fill In The Blanks

Question 1. Division of the unit of work by the unit of power gives the unit of _______

Answer: Time

Question 2. Multiplication of the unit of force by the unit of ________ gives the unit of power.

Answer: Velocity

Question 3. Power x _________ = work.

Answer: Time

Question 4. Power is a ______ physical quantity.

Answer: Scalar

Question 5. Power of a motor is 373 W. In hp unit the power of the motor is ________

Answer: 0.5

Question 6. Power of an agency depends upon how fast ______ is done by it.

Answer: Work

Chapter 5 Power State Whether True Or False

Question 1. Power is a scalar quantity.

Answer: True

Question 2. Power is the capacity of a body to do work.

Answer: False

Question 3. 1 horsepower = 746 kW.

Answer: False

Question 4. Rate of work done is power.

Answer: True

Question 5. Horsepower is a practical unit of power.

Answer: True

Question 6. The power of a pump is 1 kW means that the pump can perform 1000 J work in 1 s.

Answer: True

Chapter 5 Power Numerical Examples

Useful Information

  1. If W amount of work in done in time t, then W power P = \(\frac{W}{t}\).
  2. If the force applied on a body moving with velocity v be F then, power P = F x v
  3. If m mass is lifted to a height h against gravity in time t then power P = \(\frac{mgh}{t}\)

Question 1. How much energy is required to lift 200 L of water every minute to a height of 15 m ? [Mass of 1L of water is 1 kg]

Answer:

Mass of 200 L of water, m = 200 kg

Work W to be done to raise 200 kg of water to h = 15 m against gravity, W = mgh

Time, t = 1 min (=60 s) is required to do this work.

∴ power, P = \(\frac{W}{t}\) = \(\frac{mgh}{t}\)

= \(\frac{200 \times 9.8 \times 15}{60}\) J/s = 490 w

Question 2. The power of a man is 6W. How much work does he perform in 10 minute?

Answer:

Given

The power of a man is 6W.

Power of the person P = 6W, time to do work t= 10 x 60 = 600s

∴ Work done by the person W = P x t =6 X 600 = 3600 J

Question 3. A boy of mass 30 kg can go up 20 steps, each of height 10 cm, in 25 s. Calculate the power of the boy.

Answer:

Given

A boy of mass 30 kg can go up 20 steps, each of height 10 cm, in 25 s.

Mass of the boy, m = 30 kg

So, his weight = mg = 30 x 9.8 N

Height of 20 steps,

h = 10 x 20 cm = 200 cm = 2m

Work done by the boy,

W = mgh =30 x 9.8 x 2J = 588 J

This amount of work is done in t = 25 s

∴ power of the boy,

P = \(\frac{W}{t}\) = \(\frac{588}{25}\)J/s = 23.52W

Question 4. The power of a dump is 2kW. How much time does it take to fill up a tank of 800 L capacity kept at a height of 12 m with its help? [Mass of 1 L of water is 1 kg]

Answer:

Given

Power of the pump, P = 2 kW = 2000 W

Mass of 800 L of water = 800 kg

Work done to raise a mass of m = 800 kg to a height of h = 12 m against gravity,

W = mgh = 800 x 9.8 x 12J

∴ if t time is required to fill up the tank, then

t = \(\frac{W}{p}=\frac{800 \times 9.8 \times 12}{2000}=47.04 \mathrm{~s}\)

Question 5. A pump is lifting 600 kg of water per minute to a height of 20 m. If the efficiency of the pump is 80%, what is its power?

Answer:

Given

A pump is lifting 600 kg of water per minute to a height of 20 m. If the efficiency of the pump is 80%,

Suppose, power of the pump = P

Efficiency of the pump =80%

∴ effective power of the pump,

\(P_1=\frac{80}{100} P=0.8 P\)

With the help of the pump, a mass (m) of 600 kg of water is raised to a height of h = 20 m in t = 1 min = 60s.

So, \(P_1=\frac{m g h}{t} \text { or, } 0.8 P=\frac{m g h}{t} \text { or, } P=\frac{m g h}{0.8 t}\)

∴ P = \(\frac{600 \times 9.8 \times 20}{0.8 \times 60}=2450 \mathrm{~W}=2.45 \mathrm{~kW}\)

Question 6. A car is moving on a rough horizontal road with a uniform velocity. Friction of the road is 200 N and the power of the engine is 2 kW. Calculate the velocity of the car in km/h units.

Answer:

Given

A car is moving on a rough horizontal road with a uniform velocity. Friction of the road is 200 N and the power of the engine is 2 kW.

Friction of the road, F = 200 N

Power of the engine, P = 2 kW = 2000 W

Suppose, velocity of the car = v

So, P = f x v

∴ v = \(\frac{P}{F}=\frac{2000}{200}=10 \mathrm{~m} / \mathrm{s}\)

= \(10 \times \frac{18}{5} \mathrm{~km} / \mathrm{h}\)

[1 m/s = 18/5 km/h]

= \(36 \mathrm{~km} / \mathrm{h}\)

Question 7. A motor car moves with velocity 36 km/h by applying an average force of 20N. Find power of the car.

Answer:

Given

A motor car moves with velocity 36 km/h by applying an average force of 20N.

Velocity of the car,

v = 36 km/h = \(\frac{36000 \mathrm{~m}}{3600 \mathrm{~s}}\) = 10 m/s

Force applied by the car F = 20 N

∴ the power of the car P = F x v = 20 x 10 = 200 W

Question 8. The work done by a human heart is 11 per beat. Calculate power of the heart if it beats 72 times in a minute.

Answer:

Given

The work done by a human heart is 11 per beat.

Work done by the heart in 72 beats

W = 1 x 72 = 72 J

∴ power of the heart

P = \(\frac{W}{t}=\frac{72 \mathrm{~J}}{60 \mathrm{~s}}=1.2 \mathrm{~W}\)

WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science Chapter 5 Work

Chapter 5 Work Synopsis

  1. When on object is displaced from its initial position under the action of a force, then work is said to be done. Work is a scalar quantity.
  2. If d is the displacement of the object and F is the force applied, then work done, W=Fd.
  3. During application of force on a body, if the body gets displaced in the direction of the applied force, then work is said to be done by the force. This is also called positive work.
  4. During application of force on a body, if the body gets displaced in the direction opposite to that of the applied force, then work is said to be done against the force. This is also called negative work.
  5. When the displacement of an object is at an angle of 90° with the direction of force, then no work is done by the applied force. This type of force is called no-work force.
  6. The dimensional formula of work is ML2T-2.
  7. In CGS system and SI, the absolute units of work are erg and joule or 1 respectively.
  8. 1J = 1N x1m= 105 dyn . 100 = 107 erg.

Read and Learn More WBBSE Solutions for Class 9 Physical Science and Environment

Chapter 5 Work Short And Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1. Define work. How is the quantity of work measured?

Answer:

Work And Its Quantity Measurements :-

  1. When an object is displaced from its initial position under the action of a force, then work is said to be done.
  2. If applying a force F on a body displaces it by a distance d in the direction of the force, then work done, W = Fd.

WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science And Environment Chapter 5 Work Define Work And Quantity Of Work Measured

Question 2. Define absolute units of work in CGS system and SI. Establish a relationship between the two units.

Answer:

Absolute Units Of Work In CGS System And SI And Its Relationship:-

The absolute unit of work in CGS system and SI are erg and joule, respectively.

1 erg: 1 erg is defined as the work done when a force of one dyne (dyn) applied to a body displaces it by 1cm in the direction of the force.

1 erg = 1 dyn x 1 cm = 1 dyn • cm

1 Joule: 1 joule is defined as the work done when a force of 1 N (newton) applied to a body displaces it by 1 metre (m) in the direction of the force.

1J = 1N x lm = 1N • m

Relationship Between Joule (J) And Erg:

1J = 1N x 1 m = 105 dyn x 102 cm = 107 erg

WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science Chapter 5 Work

Question 3. What do you mean by work done by a force or positive work? Explain with examples.

Answer:

Work Done By A Force Or Positive Work Means:-

During the application of force on a body, if the body gets displaced in the direction of the applied force, then work is said to be done by the force. Since force and displacement are in the same direction, the value of this work is positive. Hence, it is called positive work.

WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science And Environment Chapter 5 Work Work Done By A Force Or Positive Work

For example, when a book is raised upward from the ground, work is said to be done by the force and is positive as the displacement of the book takes place in the same direction as that of the applied force.

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WBBSE Class 9 Geography And Environment Notes WBBSE Class 9 History Multiple Choice Questions WBBSE Class 9 Life Science Long Answer Questions
WBBSE Solutions for Class 9 Geography And Environment WBBSE Class 9 History Long Answer Questions WBBSE Class 9 Life Science Multiple Choice Questions
WBBSE Class 9 Geography And Environment Multiple Choice Questions WBBSE Class 9 History Short Answer Questions WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Maths
WBBSE Solutions for Class 9 History WBBSE Class 9 History Very Short Answer Questions

 

Question 4. What do you mean by work done against a force or negative work? Explain With examples.

Answer:

Work Done Against A Force Or Negative Work Means:-

During application of force on a body, if the body gets displaced in the direction opposite to that of the applied force, then work is said to be done against the force. Since applied force and displacement are in the opposite directions, the value of this work is negative. Hence, it is called negative work.

WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science And Environment Chapter 5 Work Work Done Against A Force Or Negative Work

For example, when a book is lowered slowly with constant velocity, an upward force is applied on the book at every moment. In this case, work is said to be done against the force and it is negative work as the displacement of the book takes place in the opposite direction as that of the applied force.

Question 5. What is a no-work force? Give two examples of no-work force.

Answer:

No-Work Force And Its Example:-

When the displacement of an object takes place in a direction perpendicular to the direction of the force, then no work is done by the applied force. This type of force is called no-work force.

Examples:

A man walks along a horizontal path with a suitcase in his hands. Force of gravity acts downward on the suitcase, but in a direction perpendicular to the displacement of the suitcase. Here, force of gravity is a no-work force.

WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science And Environment Chapter 5 Work No Work Force

Let us assume that due to the gravitational force of the sun, the earth is moving in circular orbits around the sun. At any position of the earth, the gravitational force acts along the radius towards the centre of the orbit and the direction of displacement is along the tangent at that point of the circular path.

This force of the sun on the earth is a no-work force since the direction of displacement of the earth at every point of its orbit is perpendicular to the force.

WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science And Environment Chapter 5 Work No Work Force Gravitational Force

Question 6. A stone attached to a thread, is rotated around a finger in a horizontal plane. Which force is working in which direction due to this rotation? What is the direction of the displacement of the stone at any moment? Give reasons in favour of your answer. Explain how much work is done by you due to this rotation.

Answer:

A strong pull is felt by the finger due to rotation of the stone. The faster this stone is rotated, the more this pull is experienced. The stone rotates due to the pull toward the centre along the radius of the circle (along the thread in this case). This I force is called centripetal force.

It can be said from experience that if the thread breaks during rotation by any means, then no force is applied on the stone through the thread. The stone is dislodged tangentially from the circular path. This means that during revolution, the direction of displacement of the stone is always tangential to the circle.

WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science And Environment Chapter 5 Work A Stone Is Always Tangential To The Circle

The pull of the thread is along the radius of the circle and the displacement of the stone is tangential to the circle. This means that applied force and displacement are perpendicular to each other. Hence, this force on the stone is a no-work force.

Question 7. A man is walking up an inclined plane with a box in his hand. Is the gravitational force doing any work on the box?

Answer:

Given

A man is walking up an inclined plane with a box in his hand.

It is shown how gravity attracts the box in a straight downward direction.

WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science And Environment Chapter 5 Work The Gravitational Force Doing Any Work On The Box

As a result, a component of gravity, W2 works downward along the inclined plane. But the displacement of the box takes place in upward direction along the inclined plane. So, gravity is doing positive work in this case.

Question 8. In a tug-of-war game, both the sides pull the rope with equal strength in opposite directions. What is the amount of work done by each side?

Answer:

In a tug of war game, both the sides pull the rope with equal strength but there is no displacement of the rope towards either side. As there is no displacement of the point of application of force, no work is done by the applied force and hence, the work done by each side is zero.

Question 9. In a tug-of-war game between teams A and B, team A which applies a force of 10 N is defeated by team B which applied a force of 12 N. In this case, which team has done positive work and which team has done negative work?

Answer:

In a tug-of-war game, team B has won. This means that team B has applied comparatively more force than team A. So, displacement of team A has taken place towards team B.

In this case, point of application of force i.e., displacement of team A has taken place towards direction of force applied by team B . Hence, team B has done positive work.

WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science And Environment Chapter 5 Work In A Tug Of War Between Team A Is Positive Work And B Is Negative Work

On the other hand, team A has also applied a force of 10 N on team B. In spite of that, displacement has taken place towards team B. Actually, team B has slide backwards in the game.

Hence, it may be said that displacement of team B was brought about by team A against the direction of force. So, team A has done negative work.

Question 10. A motor car is running on a horizontal road with uniform velocity. Is the engine of the car doing work in this condition?

Answer:

Given

A motor car is running on a horizontal road with uniform velocity.

Friction of the ground works against the motion of the car when it moves on a horizontal plane. To maintain the uniform velocity of the car, its engine applies a force equal to the frictional force in the direction of movement and for the displacement of the car against friction, the engine of the car works.

If the velocity of car=v; is frictional force = F, then work done by the engine per second = Fv.

WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science And Environment Chapter 5 Work A Motor Car Is Running On A Horizontal Road With Uniform Velocity

Question 11. A man walks to the top of a hill along a steep path. Another man having the same mass as the first one goes to the top via a complex route. Which individual does greater amount of work?

Answer:

Given

A man walks to the top of a hill along a steep path. Another man having the same mass as the first one goes to the top via a complex route.

Work done by an object or an individual is the product of the force applied on it and the displacement of the object or individual.

As the masses of the two men are the same in this case, so their weights are also same. This means that each man has applied the same force against his weight to climb the hill.

Again, displacement is defined as the linear distance between the initial and final positions of the moving object or individual. In this case, displacements for both the men are the same as they have climbed the top of the hill from the ground level. As a result, both have done the same work.

[Note: Frictional force has not been taken into account in the given case. In reality, different amounts of frictional forces act on them while climbing the hill. Hence, the amount of work done by the two men is different in that case.]

Question 12. A man is swimming against the current in such a way that he is stationary with respect to the shore. Is he doing any work?

Answer:

Given

A man is swimming against the current in such a way that he is stationary with respect to the shore.

As there is no displacement with respect to the shore, no work is done with respect to the shore. But there is displacement with respect to the river water, so work done by the man is not zero with respect to water.

Chapter 5 Work Very Short Answer Type Questions Choose The Correct Answer

Question 1. Which of the following vehicles does more work to traverse a fixed distance in the same path carrying the same weight?

  1. Bullock cart
  2. Bicycle
  3. Horse cart
  4. Same work is done by all the vehicles

Answer: 4. Same work is done by all the vehicles

Question 2. Unit of work in SI is

  1. Watt
  2. Erg
  3. Joule
  4. Dyne

Answer: 3. Joule

Question 3. In a tug of war,

  1. The defeated team does positive work
  2. The defeated team does negative work
  3. The victorious team does negative work
  4. No work is done by either of the teams

Answer: 2. The defeated team does negative work

Question 4. A body makes a complete round in a circular path and during its journey, average applied force on it was F, r being the radius of the circular path. What is the total amount of work done by the body?

  1. Zero
  2. 2πrF
  3. 2πF
  4. πrF

Answer: 1. Zero

Question 5. Gravitational force is a no-workforce. This is because

  1. Displacement of the body does not occur in the direction of gravitational force
  2. Displacement of the body occurs in a direction perpendicular to the direction of gravitational force
  3. Displacement of the body occurs in the direction opposite to that of gravitational force
  4. There is no displacement of the body

Answer: 2. Displacement of the body occurs in a direction perpendicular to the direction of gravitational force

Question 6. A body starts its journey from point A, traverses a path ACB and reaches point B. Average applied force, F acts on the body during the entire course of its journey. If the path ACB is semicircular with a radius r, the amount of work done by the body is

WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science And Environment Chapter 5 Work

  1. Zero
  2. πrF
  3. 2πrF
  4. 2rF

Answer: 4. 2rF

Question 7. A body held in hand is brought downward. Here, work is done against the force because

  1. The direction of applied force is downward
  2. The direction of gravitational force on the body is downward
  3. The direction of displacement of body is downward
  4. The direction of force applied on the body is upward but displacement of the body is downward

Answer: 4. The direction of force applied on the body is upward but displacement of the body is downward

Question 8. Dimensional formula of work is

  1. MLT-2
  2. ML2T-3
  3. ML2T-2
  4. MLT-3

Answer: 3. ML2T-2

Question 9. Application of 200 dyn force displaces a body 4 m along the direction of force. Work done is

  1. 0.004 J
  2. 0.008 J
  3. 0.08 J
  4. 800 J

Answer: 2. 0.008 J

Question 10. Work done to raise a mass of 4 kg to a height of 2 m against gravity (g = 9.8 m/s2) is

  1. 79.4J
  2. 39.2J
  3. 72.4J
  4. 78.4J

Answer: 4. 78.4J

Question 11. Example of no-work force is

  1. Frictional force
  2. Centripetal force
  3. Surface tension
  4. All of the above

Answer: 2. Centripetal force

Question 12. Work done by winding the spring of a manual-winding watch is stored in the watch as

  1. Sound energy
  2. Kinetic energy
  3. Potential energy
  4. Light energy

Answer: 3. Potential energy

Question 13. The relationship between joule and erg is

  1. 1J = 105erg
  2. 1J = 107erg
  3. 1J = 1010erg
  4. 1J = 10 erg

Answer: 2. 1J = 107erg

Question 14. Suppose you start racing from a fixed position in a field and come back to the same place. What is the total work done?

  1. Zero
  2. Positive quantity
  3. Negative quantity
  4. None of these

Answer: 1. Zero

Question 15. Two teams P and Q participate in a tug of war contest and pull the rope with the same force. Which team does more work?

  1. TeamP
  2. TeamQ
  3. No work is done by either team
  4. None of the above

Answer: 3. No work is done by either team

Question 16. A man drags a block 4 m on the floor. Friction force being 100 N, work done against friction is

  1. 40 J
  2. 0.4 J
  3. 400 J
  4. 4000 J

Answer: 3. 400 J

Question 17. A man weighing 40 kg, carrying a box of mass 10 kg, climbs up 10 steps of a staircase. If the height of each step is 20 cm, what is the amount of work done? [g = 10m/s2]

  1. 1000J
  2. 980J
  3. 900J
  4. 1100J

Answer: 1. 1000J

Question 18. Suppose you start racing from a fixed position in a field and come back to the some place. What is the total work done?

  1. Zero
  2. Positive quantity
  3. Negative quantity
  4. Unity

Answer: 1. Zero

Question 19. The angle between the applied force and displacement in the case of no work force is

  1. 45°
  2. 90°
  3. 180°

Answer: 3. 90°

Question 20. The work done on an object does not depend upon the

  1. Force applied
  2. Initial velocity
  3. Displacement
  4. Angle between force and displacement

Answer: 2. Initial velocity

Chapter 5 Work Answer In Brief

Question 1. Product of two vector quantities is a scalar quantity. Give an example.

Answer: Force and displacement are vector quantities but their product, work is a scalar quantity.

Question 2. Give an example of no-work force.

Answer:

Example of no-work force

Centripetal force is a no-work force.

Question 3. What is the dimensional formula of work?

Answer: Dimensional formula of work is ML2T-2.

Question 4. What is the absolute unit of work in SI?

Answer: The absolute unit of work in SI is joule (J).

Question 5. What is the absolute unit of work in CGS system?

Answer: The absolute unit of work in CGS system is erg.

Question 6. 1J = how many erg?

Answer: 1J = 107erg

Question 7. What is the angle between force and displacement in case of no-work force?

Answer: In case of no-work force, angle between force and displacement is 90°.

Question 8. How much work is done by a weight-lifter when he stands with a weight above his head?

Answer: As the weight-lifter stands still with the weight above his head without any displacement, no work is done by him.

Question 9. The earth moves around the sun due to the force exerted by the sun on the earth. Is any work being done by the sun due to this motion of the earth?

Answer: No, force of attraction or gravitational force of the sun on earth is a centripetal force which is a no-work force.

Question 10. Does work depend on the speed with which a body is raised upward?

Answer: No, work done depends on displacement of the body and not on the speed with which the body is raised upward.

Question 11. Apart from no-work force, is it possible for the value of work done to be zero in any other case?

Answer: Yes, if the displacement of a body is zero even after the application of force, amount of work done is zero.

Question 12. What is the value of work related to potential energy in a place where gravity is zero?

Answer: Value of work related to potential energy in a place of zero gravity, is zero.

Question 13. In a tug of war game, which side does work when the rope remains motionless?

Answer: As there is no displacement of the rope, none of the sides is doing any work.

Question 14. A book is raised upward with uniform velocity. In this case, is work being done against the force or by the force?

Answer: As the displacement of the book is in the direction of the applied upward force, work is being done in favour of the force.

Question 15. A book is lowered downward with uniform velocity. In this case, is work being done against the force or by the force?

Answer: As the displacement of the book is downward but the book is held using an upward force, work is done against the force.

Question 16. A book held in hand, is displaced horizontally with uniform velocity. What is the relationship between force and work in this case?

Answer: In this case, the applied force is a no-work force.

Question 17. Can we recover the work done under a force?

Answer: Work done can be recovered if it is done under a force where mechanical energy is conserved.

Question 18. A stone is thrown upward. Is work being done by or against the force of gravity?

Answer: In this case, work is done against the force of gravity since displacement of the stone is upward but gravitational force acts downward.

Question 19. When is work done by a force positive?

Answer: Work done by a force is positive when the displacement of the body is in the direction of the force.

Question 20. When is work done by a force negative?

Answer: Work done by a force is negative, when the displacement of the body is in the direction opposite to the direction of the force.

Question 21. How much work is done by a weight-lifter when he stands with a weight above his head?

Answer: If the weighter-lifter stands still with the weight above his head without any displacement, no work is done by him.

Question 22. Does work depend on the speed with which a body is displaced?

Answer: No, work done depends on displacement of the body, not on the speed with which the body is displaced.

Question 23. What is the work done by the force of gravity on a satellite moving round the earth?

Answer: The force of gravity acts at right angle to the displacement of the satellite, so work done is zero.

Chapter 5 Work Fill In The Blanks

Question 1. Work is a ______ quantity.

Answer: Scalar

Question 2. The applied force does not do any work if the angle between force and displacement is ________

Answer: 900

Question 3. Centripetal force is _______ force.

Answer: No Work

Question 4. Any car traversing the same path carrying the same weight does the same amount of ______

Answer: Work

Question 5. Negative work denotes that work is done ________ the force.

Answer: Against

Question 6. A boy fails to lift a water-filled bucket in spite of his attempts. Amount of work done by the boy is ________

Answer: Zero

Question 7. Work done by the string of a simple pendulum during oscillation is _______

Answer: Zero

Question 8. _________ work is done when a mass is taken up with constant velocity by holding it in hand.

Answer: Positive

Chapter 5 Work State Whether True Or False

Question 1. It is said that work has been done when there is displacement of an object due to the application of an external force on a body.

Answer: True

Question 2. Negative work is done when the point of application of force moves in a direction opposite to that of the applied force.

Answer: True

Question 3. It is said that work has been done when there is displacement of an object due to the application of an external force on a body.

Answer: True

Question 4. Positive work is done when the point of application of force moves in a direction of the applied force.

Answer: True

Question 5. When an airplane takes off the work done by its weight is positive.

Answer: False

Question 6. Work is a vector quantity.

Answer: False

Question 7. In a tug-of-war the stronger team does positive work.

Answer: True

Chapter 5 Topic A Work Numerical Examples

If applying a force F on a body displaces it by a distance d in the direction of the force, then work done, W = Fd

The absolute units of work in CGS system and SI are erg and joule (J) respectively.

Question 1. A body is displaced 2 m in the direction of an applied force of 400 dyn. Calculate the work done.

Answer:

Given

A body is displaced 2 m in the direction of an applied force of 400 dyn.

Applied force, F= 400 dyn

Displacement of the body in the direction of force, d = 2 m = 200 cm

∴ work done,W = Fd = 400 dyn x 200 cm = 8 x 104 erg

Question 2. A body of mass 10kg is raised upward by 5 m. Calculate the work done.

Answer:

Given

A body of mass 10kg is raised upward by 5 m.

Mass of the body, m = 10 kg

∴ applied force,

F = mg – 10 kg x 9.8 m/s2 = 98 N

Displacement of the body, d = 5 m

∴ W = Fd = 98N x 5m = 490J

Question 3. A man drags a .box 10 m on the floor. What is the work done against friction, if frictional force of the floor is 200 N?

Answer:

Given

A man drags a .box 10 m on the floor.

Frictional force of the floor = 200 N Displacement of the box against friction, s = 10 m

∴ work done against friction, W = Fs = 200 N x 10 m = 2000 J

Question 4. The mass and the length of a uniform chain are M and L respectively. This chain is kept on a smooth table, 1/4th length of the chain is hanging from the side of the table. What is the work done to raise this hanging , chain on the table, if acceleration due to gravity is g?

Answer:

Given

The mass and the length of a uniform chain are M and L respectively. This chain is kept on a smooth table, 1/4th length of the chain is hanging from the side of the table.

Mass of the hanging portion = \(\frac{M}{4}\) and its weight = \(\frac{Mg}{4}\)

As the chain is uniform, we may assume that the mass of the hanging chain is centred around its mid-point.

WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science And Environment Chapter 5 Work Mass And Length Of Uniform Chain

That point is situated at \(\frac{L}{4}\) x \(\frac{1}{2}\) = \(\frac{L}{8}\) below the surface of the table.

∴ work done to raise this hanging portion on the table,

W = \(\frac{Mg}{4}\) X \(\frac{L}{8}\) = \(\frac{MgL}{32}\)

WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science Chapter 3 Matter Structure And Properties Topic D Elasticity

Chapter 3 Topic D Elasticity Synopsis

The property by virtue of which the object resists the deformation in shape, size, and volume when a deforming force is applied and regains its shape, size, and volume after the withdrawal of that deforming force is called elasticity.

Cl If a body regains its original shape, size, and volume completely after the withdrawal of the deforming force of any magnitude, then that body is called a perfectly elastic body.

Elastic limit of a body is the upper limit of a deforming force acting on the body, upto which the body regains its original form if deforming force is removed, and beyond which if the force is increased, the body loses its property of elasticity and gets permanently deformed.

Due to application of an external balanced force, there is relative displacement of different parts of an elastic body. As a result, there is a change of the shape, size, and volume of the body. The ratio of change in configuration to the original configuration of the body is called strain.

Read and Learn More WBBSE Solutions for Class 9 Physical Science and Environment

Strain is a dimensionless physical quantity and does not have any unit.

If an elastic body is strained due to the application of an external balanced force, then there is an internal reaction force inside the body due to elasticity which resists the external force. When this external force is withdrawn, then the internal reaction force helps the body to regain its original state.

This reaction force produced per unit area of the surface of the body is called stress.

Revised Form Of Hooke’s Law:

Within elastic limit, stress is directly proportional to strain.

Young’s Modulus (Y) is defined as the ratio of longitudinal stress to longitudinal strain within elastic limit.

\(Y=\frac{\text { longitudinal stress }}{\text { longitudinal strain }}=\frac{F / A}{l / L}=\frac{F L}{A l}\)

Where L is the length of the wire, l is the increased length of the wire, F is the ductile force and A is the cross-sectional area of the wire.

Units of Young’s Modulus in CGS system and SI are dyn/cm2 and N/m2, respectively.

Force constant is defined as the required tensile force to increase the length of a spring by unity.

Units of force constant for a spring in CGS system and SI are dyn/cm and N/m, respectively.

Dimensional formula of the force constant for a spring is MT-2.

Chapter 3 Topic D Elasticity Short And Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1. What is elasticity?

Answer:

Elasticity

Elasticity is the property of an object or material by which it resists the deformation in its shape or volume or both due to external balanced forces acting on it. The object regains its original shape or volume when these external forces are withdrawn.

Question 2. What is a perfectly elastic body? Also, define elastic limit.

Answer:

Perfectly elastic body

A perfectly elastic body is that body which can regain its original shape, size and volume after the withdrawal of the external forces.

Class 9 Physical Science Chapter 3 Short And Long Answer Type Questions

Elastic limit

Elastic limit of a body is the upper limit of a deforming force acting on the body, upto which the body behaves as a perfectly elastic body. If the deforming force is increased beyond the elastic limit, the body loses its property of elasticity and gets permanently deformed.

Question 3. Define a perfectly rigid body and an inelastic body.

Answer:

Perfectly Rigid Body:

A body that has no strain in spite of the application of external force of any magnitude is called a perfectly rigid body.

Inelastic Body:

If a body, deformed by external forces remains in the deformed state even after the withdrawal of these deformed forces, it is called an inelastic body.

Question 4. What is stress? How can it be measured?

Answer:

Stress

If an elastic body is strained due to the application of external balanced forces, there is an internal reaction force inside the body due to elasticity which resists the external force.

When the external force are withdrawn, this internal reaction force helps the body to return to its original state. This reaction force produced per unit area of the surface of the body is called stress.

Stress is the reaction of an external applied force on the body. According to Newton’s third law of motion, for every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction.

Class 9 Physical Science Chapter 3 Short And Long Answer Type Questions

So, stress is measured by the applied force per unit area on the surface.

∴ \(\text { stress }=\frac{\text { applied force }}{\text { area of cross section of the body }}\)

WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science Chapter 3 Matter Structure And Properties Topic D Elasticity

Question 5. What is the unit of stress in CGS system and SI? Establish a relationship between these two units. Calculate the dimensional formula of stress and write down its dimension.

Answer:

Units of stress in CGS system and SI are dyn/cm2 and N/m2, respectively.

The relationship between them is given by

\(1 \mathrm{~N} / \mathrm{m}^2=\frac{10^5 \mathrm{dyn}}{10^4 \mathrm{~cm}^2}=10 \mathrm{dyn} / \mathrm{cm}^2\)

Dimensional formula of stress

Class 9 Physical Science Chapter 3 Short And Long Answer Type Questions

= \(\frac{\mathrm{MLT}^{-2}}{\mathrm{~L}^2}=\mathrm{ML}^{-1} \mathrm{~T}^{-2}\)

Dimension of stress is 1 in mass, -1 in length, and -2 in time.

Question 6. What do you mean by strain? How can it be measured? Why does it have no unit or dimension?

Answer:

Strain

Due to the application of an external balanced force, there may be a change of form or shape, or both of an elastic body. This is called strain.

The measure of strain is the comparative proportional change of the initial value of length, shape, or volume of an object, i.e.,

Class 9 Physical Science Chapter 3 

strain = \(\frac{\text { change of form or shape }}{\text { initial form or shape }}\)

As strain is, the ratio of two quantities of the same type, it has no unit or dimension.

Question 7. Between rubber and steel, which has greater elasticity? Why?

Answer:

Between rubber and steel, steel has comparatively greater elasticity.

This is obvious from the fact that to elongate both of them to the same extent, much more force is to be applied to the steel than rubber. In scientific language, a body is said to be more elastic compared to another body if greater force has to be applied on it to bring about the same amount of strain in it.

According to this, elasticity of steel is much more than that of rubber.

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Question 8. Units of modulus of elasticity and stress are the same. Explain the authenticity of this statement.

Answer:

The modulus of elasticity is the ratio of stress and strain, within the elastic limit. Strain has no unit, so the unit of modulus of elasticity should have the same unit as that of stress.

Units of modulus of elasticity in CGS system and SI are dyn/cm2 and N/m2 respectively, which are also the units of stress.

Question 9. Write down Hooke’s law. What do you mean by modulus of elasticity?

Answer:

Revised Form Of Hooke’s Law:

Within elastic limit, ratio of stress and strain is a constant.

So, \(\frac{stress}{strain}\) = constant

This constant is called modulus of elasticity of the material of the body. This quantity determines the extent to which a material is elastic as compared to another.

Question 10. What do you mean by longitudinal strain arid longitudinal stress?

Answer:

Longitudinal strain arid longitudinal stress

Suppose, a particular body is considered whose breadth and height are insignificant compared to its length. One side of this body is fixed firmly while a tensile force is applied along its length so that there is change of length only.

Class 9 Physical Science Chapter 3 Short And Long Answer Type Questions

This type of strain is called longitudinal strain. In this case, the stress produced is called longitudinal stress. Suppose, initial length = L and increase in length = l, then longitudinal strain = \(\frac{l}{L}\).

Now if applied tensile force = F and area of cross section = A, then longitudinal stress = \(\frac{F}{A}\)

Question 11. What is Young’s modulus? What are the units of Young’s modulus in CGS system and SI? Young’s modulus is applicable for what type of material?

Answer:

Young’s modulus

  1. Within elastic limit, ratio between longitudinal stress and longitudinal strain is called Young’s modulus.
  2. Units of Young’s modulus in CGS system and SI are dyn/cm2 and N/m2, respectively.
  3. Young’s modulus is applicable for solid materials only.

Question 12. Establish a mathematical expression for Young’s modulus.

Answer:

Mathematical expression for Young’s modulus

Suppose, a thin and long wire of length L and cross-sectional area A is fixed firmly at one end and the other end is loaded with a mass m and hung. Weight of the hanging body,

Class 9 Physical Science Chapter 3 Short And Long Answer Type Questions

F = mg is the tensile force here acting along the length of the wire. As a result, l is the increase in length of the wire.

Here, longitudinal strain = \(\frac{l}{L}\)

And longitudinal stress = \(\frac{F}{A}\)

∴ Young’s modulus, Y = \(\frac{F / A}{l / L}=\frac{F L}{A l}\)

WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science Chapter 3 Topic D Elasticity Mathematical Expression For Young's Modulus

Question 13. What do you mean by the statement ‘Young’s modulus 1.26 x 1012 dyn/cm2?

Answer:

Young’s modulus 1.26 x 1012 dyn/cm2 means that a force of 1.26 x 1012 dyn is to be applied to every cm2 area of its cross section to bring about a longitudinal strain of unity in a wire made up of copper.

Question 14. What do you understand by the force constant of a spring? Which property of a spring is measured by this constant?

Answer:

Force constant of a spring

If one side of a spring is firmly fixed to a support and tensile force is applied to the other end, there is an increase in length of the spring. If application of tensile force within elastic limit results in an increase of length x, then F ∝ x or, F = kx.

Here, k is a constant which is called as the force constant of a spring. If x = 1, then F = k.

Class 9 Physical Science Chapter 3 

So, the necessary tensile force required to increase unit length of a spring is called the force constant of the spring.

One can measure the property of stiffness of a spring by the force constant of the spring.

WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science Chapter 3 Topic D Elasticity Understand By The Force Constant Of A Spring

Question 15. Calculate the dimensional formula of the force constant of a spring and write down the dimension of force constant.

Answer:

Dimensional formula of the force constant of a spring

= \(\frac{\text { dimensional formula of force }}{\text { dimensional formula of length }}=\frac{\mathrm{MLT}^{-2}}{\mathrm{~L}}=\mathrm{MT}^{-2}\)

So, dimension of the force constant is 1 in mass and -2 in time.

Question 16. what are the units of force constant of a spring in CGS system and SI? Establish a relationship between them.

Answer:

Units of force constant in CGS system and SI are dyn/cm and N/m, respectively.

\(1 \mathrm{~N} / \mathrm{m}=\frac{10^5 \mathrm{dyn}}{100 \mathrm{~cm}}=1000 \mathrm{dyn} / \mathrm{cm}\)

Question 17. With the help of a simple experiment, discuss how would you measure the force constant of a spring.

Answer:

A spring is hung from a firm support. To the other end of the spring, a hook is attached and a mass hanger is hung from there. A parallel indicator is fixed with the hook. A scale is also fixed vertically by the side of the spring so that the end of the indicator touches the scale.

Class 9 Physical Science Chapter 3

Now, without any weight in the hanger, reading of the scale is taken. Suppose the reading is 2.5 cm. Now a 10 g weight is placed in the mass hanger. Due to this weight, the spring is elongated along its length.

Suppose, the present reading is 2.7 cm. Applied tensile force on the spring is F= 10 gf = 10 x 980 dyn and due to this, increase of length is x = (2.7 – 2.5)cm = 0.2 cm

∴ force constant of the spring,

\(k=\frac{F}{x}=\frac{10 \times 980}{0.2}=49000 \mathrm{dyn} / \mathrm{cm}\)

WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science Chapter 3 Topic D Elasticity Experiment Measure The Force Constant Of A Spring

Question 18. A spring with force constant k is cut into three equal portions. What is the force constant of each portion?

Answer:

Given

A spring with force constant k is cut into three equal portions.

If x is the increase in length of a spring of force constant k when a tensile force F is applied on it, then

F = kx

or, k = \(\frac{F}{x}\)

Now, the spring is cut into three equal pieces. If a tensile force F is applied on any of these three portions, then x1 = \(\frac{x}{3}\), where x1 is the increase in length.

∴ force constant of each portion,

\(k_1=\frac{F}{x_1}=\frac{F}{x / 3}=\frac{3 F}{x}=3 k\)

Question 19. A spring with force constant k is cut in the ratio 1:2. What is the force constant of each portion?

Answer:

Given

A spring with force constant k is cut in the ratio 1:2.

If a tensile force F applied on a spring of force constant k produces an increase in length x, then

F = kx

or, k = \(\frac{F}{x}\)

Now, if the spring is cut in the ratio 1: 2 and a tensile force F is applied on each portion, increase in length of the first portion is \(x_1=\frac{x}{1+2}=\frac{x}{3}\) and increase in length of the second portion is \(x_2=\frac{2 x}{1+2}=\frac{2 x}{3}\).

∴ force constant of the first portion

\(k_1=\frac{F}{x_1}=\frac{F}{x / 3}=3 \cdot \frac{F}{x}=3 k\)

and force constant of the second portion,

\(k_2=\frac{F}{x_2}=\frac{F}{2 x / 3}=\frac{3}{2} \cdot \frac{F}{x}=1.5 k\)

Question 20. It is possible to manufacture thin and fine ornaments with small amount of gold. or silver whereas it is not possible to manufacture such thin and fine ornaments with equal amount of iron or copper. Why?

Answer:

If the malleability of a material is high, it can be converted into a thin sheet by simple hammering. Gold and silver have greater malleability and ductility as compared to iron or copper.

So, though it is possible to manufacture ornaments by iron or copper, it is not possible to manufacture fine and thin ornaments like those of gold and silver.

Question 21. If a vessel of glass or ceramic drops accidentally from hand, it breaks into pieces but if a steel glass falls from the same height, it does not break. Which property of material is expressed through the above incidents?

Answer:

If a vessel of glass or ceramic drops from hand accidentally, it breaks into pieces but if a steel glass falls from the same height, it does not break. It is inferred from these two incidents that glass or ceramic is more brittle than steel.

Class 9 Physical Science Chapter 3

It may be mentioned that though a vessel of glass or ceramic breaks down easily, there is not any significant strain of individual parts. That is why glass or ceramic behaves like a perfectly rigid body to a great extent.

On the other hand, if a steel vessel falls from a height, it may not break but gets deformed, i.e., permanent strain may appear. That is why steel may be considered as a partially elastic body.

Question 22. To manufacture thin chains, materials like iron, copper, gold, silver, etc. are used but lead is never used. Why?

Answer:

Ductility of materials like iron, copper, gold, silver are much higher than that of lead. So these can be drawn to form sufficiently thin wires. As the ductility of lead is comparatively low, it is not possible to draw it into thin wire.

Chapter 3 Topic D Elasticity Very Short Answer Type Questions Choose The Correct Answers

Question 1. Which of the following properties is applicable for any type of material?

  1. Buoyancy
  2. Surface tension
  3. Elasticity
  4. Viscosity

Answer: 3. Elasticity

Question 2. Two wires A and B are made up of the same material. Length of A is greater than that of B. If Young’s modulus of A and B are YA and YB respectively, then

  1. YA = YB
  2. YA > YB
  3. YA < YB
  4. Cannot be determined

Answer: 1. YA= YB

Class 9 Physical Science Chapter 3 Very Short Answer Type Questions Choose The Correct Answers

Question 3. As the value of the force constant increases, spring becomes more

  1. Brittle
  2. Ductile
  3. Malleable
  4. Stiff

Answer: 4. Stiff

Question 4. Dimensional formula of Young’s modulus is equal to which of the following quantities?

  1. Force
  2. Momentum
  3. Stress
  4. Acceleration

Answer: 3. Stress

Question 5. If temperature increases, value of Young’s modulus also

  1. Increases
  2. Decreases
  3. Increases at first, then decreases
  4. Decreases at first, then increases

Answer: 2. Decreases

Question 6. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

  1. Young’s modulus is a measure of the property of elasticity for any material
  2. Elastic property of a metal changes if some impurity is mixed with the pure metal
  3. Elastic limit of steel is much higher than that of rubber
  4. Every material is perfectly elastic upto the elastic limit

Answer: 1. Young’s modulus is a measure of the property of elasticity for any material

Question 7. If% If due to the application of a force F to a spring, there is an increase in x unit length of the spring, then

  1. \(\frac{F}{x}\) = constant
  2. Fx = constant
  3. Fx2 = constant
  4. \(\frac{F}{x^2}\) constant

Answer: 1. \(\frac{F}{x}\) = constant

Class 9 Physical Science Chapter 3 Very Short Answer Type Questions Choose The Correct Answers

Question 8. Dimensional formula of stress is

  1. ML-2T-2
  2. ML-1T-2
  3. ML-1T-3
  4. MT-2

Answer: 2. ML-1T-2

Question 9. Young’s modulus is the

  1. Characteristic of solid only
  2. Characteristic of liquid only
  3. Characteristic of gas only
  4. Characteristic of solid, liquid and gas

Answer: 1. Characteristic of solid only

Question 10. The force constant of a spring is 200 N/m. If the spring is divided into two parts, each part has a force constant of

  1. 200 N/m
  2. 300 N/m
  3. 400 N/m
  4. 100 N/m

Answer: 3. 400 N/m

Question 11. The force constant of a spring is 300 N/m. If the spring is divided into three parts, each part has a force constant of

  1. 100 N/m
  2. 300 N/m
  3. 600 N/m
  4. 900 N/m

Answer: 4. 900 N/m

Question 12. Dimensional formula of force constant for a spring is

  1. MT-2
  2. MLT-2
  3. ML-1T-2
  4. MT-3

Answer: 1. MT-2

Class 9 Physical Science Chapter 3 Very Short Answer Type Questions Choose The Correct Answers

Question 13. The Young’s modulus of a wire is Y. If its area of cross section is unity, then the force required to double the length of the wire is

  1. Y
  2. Y2
  3. 2Y
  4. Y/2

Answer: 1. Y

Question 14. If elastic limit of a material is 10 N, then highest limit of the applied force upto which this material behaves like a perfectly elastic material is

  1. 5N
  2. 10N
  3. 15N
  4. 20N

Answer: 2. 10N

Question 15. The Young’s modulus of a wire is Y. If its area of cross section is unity, then the fore require to double the length of the wire is

  1. Y
  2. Y2
  3. 2Y
  4. Y/2

Answer: 1. Y

Question 16. Young’s modulus of a perfectly rigid body is

  1. 0
  2. 1
  3. Infinite
  4. Depends on stress

Answer: 3. Infinite

Question 17. SI unit of Young’s modulus is

  1. N • m-2
  2. J
  3. dyn
  4. W

Answer: 1. N • m-2

Class 9 Physical Science Chapter 3 Very Short Answer Type Questions Choose The Correct Answers

Question 18. The most elastic among the following substance is

  1. Rubber
  2. Steel
  3. Glass
  4. Copper

Answer: 2. Steel

Chapter 3 Topic D Elasticity Answer in Brief

Question 1. How does a body behave up to its elastic limit?

Answer: A body behaves like a perfectly elastic body up to its elastic limit.

Question 2. If there is no strain of a body due to an external balanced force of any magnitude, what do we call the body?

Answer: The body is called a perfectly solid body.

Question 3. In between stress and strain, which one is fundamental?

Answer: In between stress and strain, strain is fundamental.

Question 4. Stress is not fundamental but strain is fundamental. Why?

Answer: If strain is generated, then only stress is evolved. So, in between stress and strain, strain is fundamental.

Question 5. Does liquid and gaseous materials have Young’s modulus?

Answer: Only solid materials have length and as Young’s modulus is a measure of the elastic property of solid materials, so there is no existence of Young’s modulus for liquid and gaseous materials.

Question 6. Is there any change in Young’s modulus with increasing temperature?

Answer: The value of Young’s modulus is reduced if temperature is increased.

Question 7. What is the value of Young’s modulus for a perfectly solid body?

Answer: Value of Young’s modulus for a perfectly solid body is infinite.

Question 8. It is possible to draw a thin wire of iron but it is not possible to do the same for lead due to which property of a material?

Answer: This is due to the property of ductility of a material.

Question 9. Which property of a material is more prevalent in gold than in iron so that it is possible to manufacture fine gold ornaments but not iron ornaments?

Answer: Malleability of gold is more than that of iron.

Question 10. Are the values of Young’s modulus for a thin and a thick iron wire of the same length different?

Answer: No, the values of Young’s modulus of both the values are the same because both are manufactured from the same material.

Question 11. State whether the values of Young’s moduli for thin and thick iron wires of different length will be different.

Answer: Young’s moduli of two iron wires of different length and of different thickness cannot be different because Young’s modulus only depends on the nature of material of the wire.

Chapter 3 Topic D Elasticity Fill In The Blanks

Question 1. Within the _______ limit, stress is directly proportional to strain.

Answer: Elastic

Question 2. Elasticity of steel is _______ than that of rubber.

Answer: More

Question 3. Coefficient of elasticity is defined as the ratio of the applied ________ to the change in shape of an elastic body.

Answer: Stress

Question 4. The minimum value of stress required to break a wire is called the __________ of that wire.

Answer: Breaking stress

Question 5. _________ is the reaction force that is produced per unit area of cross section of any material due to the application of an external force.

Answer: Stress

Question 6. Brittleness of glass is _______ than that of iron.

Answer: More

Question 7. More the _______ of a material, greater is the possibility of converting it to a thinner sheet by hammering.

Answer: Malleability

Question 8. k is the force constant of a spring. If the spring is cut into three equal parts, force constant of each part becomes __________

Answer: 3k

Chapter 3 Topic D Elasticity State Whether True Or False

Question 1. Required tensile force to increase the length of spring by unity is called force constant and its unit in SI is N/m2.

Answer: False

Question 2. Within elastic limit, stress is directly proportional to strain.

Answer: True

Question 3. Young’s modulus of a perfectly rigid body is finite.

Answer: False

Question 4. Rubber is more elastic than steel.

Answer: False

Question 5. In the case of an elastic body strain is more fundamental than stress.

Answer: False

Question 6. Required external force to increase the length of a spring by unity is called force constant.

Answer: True

Question 7. Glass is a brittle substance.

Answer: True

Question 8. The elasticity of a material is decreased on hammering it.

Answer: True

Question 9. Strain has no unit.

Answer: True

Chapter 3 Topic D Elasticity Numerical Examples

Useful information

Stress(S) = \(\frac{\text { applied force }(F)}{\text { area of cross section }(A)}\)

Strain = \(\frac{\text { change in length }(I)}{\text { initial length }(L)}\)

Young’s modulus (Y) = \(=\frac{\text { longitudinal stress }}{\text { longitudinal strain }}\)

Suppose a wire of length L and cross sectional area A suspended from a rigid support. A mass m is hung from its lower end. The increase in length of the wire is l.

∴ Young’s modulus, \(Y=\frac{F / A}{I / L}=\frac{m g L}{A l}\)

One end of a spring is fixed to a rigid support and a force F is applied at its other end.

If the spring elongates by a length x then, force constant of the spring, k = \(\frac{F}{x}\)

  1. If the spring is cut into two equal parts then force constant of each part is k’ = 2k.
  2. If the spring is cut into three equal parts then force constant of each part is k” = 3k.

If two massless springs of force constants k1 and k2 respectively are joined in series combination then the equivalent spring constant of the combination is k = \(\frac{k_1 k_2}{k_1+k_2}\)

If these two are joined in parallel combination then the equivalent spring constant of the combination is k = k1 + k2

Question 1. If a mass of 4 kg is put on a wire of length 1 m and cross-section 1 mm2, it extends by 0.2 mm. What is the value of Young’s modulus of the material of the wire?

Answer:

Given

If a mass of 4 kg is put on a wire of length 1 m and cross-section 1 mm2, it extends by 0.2 mm.

Length of wire, L = 1 m = 100 cm,

area of cross-section, A = 1 mm2 = 1 x 10-2 cm2

applied tensile force, F = 4 x 9.8 x 105 dyn

extension of wire, l = 0.2 mm = 0.02 cm

∴ Young’s modulus of the material of wire,

Y = \(\frac{F L}{A l}=\frac{4 \times 9.8 \times 10^5 \times 100}{1 \times 10^{-2} \times 0.02}\)

= 1.96 x 1012 dyn/cm2

Young’s modulus of the material of wire = 1.96 x 1012 dyn/cm2

Question 2. A mass of 8 kg is hung on a metallic wire of length 2 m and cross-section 1 mm2. If Young’s modulus of the material of the metal is Y = 2 x 1012 dyn/cm2, what is the increase of length of this wire? [ g = 10 m/s2]

Answer:

Given

A mass of 8 kg is hung on a metallic wire of length 2 m and cross-section 1 mm2. If Young’s modulus of the material of the metal is Y = 2 x 1012 dyn/cm2,

Initial length of the wire, L = 2 m = 200 cm.

Area of cross-section, A = 1 mm2 = 1 x 10-2 cm2

Tensile force, F = 8 x 10 N = 8 x 10 x 105 dyn

Suppose, increase of length of the wire =l

So, Young’s modulus of the material of the wire,

Y = \(\frac{F L}{A l}\)

∴ l = \(\frac{F L}{A Y}=\frac{8 \times 10 \times 10^5 \times 200}{1 \times 10^{-2} \times 2 \times 10^{12}}\)

= 0.08 cm = 0.8 mm

Question 3. If a tensile force of 3 N is applied on a spring, there is an increase in length of the spring by 1 cm. Calculate the force constant of the spring.

Answer:

Given

If a tensile force of 3 N is applied on a spring, there is an increase in length of the spring by 1 cm.

Tensile force applied on the spring, F = 3N;

Increase of length of the spring, x = 1 cm = 0.01 m

So the force constant of the spring,

k = \(\frac{F}{x}\) = \(\frac{3}{0.01}\) = 300 N/m

Question 4. A metallic wire of length 2 m and Young’s modulus Y = 2 x 1011 N • m-2 is extended by 5 mm in length by applying a longitudinal force. Find the stress produced in the wire.

Answer:

Given

A metallic wire of length 2 m and Young’s modulus Y = 2 x 1011 N • m-2 is extended by 5 mm in length by applying a longitudinal force.

Young modulus of the wire, Y = \(\frac{\text { stress }}{1 / L}\)

Here, l = 5 mm = 0.005 m and (L) = 2m

∴ The amount of stress produced in the wire

= \(Y \times\left(\frac{I}{L}\right)=2 \times 10^{11} \times \frac{0.005}{2}\)

= 5 x 108 N/m2

Question 5. When a mass of 8 kg is hung from the low end of a spring. It elongate by 2 cm. Find the force constant of the spring. [ g = 10 m/s2]

Answer:

Given

When a mass of 8 kg is hung from the low end of a spring. It elongate by 2 cm.

Here, force applied on the spring (F) = 8 x 10 = 80 N

and elongation of the spring (x) = 2 cm = 0.02 m

∴ Force constant of the spring

(k) = \(\frac{F}{x}=\frac{80}{0.02}\) = 4000 N • m-1

Question 6. Young’s moduli of two rods of equal length and equal area of cross section are Y1 and Y2 respectively. If the rods are joined end to end, prove that the equivalent Young’s modulus of the combined rod is \(\frac{2 Y_1 Y_2}{Y_1+Y_2}\)

Answer:

Given

Young’s moduli of two rods of equal length and equal area of cross section are Y1 and Y2 respectively. If the rods are joined end to end

Suppose, length and area of cross section of each rod are L and 4 respectively. One end of the combined rod is attached to a rigid support and F force is applied to the other end. Let l1 and l2 be the increase in length of the two rods respectively.

Now, \(Y_1=\frac{F / A}{I_1 L} \text { and } Y_2=\frac{F / A}{I_2 / L}\)

or, \(l_1=\frac{F L}{A Y_1} \text { and } l_2=\frac{F L}{A Y_2}\)

WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science Chapter 3 Topic D Elasticity Young's Moduli Of two rods of equal Length And Equal Area Of Cross Section

∴ Total change in length of the combined rod \(l =l_1+l_2\)

= \(\frac{F L}{A Y_1}+\frac{F L}{A Y_2}=\frac{F L}{A}\left(\frac{1}{Y_1}+\frac{1}{Y_2}\right)\)

= \(\frac{F L}{A}\left(\frac{Y_1+Y_2}{Y_1 Y_2}\right)\)

For the combined rod, Young s modulus

Y = \(\frac{\frac{F}{A}}{\frac{1}{2 L}}=\frac{2 F L}{A} \times\left(\frac{Y_1 Y_2}{Y_1+Y_2}\right) \times \frac{A}{F L}=\frac{2 Y_1 Y_2}{Y_1+Y_2}\)

Question 7. The cross-sectional area of a steel wire is 1 cm2. How much force is required to increase its length to twice its Initial length? Young’s modulus for steel is 2×1012 dyn • cm-2.

Answer:

Given

The cross-sectional area of a steel wire is 1 cm2.

Let us consider that the initial length of the rod is L and the applied force is F.

Here, A = 1 cm2 and l = L

Young’s modulus of the wire

Y = \(\frac{F / A}{I / L}\)

∴ \(2 \times 10^{12}=\frac{F \times 1}{L \times L}\)

or, F = 2 x 1012 dyn

∴ The required force is 2 x 1012 dyn.

Chapter 3 Topic D Elasticity Miscellaneous Type Questions

Match The Columns

1.

WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science Chapter 3 Topic D Elasticity Match The Columns 1

Answer: 1. B, 2. C, 3. D, 4. A

2.

WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science Chapter 3 Topic D Elasticity Match The Columns 2

Answer: 1.D, 2. C, 3. A, 4. B

WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science Chapter 3 Matter Structure And Properties Topic C Viscosity And Bernoullis Theorem

Chapter 3 Topic C Viscosity And Bernoulli’s Theorem Synopsis

  1. Viscosity is the property of a fluid by virtue of which it tries to reduce the relative motion between its two adjacent layers.
  2. Viscosity is a general property of the fluid. An ideal fluid has no viscosity. It is also called the internal friction of a fluid.
  3. Terminal velocity is defined as the maximum uniform velocity with which a falling body falls through a viscous medium.
  4. If a liquid is flowing through a pipe, then the volume of liquid flowing per second through any cross-section of the pipe is called the rate of flow of that liquid.

Bernoulli’s Theorem:

In case of the streamline flow of an ideal fluid, the summation of its kinetic energy, potential energy, and pressure energy (energy due to pressure) per unit volume at every point of a streamline is constant.

The equation of Bernoulli’s theorem is given by

Read and Learn More WBBSE Solutions for Class 9 Physical Science and Environment

\(\frac{1}{2} \rho v^2+\rho g h+P\) = constant

or, \(\frac{v^2}{2 g}+h+\frac{p}{\rho g}\) = constant

or, velocity head + elevation head + pressure head = constant

Chapter 3 Topic C Viscosity And Bernoulli’s Theorem Short And Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1. What is viscosity?

Answer:

Viscosity

Viscosity is the property of a fluid by which it tries to reduce the relative velocity between two adjacent layers.

Class 9 Physical Science Chapter 3Short And Long Answer Type Questions

Question 2. What is the relationship between the viscosity and mobility of a liquid?

Answer:

The relationship between the viscosity and mobility of a liquid

Viscosity is a general property of matter. It is different for different liquids. When viscosity of a fluid increases, mobility decreases.

Example: Honey has greater viscosity than water.

WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science Chapter 3 Matter Structure And Properties Topic C Viscosity And Bernoullis Theorem

Question 3. Why is viscosity also called internal friction?

Answer:

Viscosity also called internal friction

When a body moves or is about to move on another body or on a surface, then the opposing force that works against this motion or tendency of motion is called friction.

On the other hand, the property by virtue of which a liquid tries to reduce the relative velocity between two adjacent layers is called viscosity of the liquid. Because of this type of similarity between viscosity and friction, viscosity is also called internal friction of a liquid in many cases.

Question 4. What are the differences between viscosity and friction?

Answer:

The differences between viscosity and friction are:

WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science Chapter 3 Topic C Viscosity And Bernoullis Theorem Velocity Time Graph Differences Between Viscosity And Friction

Question 5. The viscous force depends on which factors?

Answer:

Viscous force depends on

  1. Nature of the liquid,
  2. Area of the layers in contact,
  3. Velocity gradient between the layers.

Question 6. What is velocity gradient? What are the unit and dimensional formula of velocity gradient?

Answer:

Velocity gradient

  1. Velocity gradient is the change in velocity between adjacent layers with distance perpendicular to the flow of fluids.

The unit and dimensional formula of velocity gradient

  1. Dimensional formula of velocity gradient is T-1and its unit in SI is s-1.

Class 9 Physical Science Chapter 3Short And Long Answer Type Questions

Question 7. What is meant by an ideal fluid?

Answer:

Ideal fluid

While flowing, a fluid tries to reduce the relative motion between its two adjacent layers due to viscous force. But for an ideal fluid, no such force acts between layers. The ideal fluid is hence non-viscous and streamlined.

Question 8. What do you mean by streamline flow or laminar flow?

Answer:

Streamline flow or laminar flow

If the magnitude and direction of the flow always remain unchanged at any point of the flow line during flow of a fluid, then that flow is called streamline flow or laminar flow. In this condition, there is not any collision among the particles of the liquid.

Question 9. What do you mean by a streamline? What is the type of streamline in case of streamline motion of a liquid through a right circular cylindrical tube?

Answer:

Streamline

In case of a streamline motion, the path in which a particle of the fluid flows is called a streamline. In case of a streamline motion, any particle of the fluid always has the velocity of the preceding particle. A tangent drawn at any point of a streamline expresses the direction of the velocity of the fluid at that point.

WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science Chapter 3 Matter Structure And Properties Topic C Viscosity And Bernoullis Theorem Streamline

In case of streamline motion of a liquid through a right circular cylindrical tube, streamlines are parallel to the axis of the tube.

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WBBSE Solutions for Class 9 History WBBSE Class 9 History Very Short Answer Questions

 

Question 10. What are the characteristics of a streamline?

Answer:

Characteristics of a streamline are:

Class 9 Physical Science Chapter 3Short And Long Answer Type Questions

  1. A streamline may be a straight line or a curved line.
  2. A tangent drawn at any point of a streamline indicates the direction of the velocity of the fluid at that point.
  3. Two streamlines never intersect with each other.
  4. Velocity of the fluid increases at that place in the tube where the streamlines are very close to each other and velocity decreases at that place where the streamlines maintain greater distances between them.

Question 11. What do you mean by turbulent flow?

Answer:

Turbulent flow

At any point of a flow line during the flow of a fluid, if the magnitude and direction of the flow change in a haphazard way, then the flow is called turbulent flow.

WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science Chapter 3 Topic C Viscosity And Bernoullis Theorem Turbulent Flow

Suppose, a liquid flows through a tube. During this condition, if the liquid particles collide with each other continuously and also move simultaneously, then this type of flow is called turbulent flow.

During this time, whirls are created at some places inside the liquid.

Question 12. Why do two streamlines never intersect each other?

Answer:

Two streamlines never intersect each other

If a tangent is drawn at any point of a streamline, the tangent indicates the direction of the velocity of the fluid at that point. Now, suppose two streamlines intersect each other at the point A.

WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science Chapter 3 Topic C Viscosity And Bernoullis Theorem Two Streamlines Never Intersect Each Other

Two tangents can be drawn at the point of intersection. As a result, two directions of the velocity of the fluid are obtained at the point A, which is not possible. Therefore, two streamlines can never intersect each other.

Question 13. What do you mean by terminal velocity?

Answer:

Terminal velocity

The velocity of a small body that falls through a viscous medium due to gravity increases steadily at the beginning. But as its velocity increases, value of the viscous resistance inside the perpendicular layers of the adjacent fluid of the body also increases.

Class 9 Physical Science Chapter 3Short And Long Answer Type Questions

Along with this, the buoyancy of the medium acts on the body in an upward direction. As a result, downward acceleration gradually decreases. At a particular point of time, when value of resistance force due to viscosity and buoyancy are equal to the gravitational force, the resultant force on the body becomes zero.

Then the body falls through the medium with a steady or uniform velocity. This uniform velocity is called terminal velocity.

Thus, terminal velocity is defined as the highest uniform velocity with which a body finally falls through an infinitely spread viscous medium.

Question 14. Draw the velocity-time graph of a body falling through an infinitely spread viscous medium.

Answer:

The velocity-time graph of a body falling through an infinitely spread viscous medium is shown here. Here the acceleration of the body decreases gradually. After a certain time the body falls with a constant velocity. This is the terminal velocity, shown in the figure with v0.

WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science Chapter 3 Topic C Viscosity And Bernoullis Theorem Velocity Time Graph

Question 15. write down Bernoulli’s theorem.

Answer:

Bernoulli’s theorem

In case of the streamline flow of an ideal fluid, summation of its kinetic energy, potential energy, and pressure energy (energy due to pressure) per unit volume at every point of a streamline is constant.

Question 16. Write down Bernoulli’s theorem on the basis of conservation of energy.

Answer:

Bernoulli’s theorem on the basis of conservation of energy

In case of streamline motion of an ideal fluid, the net mechanical energy (i.e., summation of its kinetic energy, potential energy and energy due to pressure per unit volume) at any point of a streamline is always constant.

Question 17. State the mathematical form of Bernoulli’s theorem.

Answer:

Mathematical form of Bernoulli’s theorem

Suppose, an ideal liquid is flowing in streamline flow through a tube. Let us assume that streamline flow of a liquid takes place through a tube of non-uniform cross section.

If v is the velocity of the liquid at any point on the streamline, kinetic energy of unit volume = 1/2ρv2 (where p is the density of liquid).

Class 9 Physical Science Chapter 3Short And Long Answer Type Questions

If h is the height of that point from a particular reference level, potential energy in unit volume = ρgh and if P is the pressure at that point, then according to Bernoulli’s theorem,

1/2ρv2 + ρgh + P = constant……..(1)

If equation (1) is divided by ρg, we get

\(\frac{v^2}{2 g}+h+\frac{P}{\rho g}=\text { constant }\)……(2)

In equation (2), \(\frac{v^2}{2 g}\) is called the velocity head, h is called the elevation head and \(\frac{P}{\rho g}\) is called the pressure head.

In the velocities of flow of the liquid at points A and B are v1 and v2, respectively. h1 and h2 are the heights of the points A and B from a particular reference level (CD) and pressures at those two points are P1 and P2, respectively.

Then, according to Bernoulli’s theorem,

\(\frac{1}{2} \rho v_1^2+\rho g h_1+P_1=\frac{1}{2} \rho v_2^2+\rho g h_2+P_2\)

WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science Chapter 3 Topic C Viscosity And Bernoullis Theorem Mathematical Form Bernoullis Theorem

Question 18. Write down Bernoulli’s theorem with respect to the horizontal flow of a fluid.

Answer:

Bernoulli’s theorem with respect to the horizontal flow of a fluid

Bernoulli’s equation is given by

\(\frac{1}{2} \rho v^2+\rho g h+P\) = constant;

where ρ is the density of the liquid, v is its velocity and P is its pressure at depth h.

Here, the kinetic energy, potential energy, and pressure energy of unit volume of the fluid are 1/2ρv2, ρhg, and P, respectively.

For horizontal flow of the fluid, Bernoulli’s theorem can be written as \(\frac{1}{2} \rho v^2+P\) = constant

So at the place where kinetic energy of the fluid is more, pressure is less, and vice versa.

Question 19. On the basis of velocity and pressure of the fluid, how do you describe Bernoulli’s theorem?

Answer:

In respect of a fluid flowing in a horizontal way, pressure of the fluid is less where its velocity is more and vice versa—this is the essence of Bernoulli’s theorem.

Class 9 Physical Science Chapter 3Short And Long Answer Type Questions

Question 20. With the help of Bernoulli’s theorem, calculate the pressure of water at a depth of h for a stationary liquid.

Answer:

The pressure of water at a depth of h for a stationary liquid

Let us assume that a liquid of density ρ is in a vessel at a steady condition. Now at a depth h from the free surface, a point A is taken.

Pressure of liquid at the point A has to be calculated. If the bottom surface of the liquid is taken as the reference surface, height of point A is h1. Now as the liquid is still, so the velocities of the liquid at points A and B are zero i.e., vA = vB = 0.

If the atmospheric pressure is Pa, then pressure at point B, PB = Pa

If P is the pressure due to the liquid at point A, then total pressure at point A, PA = Pa + P

WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science Chapter 3 Topic C Viscosity And Bernoullis Theorem Help Of Bernoullis Theorem Caluculater Pressure Of Water

By applying Bernoulli’s theorem, we get

\(\frac{1}{2} \rho v_A ^2+\rho g h_1+P_a=\frac{1}{2} \rho v_B^2+\rho g\left(h+h_1\right)+P_B\)

or, \(\rho g h_1+P_a+P=\rho g h+\rho g h_1+P_a\)

or, ρ = hρg

Class 9 Physical Science Chapter 3Short And Long Answer Type Questions

Question 21. Why is it dangerous to stand near a fast-moving train?

Answer:

One should not stand near a fast-moving train. The air near the train starts flowing at a very high speed due to the high speed of the train. Consequently, pressure in that region decreases compared to the air pressure of the surrounding region.

This excess surrounding pressure behind the person tends to push the person towards the train and may cause a serious accident.

Question 22. Why is the tin roof shade of a house blown away during stormy wind?

Answer:

When there is a stormy wind, velocity of air and hence, its kinetic energy increases and thus pressure of air decreases. As the air inside the room remains more or less still, atmospheric pressure becomes greater than the outside.

As a result, there is an upward thrust on the roof shade. When this force is more than a specific value, the roof shade is blown away.

WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science Chapter 3 Topic C Viscosity And Bernoullis Theorem Tin Roof Shade Of A House Blown Away During Stormy Wind

Applications Of Bernoulli’s Theorem

Question 23. Why does the velocity of water through a pipe increase if the nozzle of the pipe is slightly closed by a finger?

Answer:

If the nozzle of the pipe is slightly closed by a finger, a stream of waterfalls at a greater distance. This means velocity of water stream has increased. According to the equation of continuity, av = constant, where a is the area of cross-section and v is the velocity of the fluid.

Class 9 Physical Science Chapter 3Short And Long Answer Type Questions

When the nozzle of the pipe is closed by a finger, area of the cross-section of the pipe decreases, causing the velocity of the water stream to increase.

WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science Chapter 3 Topic C Viscosity And Bernoullis Theorem Velocity Of A Water Pipe Is Slightly Closed By Finger

Question 24. If you blow between two pages of a book, the pages stick together instead of spreading apart – explain with reason.

Answer:

If I blow between two pages of a book, the pages stick together instead of spreading apart

If air is blown between two pages of a book, speed of air increases between them. Hence, according to Bernoulli’s theorem air pressure between the pages becomes less than outside. Due to this difference in pressure, the pages come closer and stick together.

Question 25. If two boats in a river move side by side, they tend to come closer – explain with reason.

Answer:

If two boats in a river move side by side, they tend to come closer

If two boats in a river move side by side, the speed of water between the boats becomes more than that of the other sides. According to Bernoulli’s theorem, the pressure at the other sides of the boats becomes more than that between them. Therefore the boats tend to come closer.

Chapter 3 Topic C Viscosity And Bernoulli’s Theorem Very Short Answer Type Questions Choose The Correct Answer

Question 1. On a plane horizontal surface, some amount of water, shampoo, and tar are poured slowly. They move with different speeds and the tar stops at first. This is because, among these three, tar has the minimum

  1. Viscosity
  2. Surface tension
  3. Fluidity
  4. Elasticity

Answer: 1. Viscosity

Question 2. Which of the following quantities is similar to friction?

  1. Viscosity
  2. Surface tension
  3. Buoyancy
  4. All of these

Answer: 1. Viscosity

Question 3. Which of the following properties is applicable only for a flowing liquid material?

  1. Elasticity
  2. Surface tension
  3. Malleability
  4. Viscosity

Answer: 4. Viscosity

Class 9 Physical Science Chapter 3Very Short  Answer Type Questions

Question 4. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

  1. Like friction, viscosity is a force against the motion
  2. More the viscosity of a liquid, lesser is its mobility
  3. After reaching its terminal velocity, a body starts falling with uniform velocity
  4. If the area of a liquid surface decreases, value of viscous force also increases

Answer: 4. If the area of a liquid surface decreases, value of viscous force also increases

Question 5. If there is a laminar flow of a liquid through a pipe similar to the shape of a right circular cylinder, the streamlines look like

WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science Chapter 3 Topic C Viscosity And Bernoullis Theorem Laminar flow Of A liquid

Answer: 1.

WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science Chapter 3 Topic C Viscosity And Bernoullis Theorem Laminar flow Of A liquid

Question 6. Laminar flow of a liquid through a pipe of a non-uniform shape is shown. If velocities of the flowing liquid at points A and B are given by VA and VB respectively, then

 

WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science Chapter 3 Topic C Viscosity And Bernoullis Theorem Laminar flow Of A liquid Through Pipe

  1. VA > VB
  2. VA < VB
  3. VA = VB
  4. Cannot be determined

Answer: 1. VA > VB

Question 7. There is laminar flow of a liquid through a horizontal tube of non-uniform shape. Velocity of liquid is V at the point where area of the cross section is A. What is the velocity at the point where the cross-section is A/2?

  1. V/2
  2. V
  3. 2V
  4. 4V

Answer: 3. 2V

Question 8. lf the velocity of water through a pipe is 1 m/s, velocity head is [g = 10 m/s2]

  1. 1 cm
  2. 2 cm
  3. 4 cm
  4. 5 cm

Answer: 4. 5 cm

Question 9. Stir a liquid kept in a vessel and then leave it to itself. After some time the motion subsides because of

  1. Viscosity
  2. Surface tension
  3. Elasticity
  4. Buoyancy

Answer: 1. Viscosity

Class 9 Physical Science Chapter 3Very Short  Answer Type Questions

Question 10. Bernoulli’s theorem is based on the law of

  1. Conservation of momentum
  2. Conservation of mass
  3. Conservation of angular momentum
  4. Conservation of energy

Answer: 4. Conservation of energy

Question 11. Action of a sprayer depends on

  1. Bernoulli’s theorem
  2. Jurin’s law
  3. Avogadro’s theorem
  4. Stoke’s law

Answer: 1. Bernoulli’s theorem

Question 12. A body falling through a viscous liquid attains the terminal velocity. Afterwards it falls with an acceleration equal to

  1. g
  2. 0
  3. -g
  4. g/2

Answer: 2. 0

Question 13. Bernoulli’s theorem is applicable for

  1. Viscous fluid
  2. Nonviscous fluid
  3. Incompressible and nonviscous fluid
  4. Compressible fluid

Answer: 3. Incompressible and nonviscous fluid

Chapter 3 Topic C Viscosity And Bernoullis Theorem Answer In Brief

Question 1. Bernoulli’s theorem is established on which conservation law?

Answer: Bernoulli’s theorem is established on the law of conservation of energy.

Question 2. If temperature is increased, does the viscosity of a liquid increase or decrease?

Answer: Viscosity of a liquid decreases, if temperature is increased.

Question 3. If temperature is increased, does the viscosity of a gas increase or decrease?

Answer: Viscosity of a gas increases, if temperature is increased.

Question 4. Do two streamlines ever intersect with each other?

Answer: No, two streamlines never intersect with each other.

Question 5. What type of a fluid gives rise to a whirlwind?

Answer: Turbulent flow of a fluid gives rise to a whirlwind.

Question 6. What is the velocity of a liquid layer in contact with the bottom surface when laminar flow of liquid takes place over a firmly fixed horizontal plane?

Answer: Velocity of the liquid layer in contact with the bottom surface is zero.

Question 7. What is that velocity called when a body falls through a viscous medium with maximum uniform velocity?

Answer: That velocity is called terminal velocity.

Question 8. If a body is moving with terminal velocity through a viscous medium and density of the body is greater than the density of the medium, then what is the direction of terminal velocity?

Answer: As the density of the body is greater than the density of the medium, direction of terminal velocity is perpendicularly downward.

Question 9. lf a body is moving with terminal velocity through a long viscous medium and density of the body is less than the density of the medium, then what the direction of terminal velocity?

Answer: As the density of the body is less than the density of the medium, direction of terminal velocity is perpendicularly upward.

Question 10. What is the relationship between viscosity of a liquid and its mobility?

Answer: When viscosity of a liquid increases, its mobility decreases.

Question 11. Bernoulli’s theorem is fully applicable for what type of fluid?

Answer: Bernoulli’s theorem is fully applicable for an ideal fluid.

Question 12. What are the characteristics of an ideal fluid?

Answer: An ideal fluid is incompressible and non-viscous.

Question 13. When a car is running very fast, it is found that light polythene packets, etc. keep flying behind the running car. This phenomenon takes place due to which principle?

Answer: This happens due to Bernoulli’s theorem.

Chapter 3 Topic C Viscosity And Bernoullis Theorem Fill In the Blanks

Question 1. Water is ______ viscous than kerosene.

Answer: More

Question 2. ________ of a fluid is called its internal friction.

Answer: Viscosity

Question 3. When viscosity of a liquid increases, its _______ decreases.

Answer: Mobility

Question 4. When a small ball of iron falls through water, three forces act on it, namely gravitational force, buoyant force and ________ force.

Answer: Viscous

Question 5. Water is _______ viscous than kerosene.

Answer: More

Question 6. Ideal fluid has no _______

Answer: Viscosity

Question 7. The maximum velocity of a fluid, up to which the flow of the fluid is ________ and beyond which the flow becomes _________ is regarded as the critical velocity for that fluid.

Answer: Streamline, turbulent

Question 8. Two _________ never intersect each other.

Answer: Streamlines

Question 9. Raindrops fall to the ground with _______ velocity.

Answer: Terminal

Chapter 3 Topic C Viscosity And Bernoullis Theorem State Whether True Or False

Question 1. Bernoulli’s theorem follows the law of conservation of energy.

Answer: True

Question 2. A smooth, uninterrupted flow in ordered layers, without any energy transfer between the layers is called laminar flow.

Answer: True

Question 3. Mobility of water is greater than that of honey.

Answer: True

Question 4. Two streamlines can intersect each other.

Answer: False

Question 5. Viscosity is called internal friction of a liquid.

Answer: True

Question 6. Viscosity of a fluid decreases with the rise in temperature.

Answer: True

Question 7. For a streamline flow of an fluid the sum of the velocity head, elevation head, and pressure head always remain constant at any point in the fluid.

Answer: True

Question 8. If the relative motion between the layers in contact in a flowing liquid decreases, viscosity decreases.

Answer: True

Chapter 3 Topic C Viscosity And Bernoullis Theorem Numerical Examples

Useful information

If the cross-sectional area at any place of a tube is a and the velocity of the fluid at that place is v, then rate of flow of liquid at that place is av.

According to the equation of continuity av = constant.

If v = velocity of a liquid, h = height from any standard level, P = pressure, ρ = density of the liquid, g = acceleration due to gravity,

  1. according to Bernoulli’s theorem, \(\frac{v^2}{2 g}+h+\frac{p}{\rho g}=\) constant
  2. for horizontal flow of liquid, \(\frac{1}{2} \rho v^2+P\) = constant
  3.  velocity head = \(\frac{v^2}{2 g}\), elevation head = h and pressure head = \(\frac{P}{\rho g}\)

Question 1. Velocities of air below and above the surface of wings of a model plane are v and 3v, respectively. If the area of a wing is A and density of air is ρ, what is the dynamic lift?

Answer:

Given

Velocity of air below the surface of the wing of a model plane, v1 = v, and velocity of air above the surface of wing of a model plane, v2 = 3v.

Suppose, pressure of air below and above the surface of wing are P1 and P2, respectively.

If we take the wing as horizontal and thickness of wing as negligible, then by Bernoulli’s theorem,

\(\frac{1}{2} \rho v_1^2+P_1=\frac{1}{2} \rho v_2^2+P_2\)

or, \(\frac{1}{2} \rho v^2+P_1=\frac{1}{2} \rho \cdot 9 v^2+P_2\)

Hence the dynamic lift,

F = (P1 – P2) . A = 4ρv2A

Question 2. Water flows through a horizontal pipe. At one point of the pipe, velocity of water is v and its pressure is P. If velocity of water at another point having same height as the first is 2v, then what is the pressure at that point?

Answer:

Given

Water flows through a horizontal pipe. At one point of the pipe, velocity of water is v and its pressure is P. If velocity of water at another point having same height as the first is 2v

At the first point, velocity of water, v1 = v and pressure of water, P1 = P.

At the second point, velocity of water, v2 = 2v.

Suppose, pressure of water at the second point be P2.

Since both the points are situated at the same height, so according to Bernoulli’s theorem,

\(\frac{1}{2} \rho v_1^2+P_1=\frac{1}{2} \rho v_2^2+P_2\)

or, \(P_2=P_1+\frac{1}{2} \rho\left(v_1^2-v_2^2\right)=P+\frac{1}{2} \rho\left(v^2-4 v^2\right)\)

= \(P-\frac{3}{2} \rho v^2\)

Question 3.  Water is flowing through a horizontal pipe with non-uniform cross section. At two points A and B inside the pipe which are at the same height, velocity of water are 20 cm/s and 50 cm/s, respectively. What is the difference of pressure between the points A and B?

Answer:

Given

Water is flowing through a horizontal pipe with non-uniform cross section. At two points A and B inside the pipe which are at the same height, velocity of water are 20 cm/s and 50 cm/s, respectively.

Velocity of water at point A, v1 = 20 cm/s

The velocity of water at point B, v2 = 50 cm/s

Density of water, ρ = 1 g/cm3

Suppose, pressure at points A and B are P1 and P2, respectively.

Since points A and B are at the same height, then according to Bernoulli’s theorem,

\(\frac{1}{2} \rho v_1^2+P_1=\frac{1}{2} \rho v_2^2+P_2\)

or, \(P_1-P_2=\frac{1}{2} \rho\left(v_2^2-v_1^2\right)=\frac{1}{2} \times 1 \times\left(50^2-20^2\right)\)

or, \(P_1-P_2=1050 \mathrm{dyn} / \mathrm{cm}^2\)

Question 4. Find the velocity of flow of water at a point where the velocity head is 0.4 m.

Answer:

Velocity head =\(\frac{v^2}{2 g}\), where, v = velocity of water and g = acceleration due to gravity.

Here, \(0.4=\frac{v^2}{2 \times 9.8}\)

or, v = \(\sqrt{0.4 \times 2 \times 9.8}=2.8 \mathrm{~m} / \mathrm{s}\)

∴ The velocity of flow of water is 2.8 m/s.

WBBSE Solutions For Class 10 Physical Science And Environment Chapter 1 Environmental Concern

Chapter 1 Environmental Concern Topic A Atmosphere Synopsis

WBBSE Class 10 Environmental Concerns Overview

Atmosphere: The gaseous layer surrounding the surface of the earth that extends up to about 1600 km, is known as the atmosphere.

Different layers of the atmosphere: On the basis of temperature and pressure, the atmosphere is divided into five different layers namely troposphere, stratosphere, mesosphere, thermosphere, and exosphere.

Convection current: On heating, fluids (liquids and gases) undergo expansion, and hence their density decreases. So, the heated liquid or gas becomes lighter and moves upward. On the other hand, the cool heavy part of the upper region comes down. This results in the formation of circular current which is known as convection current.

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Wind and storm: Wind blows from a region of comparatively higher pressure to a region of comparatively lower pressure. Earth surface, under certain circumstances, gets heated up. Hence the air adjacent to this earth surface also gets heated up and moves upward.

This creates a low pressure zone in that, region. Cooler air from surroundings rushes towards that region. Greater the difference in air pressure, faster the movement of air from the higher to lower pressure region. Thus wind is created. When wind blows above a specified speed, it is termed as a storm.

WBBSE Solutions For Class 10 Physical Science And Environment Chapter 1 Environmental Concern

Chapter 1 Environmental Concern Topic A Atmosphere Short And Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1. What is the atmosphere? What are the different regions of the atmosphere?
Answer:

Atmosphere:

The gaseous layer surrounding the surface of the earth which extends up to about 1600 km, is known as the atmosphere. Under the influence of gravity, this surrounding remains attached to the surface of the earth. On the basis of height and temperature, the atmosphere is divided into five different regions.

Layers Height from the earth’s surface Temperature Range (°C)
Tropo- sphere 0- 12 km +15 to -60 (temperature increases with the. increase in height)
Strato- sphere 12 – 45 km -60 to 0 (temperature increases with the increase of height)

 

Layers Height from the earth’s surface Temperature Range (°c)
Meso- sphere 45-85 km 0 to -100 (temperature increases with the increase in height)
Thermo- sphere 85 – 500 km -100 to +1200 (temperature increases with the increase in height)
Exo- sphere 500 -1000 km > 1200

 

WBBSE Solutions For Class 10 Physical Science And Environment Chapter 1 Environmental Concern Different Layers Of Atmosphere

Wb Class 9 Physical Science Question and Answers

Question 2. What are the ‘homosphere’ and ‘heterosphere’ of the atmosphere?
Answer:

The ‘homosphere’ and ‘heterosphere’ of the atmosphere:

The lower part of the atmosphere (extends up to an approximate height of 85 km above the earth surface) is homogeneous in nature. The gaseous components ( N2, O2, Ar, CO2, water vapor etc.) are evenly distributed in this, region. This part of the atmosphere is called the homosphere.

The remaining part of the atmosphere above the homosphere where the components are unevenly distributed is called the heterosphere. This part starts just above the homosphere region and extends between 85km above the earth’s surface up to a distance of 1000 km.

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WBBSE Class 10 History Very Short Answer Questions WBBSE Solutions for Class 10 Physical Science and Environment
WBBSE Class 10 History Multiple Choice Questions

 

Question 3. Define troposphere. Why is it called turbulent sphere’?
Answer:

Troposphere:

The lowest layer of the atmosphere is called the troposphere. It extends from the sea level up to a height of about 12 km. This layer contains dust particles, water vapour, clouds etc. Different natural phenomena like storms, rains, lightning, thunderstorms etc., occur in this region. So, it is also known as the turbulent sphere.

Understanding Environmental Issues in India

Question  4. What is the stratosphere? Why is it dynamically stable?
Answer:

Stratosphere:

The atmospheric layer that extends up to a height of 45 km above the troposphere is known as stratosphere.

There is very little air in this region and dust particles, water vapor etc. are absent in this layer. Hence, this layer is free of several associated turbulence like clouds, rains, lightning, thunderstorms etc. Thus, it is dynamically stable.

Environment Solutions

Question 5. What is the mesosphere? Name the top layer of the mesosphere.
Answer:

Mesosphere:

The atmospheric layer present just above the stratosphere and extends up to a height of 85 km below the thermosphere is known as the mesosphere. The top layer of the mesosphere is known as mesopause. Temperature remains fixed (-92°C) in this region.

Question 6. What is the thermosphere? Why is it named so?
Answer:

Thermosphere:

The atmospheric layer present just above the mesosphere and extends up to a height of 500 km is known as thermosphere.

The temperature of this layer tends to increase abruptly with increasing altitude. At a height of about 120 km the temperature is about 500°C, at a height of 200 km the temperature becomes almost 700°C and at 480 km the temperature is about 1232°C. Therefore, this layer is called thermosphere.

Wb Class 9 Physical Science Question and Answers

Question 7. What is ionosphere? Why Is it named so?
Answer:

Ionosphere:

The particular portion of thermosphere which contains several gaseous ions is known as ionosphere.

Cosmic radiation, X-rays, and gamma rays coming from the Sun ionizes the gases (mainly nitrogen and oxygen) of this region. As a result, this particular region contains large number of ions and free electrons. Due to the high concentration of ions in this region, this is called ionosphere.

Question 8. What is meant by ‘aurora’? What are ‘aurora Borealis and ‘aurora australis’?
Answer:

‘Aurora’:

Cosmic radiations, X-rays, gamma rays coming from the sun ionizes the gases present in ionosphere (a specific portion of thermosphere) and produce large number of ions as well as free electrons.

These charged particles undergo interactions with the magnetic field of the earth. As a result of this interactions, bright lights appear in the sky of polar regions. These polar lights or natural light displays in the earth’s sky is commonly known as aurora.

The aurora formed in the sky of north pole is known as aurora borealis and the aurora formed in the sky of south pole is called aurora australis.

Question 9. Give a brief description of the exosphere layer of atmosphere.
Answer:

The exosphere layer of atmosphere:

The atmospheric layer situated at a height of more than 500 km with respect to the surface of earth is called exosphere. It extends up to an altitude of about 1000 km. The temperature in this region is more than 1200°C. This layer contains hydrogen and. helium gases. Artificial satellites and space stations are located at this layer.

Wb Class 9 Physical Science Question and Answers

Question 10. How does atmospheric pressure change with the increase in altitude?
Answer:

As we move up from the sea level, density of air decreases, and hence, atmospheric pressure also decreases.

WBBSE Solutions For Class 10 Physical Science And Environment Chapter 1 Environmental Concern Variation Of Pressure With Increasing Attitude
Generally, with every 110 m rise in height, air pressure decreases by 1cm. However, the rate of change of pressure is not uniform at the upper layer of the atmosphere.

Question 11. Discuss how temperature change in different layers of the atmosphere as the distance from the earth’s surface increases.
Answer:
1. The troposphere gets colder with the increase in altitude. With each km rise in altitude, the temperature falls by 6.5°C. The top layer of troposphere has a temperature of about -56°C.

2. With increasing altitude, the temperature of stratosphere gradually increases and temperature becomes 0°C at the top.

3. Mesosphere is the coldest region of atmosphere. Temperature decreases as we move upward along this layer.

4. In the thermosphere, temperature gradually increases with increasing height. This layer absorbs cosmic radiation coming from the Sun and is heated up. ConseQuestionuently, its temperature reaches up to 1200°C. The temperature of exosphere is higher than 1200°C.

Wb Class 9 Physical Science Question and Answers

Question 12. Why does temperature increase with increasing height at the stratosphere?
Answer:

The oxygen molecules present in stratosphere is dissociated into atomic oxygen by absorbing the UV rays of the sun. These oxygen atoms then combine with molecular oxygen to form ozone (O3) molecules.

The last step is highly exothermic in nature and produces a large amount of heat. As a result, the temperature of this layer increases gradually with increase in height and reaches at a temperature around 0°C at the top of the layer.

Question 13. What is convection? What is convection current?
Answer:

Convection: The process by which the heated molecules of a liquid or a gas move from a region of higher temperature to a region of lower temperature thus carrying heat energy, is called convection.

Convection current: When a liquid or gas is heated, its density decreases due to expansion The heated liquid or gas thus becomes lighter and moves upward. Comparatively colder and heavier liQuestionuid or gas from the surroundings then rushes towards that region to fill up the vacuum. Such circulation of gaseous or liQuestionuid layer results in the formation of a convection current.

Question 14. How is convection current formed in air?
Answer: If the earth’s surface becomes hot the air adjacent to the earth’s surface also gets heated up. Hence it becomes lighter and rises up. This creates a low-pressure zone in that region. Cold air from surroundings then rushes towards that region to fill up the vacuum. This creates a convection current.

Impact of Human Activities on the Environment

Question 15. Give two natural phenomena where a convection current is observed. When do they have maximum intensity?
Answer:

Convection current is observed in land breeze and sea breeze. The inland breeze blows during the night and intensifies around the dawn. On the other hand, sea breeze blows at the morning and intensifies around dusk.

Question 16. Describe the formation of land breeze.
Answer:

The formation of land breeze:

At night, the landmass in the coastal area loses heat at a faster rate than the sea water. Hence, the water remains comparatively warmer at night. ConseQuestionuently, warm air above the sea becomes lighter and rises up while cold and dense air from the landmass starts moving towards the sea. This is known as land breeze.

Question 17. Describe the formation of the sea breeze.
Answer:

The formation of the sea breeze:

The specific heat of water is high, due to this the land in the coastal areas get heated up in a Questionuicker manner compared to the seawater. As a result, the air above the landmass becomes lighter and rises up, thereby creating a low-pressure zone. The cold, denser air from the sea then flies into this region resulting in the sea breeze.

Question 18. How is a storm formed?
Answer:

Formation Of Storm

Wind blows from a higher-pressure region to a lower pressure region. The earth surface under certain circumstances get heated up so Questionuickly that the air adjacent to the earth’s surface becomes warmer and lighter. Hence it goes upward creating a vacuum. As a result a low pressure zone is created in that region.

The air from the surroundings then rushes towards that region. Greater the difference in air pressure, the faster the air blows from higher to the lower-pressure region. When wind blows above a specified speed, it is termed as a storm.

Chapter 1 Environmental Topic A Atmosphere Very Short Answer Type Questions Choose The Correct Answer

Question 1. The layer of the atmosphere having the highest density is

  1. Troposphere
  2. Stratosphere
  3. Mesosphere
  4. Thermosphere

Answer: 1. Troposphere

Question 2. The layer of atmosphere in which natural phenomena such as storms, rains, and lightning occur is

  1. Thermosphere
  2. Troposphere
  3. Stratosphere
  4. Mesosphere

Answer: 2. Troposphere

Question 3. In the atmosphere, the percentage (by mass) occupied by the troposphere is

  1. 25
  2. 50
  3. 75
  4. 60

Answer: 3. 75

Question 4. The layer which is characterized by its calmness is

  1. Troposphere
  2. Stratosphere
  3. Mesosphere
  4. Thermosphere

Answer: 2. Stratosphere

Question 5. The temperature at the topmost level of the stratosphere is

  1. 50°C
  2. -50°C
  3. 0°C
  4. -30°C

Answer: 3. 0°C

Question 6. The atmospheric layer that absorbs ultraviolet rays is

  1. Troposphere
  2. Ozonosphere
  3. Thermosphere
  4. Mesosphere

Answer: 2. Ozonosphere

Wbbse Class 10 Physical Science And Environment

Question 7. The hottest layer of the atmosphere is

  1. Exosphere
  2. Ozonosphere
  3. Ionosphere
  4. Thermosphere

Answer: 1. Exosphere

Question 8. In which atmospheric region does aurora form?

  1. Ozonosphere
  2. Ionosphere
  3. Tropopause
  4. Mesosphere

Answer: 2. Ionosphere

Question 9. The atmospheric layers where temperature increases with increasing altitude are

  1. Troposphere and thermosphere
  2. Mesosphere and stratosphere
  3. Thermosphere and mesosphere
  4. Stratosphere and thermosphere

Answer: 4. Stratosphere and thermosphere

Question 10. The atmospheric layer in which the radio waves get reflected is

  1. Stratopause
  2. Ozonosphere
  3. Ionosphere
  4. Mesosphere

Answer: 3. Ionosphere

Question 11. For each kilometer rise in altitude from the earth’s surface, the troposphere gets colder by

  1. 5.6°C
  2. 6.5°C
  3. 3.5°C
  4. 4.6°C

Answer: 2. 6.5°C

Question 12. Artificial satellites and space stations are located at the

  1. Eexosphere
  2. Thermosphere
  3. Mesosphere
  4. Stratosphere

Answer: 1. Eexosphere

Wbbse Class 10 Physical Science And Environment

Question 13. Which layer of the atmosphere controls temperature and water cycle?

  1. Stratosphere
  2. Thermosphere
  3. Troposphere
  4. Mesosphere

Answer: 3. Troposphere

Question 14. The intensity of land breeze increases

  1. Around dawn
  2. Around noon
  3. Around dusk
  4. At night

Answer: 1. Around dawn

Question 15. The layer of the atmosphere that can be called as ‘Natural Solar Screen’ is

  1. Troposphere
  2. Ozonosphere
  3. Thermosphere
  4. Exosphere

Answer: 2. Ozonosphere

Wbbse Class 10 Physical Science And Environment

Question 16. Several ions are present in

  1. Troposphere, stratosphere
  2. Troposphere, mesosphere
  3. Mesosphere, thermosphere
  4. Stratosphere, exosphere

Answer: 3. Mesosphere, thermosphere

Question 17. The average height of the troposphere from earth’s crust

  1. 18 km
  2. 15 km
  3. 12 km
  4. 20 km

Answer: 3. 12 km

Question 18. In which layer of the atmosphere the amount of water vapor is the highest

  1. Troposphere
  2. Stratosphere
  3. Thermosphere
  4. Mesosphere

Answer: 1. Troposphere

Question 19. X-ray is absorbed in the layer called

  1. Troposphere
  2. Mesosphere
  3. Ionosphere
  4. Exosphere

Answer: 3. Ionosphere

Question 20. Gases that are present in the exosphere are

  1. He, H2
  2. N2, O2
  3. N2, H2
  4. H2, O2

Answer: 1. He, H2

Question 21. The coldest region of the atmosphere is

  1. Stratosphere
  2. Exosphere
  3. Mesosphere
  4. Thermosphere

Answer: 3. Mesosphere

Chapter 1 Environmental Concern Topic A Atmosphere Answer In Brief

Types of Environmental Pollution

Question 1. State the range of troposphere in the polar region and equatorial region.
Answer: In the polar region, troposphere extends from sea level up to a height of 8-9 km and in the eQuestionuatorial region it extends up to 16-18 km.

Question 2. What is tropopause?
Answer:

Tropopause

The narrow region, at a height of 12km from the earth’s surface, where troposphere meets stratosphere is known as the tropopause. In this region, the temperature remains unaltered with the increase in height.

Question 3. What is the air pressure at the lowest part of the troposphere?
Answer: The air pressure at the lowest part of the troposphere is eQuestionual to the pressure of 76 cm Hg column.

Question 4. What is stratopause?
Answer:

Stratopause

The thin layer between the stratosphere and mesosphere where. the change in temperature becomes almost negligible is known as the stratopause.

Question 5. Which part of the atmosphere is the coldest?
Answer: Mesosphere.

Question 6. Which gases are predominantly found in thermo sphere?
Answer: Nitrogen and oxygen.

Wbbse Class 10 Physical Science And Environment

Question 7. The temperature gradually decreases at a definite rate as we move upward in the atmosphere from the earth’s surface. What is this phenomenon called?
Answer: Normal lapse rate.

Question 8. What is the temperature at the upper end of the troposphere?
Answer: At the upper end of the troposphere, the temperature ranges between -56°C to -60°C.

Question 9. Give examples of local winds.
Answer: Land breeze and sea breeze.

Question 10. Name the lowest layer of atmosphere.
Answer: Troposphere

Question 11. In which layer of the atmosphere do storms and rain occur?
Answer: Troposphere.

Question 12. The living world of the earth’s crust remains in direct contact with which layer of the atmosphere?
Answer: Troposphere.

Question 13. In which layer of the atmosphere does the strongly moving ‘Jet stream’ flow?
Answer: The ‘Jet Stream’ flows in the tropopause region.

Question 14. Through which layer of the atmosphere can a jet plane fly?
Answer: Jet planes can fly through stratosphere.

Question 15. How does the temperature change with an increase in height of the stratosphere?
Answer: The temperature increases with increase in height in the stratosphere.

Question 16. Name some gaseous components present in stratosphere.
Answer: Nitrogen, oxygen, and ozone.

Question 17. What is the temperature of the mesopause part of the mesosphere?
Answer: -92°C.

Question 18. Aurora Borealis is found in which region of the atmosphere?
Answer: Ionosphere region of thermosphere.

Wbbse Class 10 Physical Science And Environment

Question 19. Mention some components of the mesosphere and thermosphere.
Answer:
Some components of the mesosphere: N2, O2,
Some components of thermosphere: of, O NO

Causes and Effects of Climate Change

Question 20. Which layer is used for communication with the help of radio waves?
Answer: Ionosphere of thermosphere .

Question 21 Mention the maximum temperature of thermosphere.
Answer: Almost 1200°C.

Question 22. Which layer of the atmosphere is suitable for the installation of artificial satellites?
Answer: Exosphere.

Chapter 1 Environmental Concern Topic A Atmosphere Fill In The Blanks

Question 1. The _________ is the most dense layer of the atmosphere.
Answer: Troposphere

Question 2. The layer separating troposphere stratosphere is called ____________.
Answer:
Tropopause

Question 3. When a meteorite enters the earth’s atmosphere, it burns due to it’s collision with the air of __________ layer.
Answer: The Mesosphere

Wbbse Class 10 Physical Science And Environment

Question 4. The lower part of the ___________ ionosphere.
Answer: Thermosphere

Question 5. Due to the presence of excess amount of _________ gas in the stratosphere, the temperature of this region rises with altitude.
Answer: Ozone

Question 6. As the distance from the earth surface increases, the __________ of air decreases.
Answer: Density

Question 7. _______ breeze helps in sailing ships offshore.
Answer: Land

Question 8. The term troposphere was first used by the scientist 
Answer:
Teisserenc de Bort.

Question 9. The word troposphere means __________ region.
Answer: Turbulent

Question 10. The temperature of the troposphere ___________ with increases in height.
Answer: Turbulent

Question 11. The air layer above the troposphere is called ____________
Answer:
Stratosphere

Question 12. The temperature of stratosphere _______ with increase in height.
Answer: Increases

Question 13. The layer of the atmosphere in which Aurora can be seen is _______
Answer:
Thermosphere

Question 14. The effect of charged molecules in the ionosphere of atmosphere results in the formation of _________
Answer:
Aurora

Question 15. The water cycle of the earth is controlled by ________
Answer:
Troposphere

Chapter 1 Environmental Concern Topic A Atmosphere State Whether True Or False

Question 1. In troposphere, with increase in height, the pressure decreases.
Answer: True

Question 2. Stratosphere is the most dense layer of the atmosphere.
Answer: False

Question 3. Convection currents are formed in solid, liquid, and gaseous states of matter.
Answer: False

Question 4. Heterosphere starts from a height of 85 km. relative to the surface.
Answer: True

Wbbse Class 10 Physical Science And Environment

Question 5. Air pressure decreases with increase in height in troposphere.
Answer: True

Question 6. Water vapour, clouds, etc. do not exist in troposphere.
Answer: False

Question 7. Due to the presence of dust particles in troposphere, the sky looks blue.
Answer: True

Question 8. Aurora can be seen in ozonosphere.
Answer: False

Question 9. The maximum temperature of thermosphere is around 1200°C.
Answer: True

Question 10 Atmospheric pressure in Darjeeling is greater than that in Kolkata.
Answer: False

Chapter 1 Environmental Concern Topic B Ozone Layer, Greenhouse Effect and Global Warming Synopsis

Ozonosphere: The harmful UV rays of the Sun are absorbed by the ozone layer or ozonosphere present in the stratosphere. In this way, the ozone layer protects living organisms from their harmful effects.

Ozone hole: Increased use of chemicals and technology for the development of civilization has adverse effects on the ozone layer. Due to the constant decomposition of ozone molecules, ozone holes are found to be formed at different parts of the ozone layer.

Compounds responsible for ozone layer depletion: Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) and oxides of nitrogen (mainly NO) are mainly responsible for the depletion of the ozone layer.

Greenhouse effect: Gases like CO2, CH4, N2O, CFC, and water vapor traps the retransmitted infrared radiations of higher wavelengths. This helps to keep the earth’s surface warm and thus a favorable environment is created for the survival of living beings. This is called the greenhouse effect.

Global warming: Gradual increase in the average temperature of the earth’s atmosphere . due to several natural phenomena as well as man-made activities is called global warming. Greenhouse effect plays an important role to create global warming.

Causes of global warming: Unlimited use of fossil fuels, emission of harmful gases by industries, and deforestation enhance the amount of several greenhouse gases like CO2, CH4, CFC, etc. in the atmosphere. The increased amount of such greenhouse gases is one of the main reasons of global warming.

Chapter 1 Environmental Concern Topic B Ozone Layer, Greenhouse Effect and Global Warming Short And Long Answer Type Questions

Importance of Environmental Awareness

Question 1. What is ozonosphere? Why is this layer so essential for us?
Answer:

Ozonosphere:

Stratosphere contains an ozone gas layer which is extended from 16 km to 30 km with respect to the earth’s surface and the concentration of ozone gas is maximum in this layer. This particular layer is called ozonosphere.

The harmful UV rays of the Sun are absorbed by ozone layer. The ozone layer in the stratosphere prevents the UV rays from reaching the earth’s surface and thus, protects living organisms from its harmful effects. That is why ozonosphere is so essential.

Question 2. What is ozone hole?
Answer:

Ozone hole:

Excessive use of different chemicals and technological devices for the development of human civilization leads to a gradual depletion of the ozone layer. The rate of decomposition of ozone is much higher than the rate of its formation of it. As a result, hole is formed in certain regions of the ozone layer which is known as the ozone hole.

WBBSE Solutions For Class 10 Physical Science And Environment Chapter 1 Environmental Concern Depletion Of Ozone Layer
Question 3. Name some man-made chemical substances which are responsible for ozone layer depletion.
Answer: Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) and some oxides of nitrogen such as nitric oxide (NO) and nitrogen dioxide NO2 are mainly responsible for depletion of the ozone layer.

Question 4. What is the unit used to measure concentration of ozonosphere? Define the unit.
Answer: The concentration of ozone layer is measured in Dobson unit. At 0°C temperature and 760 mm of Hg pressure, the density of 0.01 mm thick ozone gas layer is called 1 Dobson Unit (1 DU).

Question 5. Describe the significance of ozone layer on the environment.
Answer:

The significance of ozone layer on the environment:

Ozone layer in stratosphere acts as a protective shield for the earth. If the ozone layer was not present in the stratosphere, the ultraviolet rays would reach the earth surface.

As a result- the overall temperature of the earth surface would increase. The increased temperature would lead to extinction of plants and animals on the earth. direct exposure to ultraviolet rays may cause a number of diseases including skin cancer, premature cataract etc.

Wbbse Class 10 Physical Science And Environment

Question 6. How is ozone layer formed?
Answer: UV-C (wavelength: 100-280 nm) along with some UV-B. (wavelength: 280-315 nm) decomposes oxygen molecules present in the stratosphere into atomic oxygen. These oxygen atoms then combine with molecular oxygen to form ozone (O3) molecules. The last step is highly exothermic in nature, i.e., large amount of heat is produced in this step.

\(\mathrm{O}_2 \stackrel{(\text { UV-C or UV-B) }}{\longrightarrow} \mathrm{O}+\mathrm{O}\) \(\mathrm{O}_2+\mathrm{O} \longrightarrow \mathrm{O}_3\)

Question 7. Discuss the natural causes that decompose the ozone present in ozone- sphere. How is the total amount of ozone gas maintained in the ozone layer?
Answer: Dissociation of ozone molecules in the stratosphere occurs simultaneously with its formation. Ultraviolet rays of larger wavelength (UV-A; wavelength: 315-400 nm) decompose ozone molecules into molecular oxygen and atomic oxygen.

\(\mathrm{O}_3 \stackrel{\mathrm{UV}-\mathrm{A}}{\longrightarrow} \mathrm{O}_2+\mathrm{O}\)

In stratosphere, formation of ozone molecules and decomposition of ozone molecules occur simultaneously in a cyclic manner and a dynamic equilibrium is maintained between these two processes. As a result, the amount of ozone gas in the stratosphere remains constant.

Question 8. Ozone gas present in stratosphere is important but presence of ozone gas in to- posphere is harmful-justify the statement.
Answer: The harmful UV rays of the Sun are absorbed by ozone layer present in the stratosphere. Hence, this stratospheric ozone is protecting the earth from UV rays and their harmful effects as a natural umbrella.

On the other hand, ozone gas present in troposphere acts as a greenhouse gas (it contributes about 7-8% to the greenhouse effect). The greenhouse effect plays an important role in the gradual increase of the average temperature of the earth.

Question 9. How is the dynamic equilibrium maintained in the stratosphere during the formation and depletion of the ozone layer?
Answer:
Formation of ozone layer: Oxygen molecules. present in the stratosphere absorbs UV rays and are dissociated to form oxygen atoms.

\(\mathrm{O}_2+\text { UV-rays } \rightarrow \mathrm{O}+\mathrm{O}\)

This atomic oxygen combines with molecular oxygen to form ozone molecules-

Wbbse Class 10 Physical Science And Environment

\(\mathrm{O}_2+\mathrm{O} \rightarrow \mathrm{O}_3\)

Depletion of ozone layer: Ozone decomposes to 0.12 Discuss the harmful effects of ozone oxygen molecules by absorbing UV rays.

\(\mathrm{O}_3+\text { UV-ray } \rightarrow \mathrm{O}_2+\mathrm{O} ; \mathrm{O}_3+\mathrm{O} \rightarrow 2 \mathrm{O}_2\)

Formation of ozone molecules and decomposition of ozone molecules-these two opposite processes continue in cycles at the ozone layer and an equilibrium is established. It is for this equilibrium that the amount of ozone gas in the stratosphere remains constant.

Question 10. Discuss the role of chlorofluorocarbons (freons) in the depletion of ozone layer.
Answer:

The role of chlorofluorocarbons (freons) in the depletion of ozone layer:

Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) act as catalysts in the depletion of ozone layer in the stratosphere. In presence of ultraviolet rays, CFCs dissociate to form active chlorine atoms (CI).

Active chlorine atom reacts with ozone molecule to form oxygen and chlorine monoxide. Chlorine monoxide further reacts with ozone molecules to form oxygen and active chlorine. This process continues in a cyclic manner. As a result, the density of ozone layer decreases.

\(\mathrm{CFCl}_3 \stackrel{\mathrm{UV} \text {-ray }}{\longrightarrow} \dot{\mathrm{C}} \mathrm{FCl}_2+\dot{\mathrm{C}}\) \(\dot{\mathrm{Cl}}+\mathrm{O}_3 \longrightarrow \dot{\mathrm{C}} \mathrm{OO}+\mathrm{O}_2\) \(\dot{\mathrm{ClO}}+\mathrm{O}_3 \longrightarrow 2 \mathrm{O}_2+\dot{\mathrm{C}}\)


Question 11. How are supersonic jet planes responsible for depletion of ozone layer?

Answer: Supersonic jet planes flying through the stratosphere emits large amount of nitric oxide. Nitric oxide (NO) reacts with ozone to form nitrogen dioxide (NO2) and oxygen.

On the other hand in stratosphere, ozone molecules are decomposed by the UV rays to produce atomic oxygen, which reacts with NO2 to produce back NO. Thus, the amount of NO never decreases and causes gradual destruction of ozone molecules. As a result depletion of ozone layer takes place.

\(\mathrm{NO}+\mathrm{O}_3 \longrightarrow \mathrm{NO}_2+\mathrm{O}_2\) \(\mathrm{O}_3 \stackrel{\mathrm{UV}}{\longrightarrow} \mathrm{O}_2+\mathrm{O}\) \(\mathrm{NO}_2+\mathrm{O} \longrightarrow \mathrm{NO}+\mathrm{O}_2\)


Question 12. Discuss the harmful effects of ozone layer depletion.

Answer:

The harmful effects of ozone layer depletion:

1. Ozone layer in the atmosphere absorbs harmful UV rays which would otherwise, reach the earth’s surface. This would cause an increase in the earth’s temperature resulting in melting of snow-caps in polar regions. Thus the water level of the seas and oceans would increase and flood the coastal regions.

Exposure to UV rays may cause skin cancer and premature cataract in the eye, and natural immunity also decreases. These rays are
responsible for formation of photochemical Ozone layer in the atmosphere absorbs. harmful UV rays which would otherwise, reach the earth’s surface.

This would cause an increase in the earth’s temperature resulting in the melting of snow-caps in polar regions. Thus the water level of the seas and oceans would increase and flood the coastal regions.

2 Exposure to UV rays may cause skin cancer and premature cataract in the eye, and natural immunity also decreases. These rays are responsible for the formation of photochemical smog.

3 UV rays inhibit the process of photosynthesis in plants, hence production of crop gets reduced.

Question 13. What are greenhouse gases?
Answer:

Greenhouse gases:

Some gases present in the atmosphere absorb radiations of comparatively greater wavelengths (re-radiated from the earth surface) and reflects back the remaining radiations, thus they keep the earth’s atmosphere warm. These gases are known as greenhouse gases.

Some examples of greenhouse gases are carbon dioxide (CO2), methane ( CH4), chlorofluorocarbon (CFC), ozone (O3), nitrous oxide (N2O), water vapor etc.

Wbbse Class 10 Physical Science And Environment

Question 14. What is greenhouse effect?
Answer:

Greenhouse effect:

Infrared (IR) light coming from the Sun accounts for the heating of earth. As it has a smaller wavelength the gases present in the atmosphere are unable to absorb this incident radiation. The IR light re-radiated from the earth surface is of longer wavelengths.

Greenhouse gases like CO2, CH4, CFC, N2O, O3 etc. absorb these re-radiated wavelengths and thus prevent the heat of the Sun to escape from the earth’s atmosphere. As a result the earth’s atmosphere stays warm and thus a favourable environment is created for the survival of living beings. This phenomenon is known as greenhouse effect.

Question 15. Discuss the importance of greenhouse effect.
Answer:

The importance of greenhouse effect:

Greenhouse gases prevent the reflected radiations to escape from the earth. As a result, the earth’s atmosphere stays warm and thus a suitable environment is created for the survival of living beigns.

If there were no greenhouse gases in the atmosphere, there would have been no greenhouse effect and the earth’s average temperature would fall to -30°C.

Question 16. How do greenhouse gases increase the temperature of the atmosphere?
Answers: IR rays (of shorter wavelengths) of the Sun can easily penetrate the lining of the greenhouse gases (CO2, CH4,O3, N2O, CFC etc.) present in the atmosphere. The earth’s surface absorbs some part of this radiation and becomes heated. Remaining part of this radiation is retransmitted.

IR rays radiated from the heated earth’s surface is of greater wavelengths and got absorbed by the screen of greenhouse gases. Thus the layer of greenhouse gases maintains the warmth of the atmosphere within a certain range by trapping the retransmitted IR rays. But the amount of greenhouse gases in the atmosphere is gradually increasing due to human activities as well as by natural causes.

As a result greater amount of surface radiated IR rays (of longer wavelengths) getting trapped in the atmosphere which in turn increases the mean [temperature of the earth. Thus greenhouse effect influences rather accelerates the phenomenon of global warming.

Common Environmental Problems and Solutions

Question 17. Name the sources of CO2 in atmosphere. Discuss its role in creating greenhouse effect.
Answers:
Sources of CO2 in the atmosphere:
1. Large quantities of CO2 is added to the atmosphere due to uncontrolled use of fossil fuels in automobiles and factories.
2. In different industries, mainly in case of cement production, a large amount of CO2 is produced.
3. Cutting down of trees in indiscriminate manner results in the rise of the amount of CO2 in atmosphere.

Role of CO2 in creating greenhouse effect:
Amount of CO2 in atmosphere is maximum, so it has the highest contribution in creating greenhouse effect. Its contribution in greenhouse effect is more than 50%.

Wbbse Class 10 Physical Science Solutions

Question 18. Name the sources of methane gas. Discuss the role of methane gas in greenhouse effect.
Answer:
Sources of methane gas:
1. Methane gas is produced in wetlands due to anaerobic decomposition of dead plants and animals by the action of methanogenic bacteria (methanococcus, methanobacterium).
2. Methane gas is found in oil mines.
3. Decomposition of several organic wastes and the excreta of different animals release methane to the atmosphere

Role In greenhouse effect: The capability of a molecule of methane to trap the re-radiated heat energy is 25 times greater than that of a molecule of CO2. But the amount of methane in the atmosphere is much lower than that of carbon dioxide. Hence the contribution of methane in greenhouse effect is lower than that of CO2 which is nearly around 19-20%.

Question 19. What are the sources of chlorofluorocarbons? Discuss their role in causing greenhouse effect?
Answer:
Sources of chlorofluorocarbons: Chlorofluorocarbons are extensively used in refrigerator as refrigerant, fire extinguishers,
1. Aerosol sprays as propellant,
2. Foam and plastic productions etc. Chlorofluorocarbons from these sources are added to the atmosphere.

Role of CFCs in creating greenhouse effect: The capacity of a CFC molecule to trap the retransmitted heat energy is 15000-20000 times greater than that of a CO2 molecule. These compounds are highly stable and remain in the atmosphere for a long period of time. Contribution of CFCs towards greenhouse effect is nearly around 16%.

Question 20. Discuss the consequences of greenhouse effect.
Answer:

Detrimental consequences of greenhouse effects are

1. Average temperature of earth’s surface and troposphere is constantly increasing which may result in melting of polar ice and snow caps of mountains. Water level of the seas and oceans would thus increase and flood the coastal regions. Saline water will make agricultural land infertile and crop production will significantly decrease.
2. Frequent drought will take place in the countries of northern hemisphere.
3. Frequency and intensity of super cyclones and tornadoes will increase.
4. Living organisms will gradually become extinct due to the intense heat. This will destroy the ecosystem.

Question 21. State some precautionary measures that should be taken to stop global warming.
Answer:

1. Use of fossil fuels has to be controlled.
2. Deforestation should be stopped immediately.
3. Use of non-conventional energy should chlorofluorocarbon carbons have to be banned.
4. Nitrogenous fertilizers should be used in a controlled manner. This will reduce the possibility of mixing nitrogenous oxides in air.
5. Awareness of common people regarding greenhouse effect and global warming will surely reduce the extent of global warming.

Wbbse Class 10 Physical Science Solutions

Question 22. Mention the name of an organic and an inorganic greenhouse gas and their percentage contributions towards global warming.
Answer: An organic greenhouse gas is methane (CH4) and an inorganic greenhouse gas is carbon dioxide CO2. The contributions of methane and carbon dioxide towards global warming are 19% and 50% respectively.

Question 23. Why are O2 and N2 not considered as greenhouse gases?
Answer: Gases that can absorb infrared radiations of longer wavelengths emitted from the earth’s surface are called greenhouse gases. O2 and N2 gases are unable to absorb these retransmitted IR radiations of longer wavelengths, so they do not cause the greenhouse effect. That is why they are not considered as greenhouse gases.

Question 24. What is global warming?
Answer:

Global warming:

Global warming is defined as the gradual increase in the average temperature of the earth’s atmosphere mainly due to the greenhouse effect caused by the uncontrolled increase of several greenhouse gases ( CH4, CO2, CFC, etc.) in the atmosphere.

Question 25. Why will the crop production be disrupted as a result of global warming? Or, Mention a detrimental effect of global warming.
Answer: Average temperature of the earth’s atmosphere is gradually increasing which may result in melting of polar ice and the snow caps of mountains. Water level of the seas and oceans would thus increase and flood the coastal regions. The saline water of seas will thus make the fertile agricultural lands unsuitable for cultivation. As a result, crop production will be severely disrupted.

Chapter 1 Environmental Concern Topic B Ozone Layer, Greenhouse Effect and Global Warming Choose The Correct Answer

Question 1. The coldest region of the atmosphere is

  1. Tropopause
  2. Mesopause
  3. Stratopause
  4. Thermopause

Answer: 3. Stratopause

Question 2. Heat reaches the earth surface from the Sun by

  1. Conduction
  2. Convection
  3. Radiation
  4. All of these

Answer: 3. Radiation

Question 3. The depletion of ozone layer over the Antarctic region is maximum in the month of

  1. March-August
  2. September-November
  3. January-March
  4. April-June

Answer: 3. January-March

Question 4. Oxides of which element is responsible for the decomposition of ozone molecules?

  1. Carbon
  2. Nitrogen
  3. Hydrogen
  4. Sulfur

Answer: 2. Nitrogen

Question 5. CFC dissociates in the presence of ultraviolet rays to produce

  1. Active carbon atoms
  2. Active chlorine atoms
  3. Active fluorine atoms
  4. Active hydrogen atoms

Answer: 2. Active chlorine atoms

Wbbse Class 10 Physical Science Solutions

Question 6. Which oxide of nitrogen emitted from the supersonic jet planes causes depletion of ozone layer?

  1. NO2
  2. N2O
  3. NO
  4. N2O4

Answer: 3. NO

Question 7. The concentration of ozone in ozonosphere Stain is around

  1. 30 ppm
  2. 10 ppm
  3. 40 ppm
  4. 20 ppm

Answer: 2. 10 ppm

Question 8. Which of the following is a greenhouse gas?

  1. O2
  2. N2
  3. O3
  4. H2

Answer: 3. O3

Question 9. Which of the following is not a greenhouse Jotoly gas?

  1. CO2
  2. NO2
  3. CH4
  4. N2O

Answer: 2. NO2

Question 10. The contribution of the CO2 Greenhouse effect is almost

  1. 30%
  2. 20%
  3. 50%
  4. 60%

Answer: 3. 50%

Wbbse Class 10 Physical Science Solutions

Question 11. Naturally, ozone gas is produced due to the reaction between

  1. CFC and O2
  2. UV rays and O2
  3. IR rays with O2ollatay
  4. O2 and water vapor

Answer: 2. UV rays and O2

Question 12. The correct order of contribution of the given gases towards greenhouse effect is

  1. CO2>CH4>CFC>O3
  2. CFC>O3>CH4>CO2
  3. O3>CH4> CFO>CO2
  4. CH4>CO2>O3>CFC

Answer: 1. CO2>CH4>CFC>O3

Question 13. Which would inhibit photosynthesis if it reaches the earth’s surface?

  1. Infrared radiation
  2. Ultraviolet radiation
  3. Radio radiation
  4. None of these

Answer: 2. Ultraviolet radiation

Question 14. Source of CFC is

  1. A refrigerator
  2. Vehicles
  3. Agricultural fields
  4. Water-bodies

Answer: 1. A refrigerator

Question 15. Which of the following greenhouse gas has the maximum contribution in increasing the temperature of the earth?

  1. N2O
  2. CO2
  3. CH4
  4. H2O vapour

Answer: 3. CH4

Wbbse Class 10 Physical Science Solutions

Question 16. Dissociation of ozone molecules is done by

  1. CI radical
  2. OH radical
  3. I radical
  4. CH3 radical

Answer: 1. CI radical

Question 17. Which of the following is required to form ozone layer?

  1. Ultraviolet ray
  2. Visible light
  3. Microwave
  4. Radiated heatwave

Answer: 1. Ultraviolet ray

Question 18. The ozone layer of the atmosphere absorbs y-Raya-ray UV-ray B-ray 19 The main greenhouse gas is

  1. γ-ray
  2. α-ray
  3. UV-ray
  4. β-ray

Answer: 3. UV-ray

Question 19. The main greenhouse gas is

  1. CH4
  2. CO2
  3. CFC
  4. NO2

Answer: 2. CO2

Question 20. Which one of the following plays the key role in depletion of ozone layer?

  1. NO2
  2. O2
  3. NO
  4. CFC

Answer: 4. CFC

Question 21. Mars gas formed in water-bodies is

  1. CO2
  2. CO
  3. CH4
  4. C2H2

Answer: 3. UV-ray

Wbbse Class 10 Physical Science Solutions

Question 22. Which of the following is responsible for greenhouse effect?

  1. γ-ray
  2. UV-ray
  3. IR-ray
  4. X-ray

Answer: 3. IR-ray

Question 23. The full name of CFC is

  1. Chlorofluorocarbon
  2. Cold fluorinated carbon
  3. Carbonfluro chloride
  4. Chlorofluoro carbonate

Answer: 1. Chlorofluorocarbon

Question 24. Which of the following does not deplete the ozone layer?

  1. NO
  2. N2O
  3. CO2
  4. DCFC

Answer: 3. CO2

Question 25. The ozone layer is formed in the atmosphere due to

  1. Chemical reactions
  2. Photochemical reactions
  3. Nuclear reactions
  4. Electrochemical reactions

Answer: 2. Photochemical reactions

Chapter 1 Environmental Concern Topic B Ozone Layer, Greenhouse Effect and Global Warming Answer In Brief

Question 1. Give an example of a gas which is responsible for the gradual increase of atmospheric temperature.
Answer: Carbon dioxide.

Question 2. What percentage of ozone gas found in the atmosphere is present in ozonosphere?
Answer: Ozonosphere contains almost 90% of total ozone gas present in the atmosphere.

Question 3. What happens when ozone molecules absorb ultraviolet rays?
Answer: They decompose to form oxygen molecules.

Question 4. How are UV rays harmful to the eyes?
Answer: Ultraviolet (UV) rays damage the retina of the eyes and may cause premature cataracts.

Question 5. Which instrument is used to measure the density of the ozone gas in atmosphere?
Answer: Dobson spectrometer.

Question 6. How many ozone molecules can be destroyed by an active chlorine atom?
Answer: Over 100,000 ozone molecules.

Question 7. What would be the average temperature of the earth if the greenhouse gases were not present in atmosphere?
Answer: In absence of the greenhouse gases, the average temperature of the earth would have been -30°C.

Question 8. What is the average temperature of the atmosphere due to the presence of greenhouse gases?
Answer: Due to the presence of greenhouse gases, the average temperature of the atmosphere is maintained around 15°C.

Question 9. Which diseases may flourish due to global warming?
Answer: Diseases like dengue, malaria, encephalitis may flourish due to global warming.

Question 10. What do you mean by global warming?
Answer:

Global warming

The phenomenon of gradual increase of earth’s temperature due to greenhouse effect is known as global warming.

Wbbse Class 10 Physical Science Solutions

Question 11. What is the ‘natural sunscreen’ or ‘natural solar screen’ or the ‘umbrella of the earth’?
Answer: The ozonosphere of the stratosphere.

Question 12. Incidence of which ray from the Sun is prevented by the ozone layer?
Answer: UV-ray.

Question 13. Which layer absorbs the Sun’s ultraviolet rays?
Answer: Ozone layer present in the stratosphere.

Question 14. Write down the full form of ODS.
Answer: Ozone Depleting Substances.

Question 15. What is ‘Chapman Cycle’?
Answer:

‘Chapman Cycle’

The cycle of creation and destruction of ozone in the stratosphere is called the Chapman Cycle.

Question 16. What is the full form of ODP?
Answer:

Full form of ODP

Ozone Depletion Potential.

Question 17. Which atom of CFC is responsible for the destruction of the ozone layer?
Answer: The cl atom of CFC is responsible for this.

Question 18. Which gas breaks down the ozone layer during lightning?
Answer: Nitric oxide (NO) gas.

Question 19. What is the role of NO in the depletion of ozone layer?
Answer: NO reacts with O3 to form NO2 and O2 and thus decomposes O3. As a consequence depletion of ozone layer occurs.
NO + O3→ NO2+O2+hγ

Question 20. In which year was the Montreal Protocol signed?
Answer: Montreal Protocol was signed in 1987.

Question 21. Write the name of an organic greenhouse gas.
Answer: Methane (CH4).

Question 22. Which is the main greenhouse gas?
Answer: Carbon dioxide (CO2).

Question 23. Write the full form of GWP.
Answer: Global Warming Potential.

Question 24. Mention a detrimental effect of global warming.
Answer: As global warming increases, polar ice caps will melt and as a result, coastal areas will be flooded.

Chapter 1 Environmental Concern Topic B Ozone Layer, Greenhouse Effect and Global Warming Fill In The Blanks

Question 1. Ozonosphere is present in the  _______.
Answer:
Stratosphere

Question 2. ________ was the first to observe the formation of holes in the ozone layer.
Answer: Joe Farman

Question 3. The full form of CFC is a ___________
Answer:
Chloroflurocarbon

Question 4. Ozone is a gas with pale blue, _________ Color and a smell.
Answer: Pungent

Question 5. Ozone gas is an allotrope of _______ gas.
Answer: Oxygen

Question 6. The density of ozone gas in atmosphere is measured in the_______ unit.
Answer: Dobson

Question 7. Nitrous oxide and water vapor are _______ gases.
Answer: Greenhouse

Question 8. _______ layer of the atmosphere is also known as the ‘earth’s protective umbrella’.
Answer: Ozone

Question 9. The capacity of a molecule of methane to retain the absorbed heat energy is ______ times more than that of a CO2 molecule.
Answer: 25

Question 10. The wavelength of infrared radiation______ with decreasing energy.
Answer: Increases

Question 11. The rate of increase of CFC gas in the atmosphere per year is ______
Answer:
5%

Question 12. The gas emitted by supersonic aircraft breaks down the ozone layer is _______
Answer:
Nitric Oxide

Question 13. The destruction of the ozone layer can cause diseases like ________
Answer:
Skin cancer

Question 14. An inorganic greenhouse gas is _________
Answer:
Carbon dioxide

Question 15. The _____________ present in the body spray is a greenhouse gas.
Answer: Chloroflurocarbon

Question 16. The greenhouse effect is causing ____________
Answer:
Global Warming

Chapter 1 Environmental Concern Topic B Ozone Layer, Greenhouse Effect and Global Warming State Whether True Or False

Question 1. Nitrogen is a greenhouse gas.
Answer: True

Question 2. Supersonic jets release huge amount of nitric oxide.
Answer: False

Question 3. Scientist Joe Farman first noticed the formation of the ozone hole over Antarctica.
Answer: False

Question 4. Under the influence of UV rays, CFC splits and produces methane gas.
Answer: True

Question 5. The Montreal Protocol was signed in the year 1987.
Answer: False

Question 6. Damage to the ozone layer will increase the chance of cataracts.
Answer: False

Question 7. It would have been easier for the fauna to survive if there were no greenhouse gases in the atmosphere.
Answer: True

Question 8. The two gases responsible for the greenhouse effect are nitrogen and oxygen.
Answer: True

Question 9. Among all greenhouse gases the contribution of carbon dioxide is maximum in creating greenhouse effect.
Answer: False

Question 10. If there were no greenhouse gases, the temperature of the earth would be 50°C.
Answer: True

Chapter 1 Environmental Concern Topic C Proper Uses of Energy and Sustainable Development Synopsis

Calorific value: Heat energy produced due to the complete combustion of 1 kg of a fuel is known as its calorific value. Unit: kJ • kg-1 (in SI).

The necessity of conservation of fossil fuels:
The incessant use of fossil fuels (coal, petroleum, natural gas) is gradually depleting the reserve of these fuels. To conserve these fuels, we must encourage the use of alternative fuels which are basically non- conventional renewable energy sources.

Alternative fuels: Alternative fuels are those which are being used to restrict the use of fossil fuels in order to conserve their sources as these are gradually running out. Examples: Solar energy, wind energy, tidal energy etc.

Sustainable development: Controlled and systematic use of natural resources to meet the need of present generation as well as sustaining them for future generation is called sustainable development. First step of sustainable development is to encourage the use of alternative sources of energy that are renewable and eco-friendly.

Purposes of sustainable development: Social welfare, Economic development and Ecological development are the major three purposes of sustainable development.

Conventional/non-renewable sources of energy: These sources are gradually exhausting due to their prolonged uses and these sources cannot be renewed.
Examples: Coal, petroleum, natural gases etc.

Non-conventional/renewable sources of energy: These sources have presently been used as alternative energy sources and these are inexhaustible and renewable.

Examples: Solar energy, wind energy, biomass energy, tidal energy etc.

Chapter 1 Environmental Concern Topic C Proper Uses of Energy and Sustainable Development Short And Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1. What is sustainable development?
Answer:

Sustainable development:

The controlled and systematic use of natural resources to meet the need of present generation as well as sustaining resources for the future generation is called sustainable development.

Question 2. Discuss the purposes of development’.
Answer:
Purposes of sustainable development are Social welfare:
Major goal of sustainable development is to establish social equality and eradicate the differences that arise from social misconceptions, superstitions, backward traditions etc.

Economic development: No society can prosper without economic development. It is required in the field of education, health, agriculture and industries. Hence, one of the major goals of sustainable development is to achieve economic development.

Ecological development: Ecology of earth depends on the constant interaction between living and non-living things. Sustainable development also aims at maintaining proper balance in nature and building a stronger relationship between living & non-living world. of ‘sustainable

Role of Government in Environmental Protection

Question 3. Why is sustainable development considered to be of utmost importance for the present as well as a future generations?
Answer: The aim of sustainable development is to use natural resources without affecting the environment. This will enable both present and future generations to preserve natural resources and utilize them for a long time.

It gives importance not only to economic development but also to cultural, social & geopolitical development have been able to control the decline of environmental conditions as it encourages to decrease the use of conventional sources of energy and increases the use of alternative resources.

Question 4. What are fossil fuels?
Answer:

Fossil fuels:

Fossil fuels are natural fuels formed due to the action of geothermal heat, pressure, and bacterial degradation of the dead plants and animals buried beneath the earth’s crust for many years. Coal, petroleum, natural gas are examples of fossit fuels. These are exhaustible and non¬ renewable sources of energy.

Question 5. What do you mean by conventional or non-renewable sources of energy? Give examples.
Answer:

The sources of energy which- are gradually exhausting due to their prolonged uses and which cannot be renewed are called conventional or non-renewable sources of energy.

These have been used as the major energy source till date and hence their reserves are gradually running out. Coal, petroleum, natural gases are examples of conventional or non-renewable sources of energy.

Question 6. What are non-conventional? orrenewable sources of energy? Give examples.
Answer:

The sources of energy that have presently been used as alternative energy sources to minimize the uses of fossil fuels and which are in exhaustible and renewable are known as non-conventional or renewable sources of energy. Solar energy, wind energy, biomass energy, tidal energy, etc. are examples of non-conventional or renewable sources of energy.

Question 7. Write three differences between conventional and non-conventional sources of energy.
Answer:

The major differences are listed below:

 Conventional sources of energy Non-conventional sources of energy
1. These sources of energy are extensively used and their reserves are gradually exhausting. Examples—are coal,    petroleum, natural gas, etc. 1. These sources of energy are not being used extensively. These sources are exhaustible and they are mostly reusable in nature. Example-wind energy, are solar energy, tidal energy, etc.
2. These sources of energy cause pollution. 2. These sources are non-polluting in nature.
3. The sources of energy are not evenly distributed throughout the world. 3. Non-conventional energy sources are almost evenly distributed.


Question 8. Why should fossil fuels?

Answer:

The natural reserves of fossil fuels are gradually running out. The sources of such fuels are abruptly exhausting due to their indiscriminate usage. As a result, the world may face a severe energy crisis and development of human civilization may cease in near future.

These sources of energy are non-renewable. Combustion of fossil fuels produces several greenhouse gases. Hence controlled use of these fuels will minimize the chances of global warming.

Question 9. How is electricity generated from wind energy?
Answer:

Practically, the kinetic energy of the wind is harnessed to obtain wind energy. Using windmills, wind energy can be converted into electrical energy.

The blades of the windmills are connected to the turbines of an electrical generator. When the blades rotate by the action of wind, the turbines also rotate and electricity is generated.

WBBSE Solutions For Class 10 Physical Science And Environment Chapter 1 Environmental Concern windmill
Question 10. How is electricity generated using tidal energy?
Answer:

During high tides, the surging water is stored in a dam and during the low tides this stored water is released, which comes down with a high velocity.

Turbines of electrical generators are placed in the path of moving water and thereby the kinetic energy of water can be converted into electrical energy.

WBBSE Solutions For Class 10 Physical Science And Environment Chapter 1 Environmental Concern Tidal power station

Question 11. How is electricity generated using geothermal energy?
Answer:

During volcanic eruptions, most of the magma coming out from the earth, gets stuck in the rocks near the earth surface at a depth of 5 to 10 km. These rocks, in contact with the magma, gets heated up.

When water passes through these hot rocks, it vaporizes to form steam. The steam is piped out directly from the underground wells to the power plants. The kinetic energy of the steam rotates the turbines and generates electricity.

WBBSE Solutions For Class 10 Physical Science And Environment Chapter 1 Environmental Concern Production Of Geothermal Energy

Question 12. What are methanogenic bacteria? Give examples.
Answer:

Methanogenic bacteria

Methanogenic bacteria can be defined as microorganisms that produce methane gas by the anaerobic decomposition of biomass. Some examples of methanogenic bacteria are Methanococcus, Methanobacterium etc.

WBBSE Solutions For Class 10 Physical Science And Environment Chapter 1 Environmental Concern Methanogenic Bacteria

Question 13. Discuss the role of methanogenic bacteria in increasing the amount of methane in the atmosphere.
Answer:

Methanogenic bacteria decompose dead plants in wetlands, rain forests etc. to produce methane gas. Thus, the amount of methane in atmosphere increases.

Question 14. What is biomass energy? What are the disadvantages of using biomass energy?
Answer:

Biomass energy:

Biomass refers to dead plants and plant remains, domestic wastes, agricultural wastes, animal excreta, animal carcasses etc. Energy stored in biomass is known as biomass energy.

Biomass energy is considered to be one of the major alternative sources of energy to replace fossil fuels. However, it has some harmful effects on environment as the combustion of biomass causes air pollution.

Question 15. What is biogas? What are its constituents?
Answer:

Biogas:

Biomass refers to dead plants and plant remains, domestic wastes, agricultural wastes, animal excreta, animal carcasses, etc. The biomass is enclosed in a large chamber and decomposed by the action of methanogenic bacteria to produce a combustible gas, known as biogas.

The major components of biogas is methane (CH4). Apart from methane, carbon dioxide CO2, and traces of H2, N2, CO, O2, H2S, and water vapor are also present in it.

Question 16. Write some uses of biogas.
Answer:

Some uses of biogas:

Biogas can be used as a fuel to light lamps, to heat water, and for cooking purposes. In many countries, it is used to dry bricks, ceramic tiles, tobacco etc. Electricity generated from biogas can be used to run small pumps and small-scale industries.

Question 17. What is biofuel? Give examples.
Answer:

Biofuel:

The fuel produced from biomass is known as biofuel. Bioethanol produced by fermentation of corn or sugar cane is an example of biofuel. It is mixed with petrol and used as automobile fuel.

Question 18. What is methane hydrate?
Answer:

Methane hydrate:

Methane hydrate is a crystalline solid substance (clathrate compound) in which a large amount of methane molecules are trapped inside the cage-like lattice of ice. It is represented by the formula 4CH4 23H2O. It exists only under suitable temperatures and pressure.

WBBSE Solutions For Class 10 Physical Science And Environment Chapter 1 Environmental Concern Methane hydrate

Question 19. How is methane present in coal mines?
Answer: Due to bacterial action or geothermal heating, methane gas is produced in coal seams. The coal seams are saturated by ground water and the produced water pressure causes methane gas to get absored in the coal seam.

Question 20. Why is methane gas extracted before the mining of coal?
Answer: Before the mining of coal, methane gas should be extracted as much as possible from the coal bed. This is because- it will reduce the probability of catching fire and chances of accidents can be averted, the extracted methane gas can be used as a potential fuel.

Question 21. Why is methane hydrate considered as an important source of energy?
Answer: Recent discovery of methane hydrate explores a new dimension of energy resources. Scientists have estimated that methane hydrate contains more carbon than all the fossil fuel available on the earth, combined together.

1 Litre of methane hydrate is found to contain 170 Litre of methane gas in STP. When the world is facing an energy crisis due to exhaustion of fossil fuels, methane hydrate provides a complete new direction towards energy resources.

Question 22. State the concerns of using methane?
Answer:

Concerns of using methane

Methane hydrate is not as stable as other minerals. Due to increase in temperature or decrease in pressure, it may be transformed into water and methane gas may be released from the mineral. This may cause landslide beneath the earth surface. Methane is a major greenhouse gas. Heating methane hydrate may release methane gas to the atmosphere which may lead to global warming.

Question 23. Discuss some advantages of using solar energy.
Answer:

Some advantages of using solar energy:

Solar energy is inexhaustible and renewable. Scientists consider it as the most important source of alternative energy. Unlike fossil fuels, solar energy does not cause pollution. source of energy is very effective in less populated areas and in those regions where the .conventional sources of energy are not widely available. The production of solar energy requires minimum natural resources.

WBBSE Solutions For Class 10 Physical Science And Environment Chapter 1 Environmental Concern Solar Panels
Question 24. Mention some disadvantages of using solar energy.
Answer:

Some disadvantages of using solar energy:

Production cost of solar energy is very high as it requires complex technological support. So, under-developed countries find this energy unsuitable for use.

The initial cost of installing solar panels is very high. This is one of the major disadvantages of solar energy. Areas which do not get sufficient sunlight, are not suitable for utilising solar energy. Solar energy centers produce solar energy in limited quantities which can satisfy only the local need.

Question 25. Mention some advantages of wind energy.
Answer:

Some advantages of wind energy:

Wind energy is renewable and is source is inexhaustible. Even it’s incessant use will not create energy crisis. Even though initial cost of installation is somewhat high, regular cost is very create energy crisis. Recurring cost is very low. This energy source does not cause pollution.

Question 26. Mention some advantages of tidal energy.
Answer:

Some advantages of tidal energy:

Tidal energy is renewable and is source is inexhaustible. Even it’s incessant use will not create energy crisis. Recurring cost is very slow. This energy sorce does not cause pollution.

Question 27. Discuss some advantages of geothermal energy.
Answer:

Some advantages of geothermal energy:

1. This source of energy is inexhaustible.
2. Being inexhaustible, it can be supplied continuously throughout the day.
3. Direct use of this energy inhibits the release of greenhouse gases into the atmosphere, thereby preventing pollution.

Question 28. Mention some advantages of biomass energy.
Answer:

Some advantages of biomass energy:

Biomass energy is a renewable source of energy. The residue left after production of biogas from biomass can be used as fertilizers.

Biogas can be used as fuels and for the generation of electricity. Pollution caused by the waste material during biomass production can be controlled by using them for production of biogas.

WBBSE Solutions For Class 10 Physical Science And Environment Chapter 1 Environmental Concern Biogas Plant Biogas Plant
Question 29. How is electricity produced from domestic wastes?
Answer: Initially, substances that can be recycled are separated from the domestic wastes. Remaining wastes are then placed into a furnace through a hopper. These are then burnt in the combustion chamber. The heat so produced vapourises the water taken in a tank above the furnace.
The vapour is used to rotate the turbine which in turn generates electricity.

WBBSE Solutions For Class 10 Physical Science And Environment Chapter 1 Environmental Concern Production Of Electricity From Domestic Wastes
Question 30. Mention some uses of coalbed methane (CBM).
Answer:

Some uses of coalbed methane (CBM)

Coalbed methane (CBM) can be used as a fuel for domestic as well as industrial purposes. It can be used as a substitute of natural gas in power stations. It can be liquefied by applying pressure. The liquefied gas can be used in automobiles.

Question 31. Classify biofuel. Give example of each Characteristics of each type?
Answer:

Biofuel:

The fuel produced from biomass is called biofuel. It is classified into three groups- solid biofuel, liquid biofuel and gaseous biofuel. Solid biofuel: Wood, straw, domestic wastes etc., are examples of solid biofuels.

Liquid biofuel: Bioethanol (produced by fermentation of corn or sugarcane), biodiesel (produced by transesterification of oil or fat) are examples of liquid biofuels.

Gaseous biofuel: Biogas or gobar gas is an example of gaseous biofuel.

Question 32. How is methane gas extracted from coal mines?
Answer: A vertical hole is drilled through the ground into coal seam. Coal seam remains saturated in When the water is pumped out, the pressure over the coal seam decreases and methane gas is released from the coal seam. The gas then comes out through the hole and its collected and supplied through pipelines.

WBBSE Solutions For Class 10 Physical Science And Environment Chapter 1 Environmental Concern Extraction Of Methane Gas
Question 33. What is ignition point of a fuel? What are the characteristics of a good fuel?
Answer:

The ignition point of a fuel can be defined as the lowest temperature at which the fuel catches fire and undergoes combustion.

Characterisitics of a good fuel:

1. It should possess a high calorific value.
2. It should have a proper ignition temperature. The ignition temperature of the fuel should neither be too low or too high.
3. It should not produce poisonous products during combustion. In other words, it should not cause pollution during the time of combustion.
4. It should have a moderate rate of combustion. Combustion should easily be controlled i.e.
5. It should be easier to start or stop the combustion of the fuel when required. Combustion of the fuel should not produce. much ash.
6. It should be cheap and well available. The transportation and handling of the fuel must be easier.

Question 34. What do you mean by calorific value of fuel? Which one of coal and diesel has higher calorific value?
Answer:

Calorific value of fuel

The amount of heat produced due to the complete combustion of 1 kg of a fuel is known as its calorific value. Its value is represented in It is actually a metal box with a heat-insulating kl. kg-1 unit in Sl.

The calorific value, of diesel (44800 kJ. kg-1) is greater than that of coal (15000-34000 kJ.kg-1).

Question 35. What are the uses of solar energy?
Answer:

Solar energy is a renewable, inexhaustible, and affordable form of energy.

It can be used in following ways-

1. Solar electricity can be generated through solar panels and is used to light streets, houses, health centres etc.
2. Solar water heaters are used to heat water by Solar water heater is used to heat water using using solar energy.
3. Solar space heating systems include radiant floors or a Force Hot Air (FHA) system to heat a home thus reduces the overall electricity cost.
4. Solar ventilation solution such as solar attic fans can reduce the burden of HVAC by helping to cool the home during summer.
5. Solar cookers can be used for cooking purposes.
6. Solar powered vehicles (e.g. buses, small cars etc.) are used in many cities.

Question 36. Mention the uses of solar cells.
Answer:

In a solar cell, solar energy is converted into electrical energy and the generated electricity can be stored in batteries or can be used directly.

1. Water can be pumped up with the help of this energy.
2. Motor cars can be driven by installing solar panels.
3. This energy can be used in artificial satellites, space ships or space stations.
4. Radio stations and TV relay stations can use this energy.
5. This energy can be used to supply powers to traffic signals, solar calculators etc.

Question 37. Briefly discuss about solar cooker.
Answer:

The properties of solar cooker are:

1. Solar cooker is a cheap, energy-saving, pollution-free tool used in cooking. the environment i.e. it is completely pollution free.
2. It is actually a mental box with a heat-insulting coating around it.
3. Black color is avery good heat absorber, so the inner surfaces are painted black.
4. With the help of a reflector, the sunlight is concentrated and applied to the box to create high temperature.
5. The surface of the cooker is covered with a glass plate to increase the temperature inside

Question 38. Briefly discuss about solar water heater.
Answer:

The properties of water heater are:

1. Solar water heater is used to heat water using solar energy.
2. A black-painted metal box and a black- painted copper coil are placed inside it.
3. Sun rays are being reflected into the box with the help of a reflector to create a high temperature, which also heats the inner copper coil.
4. The water flowing through the hot copper coil is also heated in this way.

Question 39. Mention a few uses of wind energy.
Answer:

Few uses of wind energy are:

1. Wind power is used to generate electricity by winding the wind turbines.
2. With the help of windmill it is possible to grind different grains or spices, pump water etc.

Question 40. Mention the advantages and disadvantage of using geothermal energy.
Answer:

Advantages of using geothermal energy:

1. The supply of geothermal energy is inexhaustible, i.e., its stock will never run out despite being used repeatedly.
2. Using of geothermal energy causes no harm to the environment i.e. it is completely pollution free.

Disadvantages of using geothermal energy:

1. The construction of geothermal power generation plants is extremely expensive.
2. Due to the use of advanced technology, the cost per unit of this power generation is higher than that of conventional power plant.

Question 41. Write the differences between conventional and non-conventional sources of energy.
Answer:

Differences between conventional and non-conventional sources of energy:

Conventional sources  of energy    Non-conventional Sources of energy
1. Conventional sources of energy (e.g. coal, petroleum, and natural gas) are nonrenewable sources of energy and that is why there is a probability of that such sources might be exhausted by excessive use. 1. Non-conventional sources of energy (e.g. solar energy, wind energy) are renewable sources of energy and thus they can not be exhausted.
Z- These energy sources have been used for a long time. For. example, the use of coal and petrol has been around for a . long time. 2. The use of these energy sources (e.g., solar energy, wind energy, tidal energy) is not very common. Their use has recently become popular.
3. Use of these energy sources causes environmental pollution. 3. Use of these energy sources does not cause environmental pollution at all.
4. The use of these energy sources is not conducive to sustainable development. 4. The use of these energy sources is conducive to sustainable development.
5. A variety of byproducts can be obtained during the extraction of these energies. For example, naphthalene, coal tar, etc. are obtained during the extraction of coal. 5. No by-products can be obtained during the extraction of these energies.


Question 42. In which type of natural environment is methane hydrate found?

Answer: The topography and environment of some parts of the world are favorable to the formation and sustainability of methane hydrate. Those are:

1. Sedimentary rock layers below the frozen soil layer (Permafrost) of the polar region.
2. The sedimentary layer is present at the bottom of large lakes and the seas in the subcontinental region.
3. The bottom region of frozen ice in the polar region.

Question 43. Why is methane hydrate termed as ‘fiery ice’?
Answer:

Methane hydrate is a solid, crystalline substance having the composition of 4CH4. 23H2O. A large amount of methane is trapped in these ice-like crystals. Methane is a combustible substance, hence methane hydrate starts to burn on contact with fire. Only water is left after combustion. That is why methane hydrate is termed as ‘fiery ice’.

Chapter 1 Environmental Concern Topic C Proper Uses of Energy and Sustainable Development Choose The Correct Answer

Question 1. Which of the following is a fossil fuel?

  1. Coal
  2. Petroleum
  3. Natural gas
  4. All of these

Answer: 3. Natural gas

Question 2. Among petrol, diesel, kerosene, and LPG, which one has the highest calorific value?

  1. Peterol
  2. Kerosene
  3. Diesel
  4. LPG

Answer: 4. LPG

Question 3. Which of the following represents the correct order of calorific values of the corresponding fuels?

  1. Coal < diesel < hydrogen < LPG
  2. Coal < hydrogen < diesel < LPG
  3. Coal < diesel < LPG < hydrogen
  4. Coal < LPG < diesel < hydrogen

Answer: 3. Coal < diesel < LPG < hydrogen

Question 4. Which of the following is a fossil fuel?

  1. Coal
  2. Petroleum
  3. Natural gas
  4. All of these

Answer: 4. All of these

Question 5. Fossil fuels need to be conserved because

  1. These are very expensive
  2. These are not easily available
  3. These are non-renewable
  4. None of these

Answer: 3. These are non-renewable

Question 6. Which of the following elements is the major constituent of solar cells?

  1. Li
  2. Na
  3. Si
  4. Cu

Answer: 3. Si

Question 7. The major source of energy which meets our daily demands is

  1. Solar energy
  2. Wind energy
  3. Tidal energy
  4. Fossil fuels

Answer: 4. Fossil fuels

Question 8. Solar energy gets converted into electrical energy in a/an

  1. Photo voltaic cell
  2. Solar cooker
  3. Pressure cooker
  4. Electric motor

Answer: 1. Photo voltaic cell

Question 9. The least polluting fossil fuel is

  1. Diesel
  2. Coal
  3. Kerosene
  4. Natural gas

Answer: 4. Natural gas

Question 10. Source of non-renewable energy is

  1. Wind energy
  2. Petroleum
  3. Tidal energy
  4. Solar energy

Answer: 2. Petroleum

Question 11. The energy stored in coal, petroleum, etc. is

  1. Wind energy
  2. Solar energy
  3. Tidal energy
  4. Renewable energy

Answer: 2. Solar energy

Question 12. Which gas found in coal mines is used as a fuel?

  1. Ozone
  2. Methane
  3. Oxygen
  4. Nitrogen

Answer: 2. Methane

Question 13. An example of methanogenic bacteria is

  1. Methanococcus
  2. Methanobacterium
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. None of these

Answer: 3. Both 1 and 2

Question 14. Which of the following does work on the principle of the greenhouse effect?

  1. Solar cooker
  2. Radio station
  3. Windmill
  4. Biogas plant

Answer: 1. Solar cooker

Question 15. The largest windmill of India is situated in

  1. Kanyakumari (approx. 380MW)
  2. Surat (approx. 220MW)
  3. Haridwar (approx. 460MW)
  4. Sagardwip (approx. 410MW)

Answer: 1. Kanyakumari (approx. 380MW)

Question 16. The state with the largest installed wind power generation capacity in India is

  1. Tamil Nadu
  2. West Bengal
  3. Kerala
  4. Maharashtra

Answer: 1. Tamil Nadu

Question 17. Which of the following are eco-friendly fuels

  1. Coal,
  2. Kerosene,
  3. Natural gas,
  4. Biogas

1. (1) and (4)
2. (3) and (4)
3. (1) and (2)
4. (1) and (3)

Answer: 3. (1) and (2)

Question 18. Which type of coal has the highest calorific value?

  1. Pit
  2. Lignite
  3. Anthracite
  4. Bituminous

Answer: 3. Anthracite

Question 19. The main component of biofuel is

  1. Carbon dioxide
  2. Ethanol
  3. Methanol
  4. Ether

Answer: 2. Ethanol

Question 20. Solar cells are formed by

  1. Conductors
  2. Insulators
  3. Semiconductors
  4. Superconductors

Answer: 3. Semiconductors

Question 21. Source of the solar energy is

  1. Nuclear fission
  2. Coal
  3. Nuclear fusion
  4. Petroleum

Answer: 3. Nuclear fusion

Question 22. Formula of methane hydrate is

  1. CH3.H2O
  2. 4CH3-23H2O
  3. CH3OH
  4. 4CH4-23H2O

Answer: 4. 4CH4-23H2O

Question 23. Fiery ice is

  1. CO2
  2. Methane
  3. Methane hydrate
  4. Methanol

Answer: 3. Methane hydrate

Question 24. For which ray of sunlight does a solar cooker work?

  1. Gamma ray
  2. Infrared ray
  3. Ultraviolet ray
  4. Visible ray

Answer: 3. Methane hydrate

Question 25. What should be the minimum wind velocity for proper operation of a wind-power generator?

  1. 15 km/h
  2. 25 km/h
  3. 35 km/h
  4. 45 km/h

Answer: 1. 15 km/h

Question 26. The main component of biogas is

  1. CO2
  2. CH4
  3. H2
  4. H2S

Answer: 2. CH4

Question 27. Which is not a source of biomass energy?

  1. Agricultural waste
  2. Cow dung
  3. Wood
  4. Nuclear fission

Answer: 4. Nuclear fission

Question 28. A source of non-conventional energy is

  1. Petrol
  2. Kerosene
  3. Biogas
  4. Coal

Answer: 3. Biogas

Question 29. In which of the following states does methane hydrate exists?

  1. Solid
  2. Liquid
  3. Gas
  4. Any physical state

Answer: 1. Solid

Question 30. The potential difference formed in solar cells

  1. 0 V
  2. 0.5 V
  3. 220 V
  4. 110 V

Answer: 2. 0.5 V

Chapter 1 Environmental Concern Topic C Proper Uses of Energy and Sustainable Development Answer In Brief

Question 1. What do you mean by alternative fuels?
Answer:

Alternative fuels

Alternative fuels are those which are being used to restrict the use of fossil fuels in order to conserve their sources as these are gradually running out.

Examples: solar energy, wind energy, etc.

Question 2. Mention two major sources of energy.
Answer:

Two major sources of energy

1. Conventional sources of energy and
2. Non-conventional sources of energy.

Question 3. Name a conventional and renewable source of energy.
Answer: Wind power.

Question 4. Write the name of a conventional and nonrenewable source of energy.
Answer: Coal (fossil fuel).

Question 5. Write the names of two non-conventional and renewable sources of energy.
Answer:
1. Solar energy,
2. Tidal energy.

Question 6. Write the names of two non-conventional and non-renewable sources of energy.
1. Geothermal energy,
2. Nuclear energy.

Question 7. Why is the inner surface of a solar heater painted black?
Answer: Black surface can absorb more heat from sunlight. So, the inner surface of a solar heater is painted black.

Question 8. Which fuel has the highest calorific value?
Answer: Hydrogen (150000 kJ/kg) has the highest calorific value.

Question 9. Why do the pipelines of natural gas often get blocked?
Answer: The pipelines of natural gas often get blocked due to the formation of solid methane hydrate.

Word Problems Related to Environmental Issues

Question 10. The gas trapped in coal mines is a potential source of energy. Name the gas. Why is it called firedamp? OR, What is firedamp?
Answer:
1. The gas is methane (CH4).
2. Methane gas accumulated in coal mines forms an explosive mixture when mixed with air and often causes fire in coal mines. So this gas is named as firedamp.

Question 11. How is electricity produced in solar cells?
Answer: When photons present in sunlight are incident on the surface of the solar cell (made up of semiconductors, such as Si), the electrons get excited and ultimately becomes free. These free electrons generate electricity.

Question 12. What is geothermal energy?
Answer:

Geothermal energy

When groundwater passes over hotbeds of rocks, it gets vaporised. These vapours are utilized to move the plates of a turbine thereby producing electrical energy. This is known as geothermal energy.

Question 13. What is tidal energy?
Answer:

Tidal energy

During tides, the kinetic energy of water can be converted into electrical, energy using turbines. This energy is known as tidal power or tidal energy.

Question 14. Which is the major raw material used for the production of biogas?
Answer: Cow dung.

Question 15. What is the calorific value of fuel?
Answer:

Calorific value of fuel

The amount of heat produced due to the complete combustion of 1 kg of a fuel is known as its calorific value. Its value is represented in kJ • kg-1 unit in SI.

Question 16. How is biodiesel produced?
Answer: Biodiesel is produced due to the transesterification of vegetable oil and animal fats.

Question 17. Which seeds are used to produce biodiesel in India?
Answer: The seeds of the jatropha tree are used to produce biodiesel in India.

Question 18. What is ‘methane hydrate’?
Answer:

‘Methane hydrate’

Methane hydrate is a crystalline solid where methane molecules remain trapped inside a cage-like lattice of ice.

Question 19. Write down the unit of calorific value of a fuel.
Answer: The SI unit of calorific value of a fuel is J/kg and the CGS unit is cal/g.

Question 20. The calorific value of LPG is 50 kJ/g —Explain.
Answer: It means that 50 kJ of heat is obtained by the combustion of 1 g of LPG.

Question 21. Arrange in ascending order of calorific value—Kerosene, Wood, Coal, Hydrogen, LPG, Diesel.
Answer: Wood > Coal > Diesel > Kerosene > LPG > Hydrogen

Question 22. Write the name of fossil fuel.
Answer: Coal.

Question 23. Which gas is filled in the gas cylinder used for cooking?
Answer: Liquefied Petroleum Gas (LPG)

Question 24. What is the main component of LPG?
Answer: Butane.

Question 25. What is the main component of CNG?
Answer: Methane.

Question 26. Which of the following is a fossil fuel? Charcoal, Petrol, Ethanol.
Answer: Petrol

Question 27. Which gas is produced during the combustion of fossil fuels?
Answer: CO2(Carbon dioxide).

Question 28. Write the name of a conventional renewable pollution-free energy source.
Answer: Wind power.

Question 29. Write the name of an environment-friendly non-conventional energy source.
Answer: Geothermal energy.

Question 30. Write the name of an alternative energy source.
Answer: Solar energy.

Question 31. Write the name of a device that uses solar cells.
Answer: Solar calculator.

Question 32. What is generated from the wind power of wind mill?
Answer: Electrical energy.

Question 33. Write the name of a place in West Bengal that has windmills.
Answer: Fraserganj.

Question 34. Name an energy source that does not come directly or indirectly from the sun.
Answer: Geothermal energy.

Question 35. What is available as residue in the controlled construction of wood?
Answer: Charcoal.

Question 36. Methanogenic Bacteria decompose substances to produce methane gas.
Answer: Biomass.

Question 37. Give an example of Methanogenic Bacteria.
Answer: Methanogens—Methanosarcina barkeri

Question 38. Mention the use of Biogas.
Answer: Biogas can be used as a fuel for cooking purposes.

Question 39. Write down the fuel form of CBM.
Answer: Coalbed methane.

Question 40. What is sweet gas?
Answer:

Sweet gas

Methane gas obtained from coal mines is called sweet gas.

Question 41. What is ‘fiery ice’?
Answer:

‘Fiery ice’

Methane Hydrate ((4CH4• 23 H2O ) is called ‘fiery ice’.

Question 42. How much volume of methane gas can be obtained from 1 Litre of methane hydrate at NTP?
Answer: Almost 170 Litre of methane gas can be obtained from 1 Litre of methane hydrate at NTP.

Chapter 1 Environmental Concern Topic C Proper Uses of Energy and Sustainable Development Fill In The Blanks

Question 1. The calorific value of LPG is _________.
Answer:
55000 kJ/kg.

Question 2. The major component of biogas is ________
Answer:
Methane

Question 3. Apart, from methane, another gas that is found in biogas is ________.
Answer: CO2

Question 4. At STP, about __________ of methane is obtained from 1 L of methane hydrate.
Answer: 170L

Question 5. Methane hydrate is a solid _________ compound.
Answer: Clathrate

Question 6. _________ river basin in India has one of the largest reserves of methane hydrate.
Answer: Krishna-Godavari

Question 7. The idea of sustainable development is properly developed in the report of the __________ Commission.
Answer: Brundtland

Question 8. Biogas is produced due to the anaerobic decomposition of cow dung by __________ bacteria.
Answer: Methanogenic

Question 9. The calorific value of methane is _________ than petrol.
Answer: Less

Question 10. In photovoltaic cells, solar energy is directly converted into _________ energy.
Answer: Electrical

Question 11. In artificial satellites, the main source of energy is the energy produced by __________
Answer: Solar Cells

Question 12. The value of solar constant is approximately ________
Answer:
1.4kW/m2

Question 13. Biogas contains _______ of methane gas.
Answer: 50-80%

Question 14. Among wood and methane, the calorific value is more in case of __________
Answer:
Methane

Question 15. The substance used to make solar cell is ________
Answer: Silicon

Question 16. Electrical energy is obtained from in solar cells ___________
Answer:
Solar energy

Question 17. _________ is generated from wind power in wind mills.
Answer: Mechanical Energy

Question 18. _________ in West Bengal is a region that is rich in geothermal energy.
Answer: Barkreshwar

Question 19. Vegetable wastes are decomposed by anaerobic bacteria in __________ of air in the biogas plants.
Answer: Absence

Question 20. To produce biogas___________ bacteria is needed.
Answer: Methanogenic

Question 21. The hard coal in the mine contains a large amount of_______ in the absorbed state.
Answer: Methane

Question 22. _____________ is also termed as fiery ice.
Answer: Methane Hydrate

Question 23.  _________ gas is obtained from methane hydrate.
Answer: Methane

Chapter 1 Environmental Concern Topic C Proper Uses of Energy and Sustainable Development State Whether True Or False

Question 1. The calorific value of kerosene is greater than LPG.
Answer: False

Question 2. Semiconductors like Si, Ge, etc., are used in solar cells.
Answer: True

Question 3. Gasoline is a kind of biofuel.
Answer: False

Question 4. Methanogenic bacteria play a major role in biogas production.
Answer: True

Question 5. CO2 gas is trapped inside the coal mines.
Answer: False

Question 6. The quality of fuel is determined by its calorific value.
Answer: True

Question 7. Methane hydrate contains 13.3% methane. Bioethanol is a liquid biofuel.
Answer: False

Question 8. The source of solar energy is the nuclear fission reaction that takes place inside the Sun.’
Answer: False

Question 9. The chemical energy stored in biomass is called biomass energy,
Answer: True

Question 10. Solar panels are used in broadcast relay stations.
Answer: True

Question 11. The most widely used definition of sustainable development was produced by the report of the Brundtland Commission.
Answer: True

Question 12. Windmills usually convert electrical energy into mechanical energy.
Answer: False

Question 13. Bioethanol is a liquid biofuel.
Answer: True

Chapter 1 Environmental Concern Miscellaneous Type Questions Match The Columns

Question 1

Column A Column B
Chlorofluro-carbon 1. Non-conventional source of energy
Biofuel 2. Ozone layer depletion
Solar energy 3. Fossil fuel
Petroleum 4. Ethanol

Answer:
Chlorofluro-carbon: 2. Ozone layer depletion
Biofuel: 4. Ethanol
Solar energy: 1. Non-conventional source of energy
Petroleum: 3. Fossil fuel

Question 2

Column A Column B
Greenhouse gas 1. Tidal energy
Renewable source of energy 2. Photovoltaic cell
Natural gas 3. Global warming
Solar energy 4. Methane

Answer:
Greenhouse gas: 3. Global warming
Renewable source of energy: 1. Tidal energy
Natural gas: 4. Methane
Solar energy: 2. Photovoltaic cell

Question 3

Column A Column B
Turbulent sphere of atmosphere 1. Mesopause
Aurora borealis 2. Exosphere
The coldest region of the atmosphere 3. Troposphere
Hydrogen and helium gases are present 4. Ionosphere

 

Answer:
Turbulent sphere of atmosphere: 3. Troposphere
Aurora borealis: 4. Ionosphere
The coldest region of the atmosphere: 1. Mesopause
Hydrogen and helium gases are present: 2. Exosphere

WBBSE Solutions for Class 10 Physical Science and Environment

WBBSE Solutions For Class 7 Maths Algebra Chapter 2 Addition Subtraction Multiplication And Division Of Integers Exercise 2 Solved Example Problems

Algebra Chapter 2 Addition Subtraction Multiplication And Division Of Integers Exercise 2

Solved Example Problems

Integers are all natural numbers including Zero (0) i.e., all whole numbers with a positive or negative sign.

For example 0, 3, (-3), 5, (-8), etc., are all integers.

Addition and Subtraction of the integers

You have already learned the number line and the representation of the numbers in the number line to attain the value of an expression in class 6.

Let us find the value of the expression 0+(+2)+( + 5)+(- 10)+(-6).

WBBSE Solutions For Class 7 Maths Algebra Chapter 2 Addition Subtraction Multiplication And Division Of Integers Exercise 2 Solved Example Problems

WBBSE Class 7 Math Solutions

Read and Learn More WBBSE Solutions For Class 7 Maths

 

WBBSE Solutions For Class 7 Maths Algebra Chapter 2 Addition Subtraction Multiplication And Division Of Integers Exercise 2 Addition Subtraction Of Integers

 

The value of the expression 0 + 2 + 5-10-6 = (-9).

Step 1 > (+ 0) + (+ 2) = + 2.
Step 2 > (+ 2 ) + (+ 5) = + 7 (adding both integers with the same signs gives the result with that sign).
Step 3 > (+ 7) + (- 10) = 7- 10 =-3 (By adding the integers with different signs the result will be the difference between the numbers with the sign of the greater number.)
Step 4 > (-3) + (-6) =  (-9) (adding both integers with the same signs gives the result with that sign).

 

Let us find the value of {( + 3) – (- 3)} – ( – 8) from the number line.

{(+ 3) – (- 3)} – (- 8) = {(+ 3) + ( 3)} + ( + 8)= ▭

 

WBBSE Solutions For Class 7 Maths Algebra Chapter 2 Addition Subtraction Multiplication And Division Of Integers Exercise 2 Addition Subtraction OfIntegers

 

So, we get {( + 3) – (- 3)} – (- 8) = + 14.

Commutative Property

Class 7 Algebra Integer Problems

We know 3 + 5 = 5 + 3 = 8. This infers that whole numbers can be added in any order.

So, the addition of whole numbers is commutative.

But let us see what happens in the case of integers

We know 4 + (- 6)= – 2 and (-6) + 4 = -2.

So, 4 + (-6) = (-6) + 4.

So, it is known that addition is commutative for integers, a + b = b + a

But subtraction is not commutative for whole numbers as well as integers.

Let us consider the integers 6 and ( – 3 ).

Example 1. 6-(- 3) = 6 + 3 = 9.

Example 2. – 3 – 6 = – 9.

So, we can conclude that subtraction is not commutative for integers.

WBBSE Class 7 Geography Notes WBBSE Solutions For Class 7 History
WBBSE Solutions For Class 7 Geography WBBSE Class 7 History Multiple Choice Questions
WBBSE Class 7 Geography Multiple Choice Questions WBBSE Solutions For Class 7 Maths

 

Example 1. By selling each kg of mango, a fruit seller gains ₹ 5 per kg but loses ₹4 per kg of lichi. If he sells 10 kg mango and 14 kg of lichi, find his overall profit or loss.

Solution:

Given:

By selling each kg of mango, a fruit seller gains ₹ 5 per kg but loses ₹4 per kg of lichi. If he sells 10 kg mango and 14 kg of lichi,

On selling 1 kg mango, he earns ₹ 5

So, profit in 10 kg of mango = ₹ 5 x 10 = ₹50

Again, on selling 1 kg of lichi, the fruit seller losses ₹ 4, in other words, he earns – ₹ 4.

So his earning on selling 14 kg lichi = – ₹ 4 x 14 = – ₹ 56

So, his overall profit = ₹ 50 + ₹ (- 56) = – ₹ 6, that means he losses ₹ 6 after the sale.

Example 2. In an examination, 6 marks are given for correct answers, and – 3 marks are given for incorrect answers. If Rabin makes 7 correct answers and 5 incorrect answers, then what is his score?

Solution :

Given:

In an examination, 6 marks are given for correct answers, and – 3 marks are given for incorrect answers. If Rabin makes 7 correct answers and 5 incorrect answers

For 7 correct answers Rabin gets = 7 x 6 = 42 marks

For 5 incorrect answers, Rabin gets = 5 x (- 3) = – 15 marks.

So, his total marks = 42 + (-15) = 27 marks.

His total Score  = 27 marks.

Step-by-Step Solutions for Class 7 Integers

Example 3. In a quiz competition, Manika’s scores in five successive rounds were 25, – 2, – 10,15 and 10 with negative markings for wrong answers. Find her total score at the end of 5th round.

Solution:

Given:

In a quiz competition, Manika’s scores in five successive rounds were 25, – 2, – 10,15 and 10 with negative markings for wrong answers.

Her total score = 25 + (- 2) + ( – 10) + 15 + 10

= 25-2-10+15+10

= 50 – 12 = 38.

Her total score at the end of 5th round = 38

 

Algebra Chapter 2 Addition Subtraction Multiplication And Division Of Integers Exercise 2 Examples For Associative Properties

⇔ Consider the integers + 3,-5, and – 7.

Example 1. Let us find out the value of the expression by number line {(+ 3) + (- 5)} + (- 7).

Solution:

WBBSE Solutions For Class 7 Maths Algebra Chapter 2 Addition Subtraction Multiplication And Division Of Integers Exercise 2 Associative Properties Example 1

 

Example 2. If the expression be (+ 3)+{(-5)+(-7)} then find the value.

Solution:

WBBSE Solutions For Class 7 Maths Algebra Chapter 2 Addition Subtraction Multiplication And Division Of Integers Exercise 2 Associative Properties Example 2

 

We get, {( + 3) + (- 5)} + ( – 7) = ( + 3) + {(- 5) + (- 7).

We find that addition is associative for integers.

In general, for any integers a, b, and c, we can say, (a + b) + c = a + (b + c)

 

Algebra Chapter 2 Addition Subtraction Multiplication And Division Of Integers Exercise 2 Examples For Multiplication Of Integers


We know that the multiplication of whole numbers is repeated addition.

Example: 4 x 2 = 2 + 24-2 + 2 = 8.

Example 1. Let us find the value of 3 x 2 (both the integers are +ve).

Solution:

WBBSE Solutions For Class 7 Maths Algebra Chapter 2 Addition Subtraction Multiplication And Division Of Integers Exercise 2 Multiplication Of Integers Example 1

 

We get from number line 3×2 = ( + 2) + ( + 2) + ( + 2) = + 6.

Example 2. Now, find the value of 2 x 3.

Solution:

WBBSE Solutions For Class 7 Maths Algebra Chapter 2 Addition Subtraction Multiplication And Division Of Integers Exercise 2 Multiplication Of Integers Example 2

 

We get from number line =2×3=(+3)+(+3)=+6

∴ We find that in both cases the value is same.

So, 3 x 2 = 2 x 3 or a x b = b x a

WBBSE Class 7 Maths Algebra Guide

Example 3. Now, let us find out the product value of 3 x (- 4) (One integer is +ve and the other is -ve).

Solution:

WBBSE Solutions For Class 7 Maths Algebra Chapter 2 Addition Subtraction Multiplication And Division Of Integers Exercise 2 Multiplication Of Integers Example 3

 

We get from number line 3x(-4)-(-4)+(- 4)+(-4)-12-(3×4)

Again, in case of 2x(- 4) = (-41) + (- 4) = (- 8) = (- 2 ) x 4

= (- 2) + (- 2)+ (-2 ) + (-2)

So, a x (-6) = (-a) x b = – (ab)

We thus find that while multiplying a positive integer and a negative integer, we multiply them as whole numbers and put a minus (-) sign before the product. We thus get a negative integer.

So, we learn that when signs of integers are same, the answer is a +ve number.

( + )x( + )or(-)x(-) are always +ve.

When the signs of the integers are different, the answer is always – ve (+) x (-) or (-) x ( + ) are always – ve.

WBBSE Class 7 Integer Exercises

Multiplication of negative integers:

Now let us see the product of two negative integers

(-3) x (-2) = + 6

(-4) x (-5)= + 20

(- 4) x (- 3) = + 12.

So, after observing these products we understand that there is a rule prevailing over states that the product of two negative integers is always a positive integer.

So, (-a) x (-b) = a x b

Now, let us see the product of three or more negative integers:

1. (-5) x (-3) x (-2) = [-5 x -3] x (-2) = 15 x (-2) =-30.

2.( -3)x( -5)x( -2)x(-4) = [ -3 x -5] x [-2 x -4] = (+15) x ( + 8) = +120.

From the above results we observe that:

  1. Product of two negative integers is a positive integer.
  2. Product of three negative integers is a negative integer.
  3. Product of four negative integers is a positive integer.

So, we can conclude that if the number of negative integers in a product is even then the product is always a positive integer. If the number of negative integers in a product is odd, then the product is always a negative integer.

Integer Operations for Class 7 Students

Algebra Chapter 2 Addition Subtraction Multiplication And Division Of Integers Exercise 2 Examples For Commutative Property Of Multiplication

Now we observe the following results

Pattern -1 Pattern – 2 Conclusion
3x(-4) =-12, (-15) x 10 =-150, (-4)x(-5) = 20 (-4)x3= -12, 10 x (-15)=-150, (-5)x(-4)=20 3x(-4) = (-4 )x3, (-15)x10 = 10 x (-15), (-4)x(-5) = (-5)x(-4)

 

All the cases shown above confirm that multiplication is commutative in the case of integers.

So, a x b = b x a (where a & b are integers)

Distributive property of multiplication: We know that, 15 x (8 + 2) =(15 x 8) + (15 x 2) = 150

Now, let us see the cases for negative integers also: (- 3) x (2 + 5) = – 3 x 7 = – 21.

Also, [(-3)x 2] + [(-3) x5] =-6+-15=-21.

So, we can conclude that

a x (b + c) = a x b + a x c

We know, 5(9 – 3) = 5 x 6 = 30

Again, ( 5 x 9) – (5 x 3) = 45 – 15 = 30.

So, we can conclude that if a, b, c are there integers then we can write, a x ( b – c ) = a x b – a x c

Similarly,

(-5) x 3 = (- 15) > 1. (-15) + (- 5) = 3,2. (-15) + 3 = (-5)

(-3) x (-5) = 15 > 1. 15 ÷ (- 3) = (- 5), 2. 15 + (- 5) = (- 3)

Class 7 Maths Integer Addition and Subtraction

Rule for division:

1. When we divide a +ve integer by a -ve integer or a -ve integer by a + ve integer, division is done considering whole numbers but putting a minus sign ( – ) before the quotient. Hence, the result is negative.

\(\frac{-15}{3}\) = – \(\frac{15}{3}\) = -5

So, a ÷ (-b) = (-a) ÷ b = – \(\frac{a}{b}\)

2. When we divide a negative integer by a negative integer, we divide the integers considering whole numbers but putting a ( + ) positive sign before the quotient.

\(\frac{-15}{5}\) = + \(\frac{15}{5}\) = +3

So, (- a) + (- b) = a ÷ b = \(\frac{a}{b}\)

3. Now let us take two integers like 24, ( – 3). If we divide one by other, then let us see the result.

24 ÷ ( – 3) = \(\frac{24}{-3}\) = – \(\frac{24}{3}\) = -8 ….(1)

Again, (-3) + 24= \(\frac{-3}{24}\) = – \(\frac{1}{8}\) …..(2)

We find (1) & (2) are not same.

So, we can write, a ÷ b ≠ b ÷ a

4. Let us take three integers like – 30, – 5, and + 2. We now set the number in two ways.

 

Set 1 Set 2
(-30) ÷ {(-5) + 2} = (-30) ÷ (-3) = 10 (-30) ÷ (-5)+ (-30) ÷ 2 = 6 +(-15) = 6 – 15 = – 9

 

∴ (-30) {(-5) + 2} ≠ (-30) ÷ (-5) + (-30) ÷ 2

So, we can write, a ÷ ( b + c) ≠ a ÷ b + a ÷ c

5. We now take three integers – 30, + 2, and 7. Let us set the numbers in two ways.

Set 1 Set 2
{(- 30) + 2 } ÷ 7 = – 28 ÷ 7 = – 4 {(-30) + 2}÷ 7 = \(\frac{-30}{7}\) + \(\frac{2}{7}\) = \(\frac{-30+2}{7}\) = \(\frac{-28}{7}\) = -4

 

So, we can write, (b + c) ÷ a = b ÷ a + c ÷ 4

 

Algebra Chapter 2 Addition Subtraction Multiplication And Division Of Integers Exercise 2 Examples For Multiplication And Division

Example 1. Find the value of the following products:

  1. (- 18) x (- 9) x 9
  2. (- 20) x (- 2) x { – 5) x 6
  3. (- 1) x (- 5) x ( – 4) x (- 6)

Solution:

  1. (- 18) x (- 9) x 9 = [(- 18) x (-9)] x 9 = 162 x 9 = 1458.
  2. (- 20) x(-2)x(-5)x6 = (- 20 x – 2) x (- 5) x 6 = 40 x (- 5) x 6 = – 200 x 6 . = -1200.
  3. (- 1) x (_ 5) x (- 4) x (- 6) = [(- 1) x (- 5)] x [(- 4) x (- 6)] = 5×24 = 120.

Solved Examples for Class 7 Algebra

Example 2.  In a test containing 12 questions, 4 marks are given for every correct answer, and ( – 2) marks are given for every incorrect answer. Raju attempted all questions but only 8 of his answers were correct. Find his total score.

Solution:

Given:

In a test containing 12 questions, 4 marks are given for every correct answer, and ( – 2) marks are given for every incorrect answer. Raju attempted all questions but only 8 of his answers were correct.

Marks are given for each correct answer = 4

So, marks for 8 correct answers = 8 x 4 = 32

Marks given for one incorrect answer = – 2

So, marks for (12 – 8) = 4 incorrect answers = (-2) x 4 = -8.

Therefore, Raju’s total score = 32 + (- 8) = 32-8 =24.

Class 7 Maths Exercise 2 Solutions

Example 3. A shopkeeper earns a profit of ₹2 by sealing one pen and incurs a loss of ₹ 1 per pencil. In a particular month, he incurs a loss of ₹ 15, During this period, he sold 45 pens. How many pencils did he sell in this period?

Solution:

Given:

A shopkeeper earns a profit of ₹2 by sealing one pen and incurs a loss of ₹ 1 per pencil. In a particular month, he incurs a loss of ₹ 15, During this period, he sold 45 pens.

Profit earned by selling one pen = ₹ 2.

Profit earned by selling 45 pens = ₹2 x 45 = ₹ 90.

Loss incurred =₹ 15, which is denoted by – ₹ 15.

We know profit earned + loss incurred = Total loss

Therefore, Loss incurred =  Total loss – Profit earned = -₹ 15 – ₹90 = – ₹ 105.

Loss incurred by selling one pencil = ₹ 1.

So, number of pencils sold = – ₹ 105 ÷ – ₹1 = 105.

Number of pencils sold in this period = 105.

 

WBBSE Solutions For Class 7 Maths Algebra Chapter 1 Some Problems On Symbols

Algebra Chapter 1 Some Problems On Symbols

Symbols Introduction:

In the previous class, you have known the contribution of famous mathematicians in the study of algebra.

Here we shall not repeat it. In this chapter, our aim is to discuss briefly the algebraic system of numbers, directed numbers, the use of algebraic symbols and four basic operations which you have learnt in the previous class.

Wbbse Class 7 Maths Solutions

Algebraic system of numbers and directed numbers

Read and Learn More WBBSE Solutions For Class 7 Maths

In arithmetic, we form all the numbers with the help of the ten digits 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, and 0. But we cannot write “any number” by these digits. Also, the numbers considered in arithmetic are positive numbers.

In arithmetic + sign denotes addition and – sign denotes subtraction. In algebra, these two signs are used in much wider sense.

In arithmetic when we subtract 5 from 10 then we say 10 – 5 = 5.

But when we are asked to subtract 15 from 10 then we say that 10 – 15 cannot be calculated as a greater number cannot be subtracted from a smaller number.

Thus, 10-15 becomes meaningless. But in algebra 10 – 15 = – 5. The consideration of negative numbers in algebra helps us to overcome many difficulties.

Also to express some quantities of same kind but of opposite nature, we use positive and negative numbers.

Thus to express profit and loss, increase and decrease rise and fall, and income and expenditure we take one as + quantity and the other as -quantity.

In arithmetic, there is no place of negative numbers. The numbers +1, +2, +3…. and -1, -2, -3…. considered in algebra are called directed numbers since the idea of direction is associated with these numbers.

Here, the signs + and – are called the signs of affection.

WBBSE Solutions For Class 7 Maths Algebra Chapter 1 Some Problems On Symbols

WBBSE Class 7 Algebra Symbols Notes 

Use of algebraic symbols

To express ‘any number’ we use the letters of the alphabet as symbols. Thus we use the letters x, y, z etc., as symbols to represent numbers.

When such alphabetic symbols are used instead of numbers then those symbols express numbers— although their values are not fixed.

For example, x + 5 represents a number but its value is not fixed as the value of x is not fixed.

We may express all the 90 numbers of two digits with the help of a single symbol 10b + a in which a represents the digit in the units’ place and b represents the digit in the tens’ place.

In arithmetic, we find the relation, Dividend = Divisor x Quotient + Remainder. This relation cannot be expressed, in general, by the ten digits of arithmetic.

But if we assume that, if the number a is divided by b then the quotient is c and the remainder is d, then we may write, a = b c + d in this relation a, b, c, d may represent any number.

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WBBSE Solutions For Class 7 Geography WBBSE Class 7 History Multiple Choice Questions
WBBSE Class 7 Geography Multiple Choice Questions WBBSE Solutions For Class 7 Maths

 

Four basic operations

Addition, Subtraction, Multiplication and Division are the four basic operations.

We use these operations in algebra in the same way as we use them in arithmetic.

For example:

  1. Sum of a and b is represented by a + b.
  2. Result of subtracting b from a is represented by a – b.
  3. Product of a and b is represented by a x b.
  4. Result of dividing a by b is represented by \(\frac{a}{b}\).

Opposite numbers: If x is a natural number then + x and – x are opposite to each other.

Example: -7 is the opposite number of +7.

Absolute value: The value of a positive or negative number without its sign is called its absolute value. For example, the absolute value of both -10 and +10 is 10.

Addition:

1. To add two positive numbers, the absolute values of the numbers are added and the sign of the sum is +.

For Example:

(+6) + (+4) = + 10

(+15) +(+6) = + 21.

2. To add two negative numbers, the absolute values of the numbers are added and the sign of the sum is -.

For Example:

(-7) + (- 5) = -12

(-12) + (- 8) = -20.

3. To add one positive and one negative number the smaller absolute value is subtracted from the greater absolute value and the sign of the result is that of the greater number.

For Example:

(+8) + (-3) = +5

(-12) + (+4) – -8.

Subtraction:

Important Definitions Related to Algebraic Symbols

Subtracting the integral number y from the integral number x means adding the opposite of the integral number y to the integral number x. For example, to subtract -5 from +7 we have to add +5 with +7.

So, (+7) – (-5) = (+7) + (+5) = (+12).

Similarly, (+8) – (+3) = (+8) + (-3) = (+5).

Multiplication:

In order to find the product of two numbers we have to multiply their absolute values and the sign of the product will be “+’ if the given two numbers are of the same sign and the sign of the product will be —’ if the given two numbers are of the opposite sign.

Example: (+5)x(+4) = + 20
(- 4) x (+ 7) = – 28
(+ 3) x (- 8) = – 24
(-7) x (- 2) = + 14

Division:

In order to find the quotient of two numbers we have to divide their absolute values and the sign of the quotient will be + if the dividend and the divisor are of the same sign and the sign of the quotient will be – if they are of opposite sign.

Example:

(+30) ÷ (+ 5) = (+ 6)
(+ 28) ÷ (- 4) = (- 7)
(- 42) ÷ (+ 6) = (- 7)
(- 40) ÷ (- 5) = (+ 8)

Algebra Chapter 1 Revision Of Previous Lessons Exercise 1 Some Problems On Symbols

Example 1. Write in words:

  1. x + y
  2. \(\frac{x}{3}\)
  3. 2x + 3
  4. x ≥ 14
  5.  x ≤ 8.

Solution:

  1. The sum of x and y.
  2. One-third of x.
  3. 3 more than twice x.
  4. The value of x is greater than or equal to 14.
  5. The value of x is less than or equal to 8.

Example 2. Write with the help of a sign 

  1. 7 less than p
  2. 20 times q
  3. 3 less than one-fourth of x
  4. The value of x is not greater than 25
  5. The value of y is not less than 30.

Solution:

  1.  p – 7
  2. 20 q
  3. \(\frac{x}{4}\) – 3
  4. x WBBSE Solutions For Class 7 Maths Algebra Chapter 1 Revision Of Previous Lessons Exercise 1 Example 225
  5. y WBBSE Solutions For Class 7 Maths Algebra Chapter 1 Revision Of Previous Lessons Exercise 1 Example 230.

Conceptual Questions on Operations with Algebraic Symbols

Example 3.  If a = 2, b = 5 and c = 8 then write 582 by the alphabetic symbol.

Solution : 582 = 5 x 100 + 8 x 10 + 2 = b x 100 + c x 10 + a = 100b + 10c + a

∴ 1006 + 10c + a.

Example 4. Ram had ₹ x, and Ram’s father gave him ₹y more. How many rupees has Ram at present?

Solution: ∴(x + y).

Example 5. The product of two numbers is 30. If one of them be x then find the other.

Solution: \(\frac{30}{x}\)

Example 6. 20 years ago, a man’s age was (x- 10) years. What will be his age after 20 years?

Solution: 20 years ago, the man’s age was (x -10) years.

So at present his age = (x – 10 + 20) years = (x + 10) years.

∴ After 20 years his age will be (x + 10 + 20) years = (x + 30) years

∴ (x + 30) years.

Real-Life Scenarios Involving Algebraic Problem Solving

Example 7. Ram is x years older than Shyam, and y years younger than Jadu. If Jadu is 2 years old then find the ages of Ram and Shyam.

Class Vii Math Solution Wbbse
Solution: Jadu is z years old.

Ram is y years younger than Jadu.

So Ram’s age = (z – y) years.

Again, Shyam is x years younger than Ram.

So, Shyam’s age = (z-y-x) years

∴ Ram’s age is (z-y) years and Shyam’s age is (z – y – x) years.

Example 8. Hari’s age will be b years, after a year. What was his age c years ago?

Solution:

Given:

Hari’s age will be b years, after a year.

At present, Hari’s age is (b – a) years, c years ago his age was (b – a-c) years

∴ (b- a-c) years.

Example 9. The number of members of a club is x. If each member contributes? ₹y, what will be the total contribution? If z number of footballs are bought by that money, find the price of each football.

Solution:

Given:

The number of members of a club is x. If each member contributes? ₹y,

1 member contributes ₹y

x members contribute ₹ xy

The price of z footballs is ₹ xy

The price of 1 football is ₹ \(\frac{xy}{z}\)

∴ ₹ \(\frac{xy}{z}\), ₹ xy

Class Vii Math Solution Wbbse

Example 10. The product of two numbers is p; if their H. C. F. be m then what will be their L. C. M.?

Solution:

Given:

The product of two numbers is p; if their H. C. F. be m

L. C. M. X H. C. F. = Product of the numbers

or, L. C. M. X m =p

or, L, C. M. = \(\frac{p}{m}\)

∴ \(\frac{p}{m}\)

Concept of Index

In case of the number xn, we say that x is the main number and n is power or index.

Three basic rules of the index are:

1. xm X xn= xm+n,

2. xm ÷ xn= xm-n,

3. (xm)n = xmn.

Examples of Real-Life Applications of Algebraic Symbols

Example: xmn x x4 = x8+4 = x12,

x8 ÷ x4 = x8-4 =  x4 and (x8)4 = X8 x 4 = x32.

Also, x° = 1, because x° = xn-n = xn ÷ xn= 1.

Any integer can also be expanded is terms of the index as follows:

915 = 9 x 100 + 10 x 1 + 5 = 9 x 102 + 101+ 5

Also, 81 = 3 x 3 x 3 x 3 = 34

Here, 3 is the main number and 4 is the index.

Some problems on directed numbers:

Example 1. Arrange the following numbers in the ascending order of their values: 5,-3,-7, 0, 4,-13.

Solution: In the ascending order of their values the numbers are: -13, -7, -3, 0, 4, 5.

Example 2. Arrange the following numbers in the descending order of their values: -7,- 15,-8, 5, 0,-20, 25, 15.

Solution: In the descending order of their values, the numbers are: 25, 15, 5, 0, – 7, – 8, – 15, – 20.

Example 3. Write the opposite of the following expressions.

  1. Expenditure of ₹ 30.
  2. – 3 km towards north.
  3. A capital of ₹ 50.
  4. Rise of temperature by 42°C.
  5. Descending – 20 metres.
  6. Fall of temperature by – 20°C.

Solution:

  1.  An income of ₹ 30.
  2. 3 km towards the north.
  3. A loan of ₹ 50.
  4. Fall of temperature by 42°C.
  5. Descending 20 metres.
  6. Fall of temperature by 20°C.

Example 4. What do the following expressions mean?

  1. A loan of  ₹ -10.
  2. An income of ₹ -40.
  3. Ascending -70 metres.
  4. A profit of  ₹-100.
  5. Fall of temperature by -5°C.
  6. -15 km towards north.

Solution:

  1. A capital of  ₹ 10.
  2. An expenditure of ₹ 40.
  3. Descending 70 metres.
  4. A loss of  ₹ 100.
  5. Rise of temperature by 5°C.
  6. 15 km towards south.

Example 5. If +x represents an income of  ₹ 20. then which will represent an expenditure of  ₹ 100?

Solution:

Given:

+x represents an income of  ₹ 20.

An income of ₹ 20 is represented by + x

An income of ₹ 1 is represented by \(\frac{+x}{20}\)

An income of ₹ 100 is represented by \(\frac{+x}{20}\) X 100 = + 5x

∴ An expenditure of  ₹ 100 will be represented by – 5x.

Short Answers on Algebraic Expressions and Symbols

Example 6. If x = a profit of ₹ 7 and y = a loss of ₹ 15 then find what amount of profit or loss will be represented by 12x + 3y?

Solution:

Given:

x = a profit of ₹ 7 and y = a loss of ₹ 15

12x = 12 X a profit of ₹ 7 = a profit of ₹ 84

3y = 3 X a loss of ₹ 15 = a loss of ₹ 45 .

∴ 12x+3y = a profit of ₹ (84 – 45) = a profit of ₹ 39

Solution: A profit of ₹ 39.

Example 7.  If an expenditure of ₹ 50 is denoted by -5 \(\frac{1}{2}\) then what will be denoted by + 33?

Solution: – \(\frac{11}{2}\) denotes an expenditure of ₹ 50

-1 denotes an expenditure of ₹ 50 X \(\frac{2}{11}\)

∴ -33 denotes an expenditure of ₹ 50 X \(\frac{2}{11}\) X 33

+ 33 denotes an income of  ₹ 300

∴ An income of ₹ 300.

Common Questions on Mathematical Symbols in Algebra

Example 8. If a man earns ₹ 10 daily and his total expenses in 7 days be ₹ 60, what will be his total savings after 7 days?

Solution:

Given:

A man earns ₹ 10 daily and his total expenses in 7 days be ₹ 60,

In 1 day the man earns ₹ 10

In 7 days the man earns ₹ 70

Also in 7 days his total expenses is ₹ 60

∴ his savings after 7 days = ₹ (70 – 60) = ₹ 10

∴ ₹ 10.

Total savings after 7 days ₹ 10.

Example 9. Find the product :

  1. x7 X x3
  2. (- x5) X x3
  3. x4  X (- x5)
  4. (-x4) X (- x7)
  5. xm X xn

Solution:

  1. x7 X x3 = x7 + 3 = x10.
  2. x4  X (- x5) = -x5 + 3 = -x8.
  3. x4  X (- x5) = -x4 + 5 = -x9.
  4. (-x4) X (- x7) = x4+7=x11
  5. xm X xn = xm+n.

Example 10. Find the quotient :

  1. x8 ÷ x3
  2. (- x11) ÷ x3
  3. x12 ÷ (- x4)
  4.  (-x5)÷ (-x2)
  5. xm ÷ xn.

Solution:

  1. x8 ÷ x= x8 – 3 = x5.
  2. (- x11) + x3=-x11-3 = -x8.
  3. x12 + (- x4) = -x12- 4 = – x8.
  4. (-x5)+ (-x2) = x5-2 – x3.
  5. xm + xn= xm-n.

Example 11. If a =-2,b = 4 and c = – 5 then find the value of a3 + b3 + c3.

Solution:

Given:

a =-2,b = 4 and c = – 5

a3 + b3 + c3 = (- 2)3 + (4)3 + (- 5)3

= (- 2) x (- 2) x (- 2) + 4 x 4 x 4 + (- 5) x (- 5) x (- 5)

= – 8 + 64 – 125 = 64 – (8 + 125)

= 64- 133

= -69

∴ -69.

a3 + b3 + c= -69

Example 12. If a = 2, b = – 3, c = 4 find the value of a2b3c4.

Solution :

Given:

a = 2, b = – 3, c = 4

a2b3c4 = (2)2 x (- 3)3 x (4)4

= 2x2x(-3)x(-3)x(-3)x 4 x 4 x 4 x 4 = 4 x (- 27) x 256

= – 27648

∴ -27648.

a2b3c4= -27648.

WBBSE Solutions For Class 7 Maths Arithmetic Chapter 7 Bar Graph Exercise 7 Solved Example Problems

Arithmetic Chapter 7 Bar Graph Exercise 7 Solved Example Problems

 

When different data are represented by some bars then it is called a bar graph. You have seen the runs scored in different overs in a cricket match by means of bar graph in television. We shall discuss the application of bar graphs in different fields of society.

Example 1.

Let, the number of boys in your school from Class 6 to 9 be as follows :

Class 6 — 45 boys

Class 7 — 48 boys

Class 8 — 50 boys

Class 9 — 40 boys

Solution: This data may be represented as follows :

 

WBBSE Solutions For Class 7 Maths Arithmetic Chapter 7 Bar Graph Exercise 7 Example 1 Bar Graph

 

 

This way the pictorial representation of the numerical data by a number of bars (rectangles) of uniform width is called a bar graph. In the above example, the bar graph has been drawn following the undermentioned methods:

1. The classes of 6, 7, 8 and 9 are marked along the horizontal axis (X-axis) at uniform gaps.

2. Keeping in mind the maximum and minimum number of boys among the given classes, a suitable scale is chosen to determine the heights of the rectangles or bars that have been erected vertically along the vertical axis (Y-axis).

The given example shows that 1 scale division represents 10 boys between the origin (0-mark) and the 50 mark.

3. At last the number of boys in each class is drawn as bars (of equal width) corresponding to each class. The bars of different heights have equal spacing between them. Thus the bar graph is drawn completely.

Now the obvious question is what is the utility of bar graph or what do we come to know from a bar graph.

Read and Learn More WBBSE Solutions For Class 7 Maths

The information obtained from a bar graph may be stated as:

  1. Pictorial representation of data in the form of bars helps easy the understanding of data. This makes comparative analysis easier and which in turn facilitates the process of decision-making about future corrective actions, if any.
  2. The maximum and minimum values of obtained data and the range or the difference between these two values become clear in front of our eyes.
  3. This sort of data handling makes the computation of the average value of gathered data easier and more meaningful.

The above points related to the utilities of the bar graph will be more clear from the next example.

WBBSE Class 7 Bar Graph Solutions

Example 2. The bar graph of the boys of your school from class 5 to 8 in the year 2013 is given below

Solution:

WBBSE Solutions For Class 7 Maths Arithmetic Chapter 7 Bar Graph Exercise 7 Example 2 Bar Graph

 

From the bar graph the following information are known:

1. In the year 2013, the number of boys of class 5 was nearly 30.
2. In the year 2013, the number of boys of class 6 was 40.
3. In the year 2013, the number of boys of class 7 was between 40 and 50.
4. In the year 2013, the number of boys of class 8 was between 30 and 40.

WBBSE Solutions For Class 7 Maths Arithmetic Chapter 7 Bar Graph Exercise 7 Solved Example Problems

Double bar graph:

The simultaneous pictorial representation of two series of data using two bars drawn side by side following the same scale is known as a double bar graph.

Both the bars are shaded separately and the shading is usually shown in the top right corner of the graph paper.

Example 3. You obtained the following marks in different subjects In two consecutive tests.

Subject Bengali English Maths History Geography
1st test 72 85 86 85 90
2nd test 80 77 90 80 85

 

Solution:

WBBSE Solutions For Class 7 Maths Arithmetic Chapter 7 Bar Graph Exercise 7 Example 3 Double Bar Graph

 

The most important utility of a double bar graph is that it gives us the opportunity to carry out fruitful comparative analysis of two series of data without elaborate mathematical computations.

The matter will be clear to you once you go through the following examples.

WBBSE Class 7 Geography Notes WBBSE Solutions For Class 7 History
WBBSE Solutions For Class 7 Geography WBBSE Class 7 History Multiple Choice Questions
WBBSE Class 7 Geography Multiple Choice Questions WBBSE Solutions For Class 7 Maths

 

WBBSE Class 7 Arithmetic Bar Graph Examples

Example 4. In a Girls’ school participation of the girls in dance, singing and recitation is as follows: 

Activity Dance Singing Recitation
Class 7 15 12 16
Class 8 10 8 20

 

Represent the above data by a double bar graph and answer the following questions from the bar graph:

1. In which activity is the participation of girls of both classes 7 & 8 maximum?
2. In which activities have the students of class 7 participated in more number than those of class 8?

Solution:

WBBSE Solutions For Class 7 Maths Arithmetic Chapter 7 Bar Graph Exercise 7 Example 4 Double Bar Graph

 

It is seen from the above double bar graph that:

1. Maximum participation of girls of both class 7 & 8 has occurred in recitation.
2. Students of class 7 have participated in both dance and music in more numbers than those of class 8.

Example 5. The production of motorcycles and cycles (in number) of four companies in the last 6 months is summarised hereunder: 

Company 1st 2nd 3rd 4th
Motor cycle(in No) 8000 15,000 20,000 10,000
Cycle(in No.) 3000 5000 6000 4000

 

Represent the production figures with help of a double bar graph and give answers to the following questions :

1. Which company has produced the maximum number of motorcycles compared to that of cycles?
2. Which company has produced a minimum number of motorcycles compared to that of cycles?
3. Which company has produced the maximum number of motorcycles.
4. Which company has produced a minimum number of cycles.

Solution:

WBBSE Solutions For Class 7 Maths Arithmetic Chapter 7 Bar Graph Exercise 7 Example 5 Double Bar Graph

 

1. Company #3 has produced the maximum number of motorcycles compared to that of cycles.
2. Company #4 has produced a minimum number of motorcycles compared to that of cycles.
3. Company #3 has produced a maximum number of motorcycles.
4. Company #1 has produced a minimum number of cycles.

Class 7 Maths Exercise 7 Solved Examples

Example 6. The five-year production (in Ton) data of a state in connection with paddy and oil seeds is provided as below:

Year 2010 2011 2012 2013 2014
Paddy(Ton.) 210 200 195 210 180
Oil seeds(Ton) 85 110 115 120 125

 

Draw a double bar graph of the above data. Answer the following questions from the bar graph:

1. Which year has seen the minimum production of paddy?
2. In which two years the paddy productions are same?
3. In which year the production of oil seeds has been the maximum?
4. Which year has recorded the maximum production of paddy in comparison to that of oil seeds?

Solution:

WBBSE Solutions For Class 7 Maths Arithmetic Chapter 7 Bar Graph Exercise 7 Example 6 Double Bar Graph

 

From the double bar graph we come to know that:

1. Production of paddy has been minimum in 2014.
2. Paddy productions are found to be the same in both 2010 and 2013
3. Maximum production of oil seeds has occurred in 2014.
4. The Year 2010 has recorded the maximum production of paddy in comparison to that of oil seeds.

 

WBBSE Solutions For Class 10 Physical Science And Environment Physical and Chemical Properties of Elements Periodic Table and Periodicity in the Properties of Elements

Periodic Table And Periodicity In The Properties Of Elements Topic A Periodic Table Synopsis

WBBSE Class 10 Periodic Table Overview

Dobereiner’s Law of Triads: In 1817, German scientist Dobereiner first attempted to arrange the elements on the basis of their atomic weights. According to his Law of Triads, if three elements having similar properties are arranged in increasing order of their atomic weights, the atomic weight of the middie element in the triad is found to be the average of the atomic weights of the remaining two elements.

Newland’s Law of Octaves: When the known elements are arranged in increasing order of their atomic weights, the eighth element, starting from a given one, will show resemblance in physical and chemical properties with the first element. This is known as Newland’s Law of Octaves (1861).

Read and Learn Also WBBSE Solutions for Class 10 Physical Science and Environment

Mendeleev’s Periodic Law: In 1869, Mendeleev put forward the periodic law through which he established the relationship between atomic weight of an element to its physical and chemical properties.

The statement of the law was given as:
1. The physical and chemical properties of the elements are periodic functions of their atomic weights.
2. Almost at the same time, German scientist Lothar Meyer came to the same conclusion by observing that physical properties of the elements are changing periodically with their atomic weights.

WBBSE Solutions for Class 10 History WBBSE Solutions for Class 10 Geography and Environment
WBBSE Class 10 History Long Answer Questions WBBSE Solutions for Class 10 Life Science And Environment
WBBSE Class 10 History Short Answer Questions WBBSE Solutions for Class 10 Maths
WBBSE Class 10 History Very Short Answer Questions WBBSE Solutions for Class 10 Physical Science and Environment
WBBSE Class 10 History Multiple Choice Questions

 

Wbbse Class 10 Physical Science Solutions

Periodic Table: On the basis of his periodic law, Mendeleev constructed a table by arranging the elements in increasing order of their atomic weights. This table is known as Mendeleev’s periodic table.

Modem Periodic Law: In 1913, British scientist Moseley while observing the effects of X-rays on metals, concluded that atomic number is a more accurate and fundamental property of an element than its atomic weight. Accordingly, Mendeleev’s periodic law was modified. This modified form is known as the modern periodic law which states.

The physical and chemical properties of the elements are the periodic functions of their atomic number. In the periodic table, the horizontal rows of elements are called periods and the vertical columns of elements are called groups. The modified version of Mendeleev’s periodic table has 7 periods and 9 groups.

Wbbse Class 10 Periodic Table Of Elements

Long form of periodic table or Modern periodic table: The periodic table constructed on the basis of the electronic configuration of elements is known as long form of periodic table or the modern periodic table. It is also known as Bohr’s periodic table. It consists of 7 periods and 18 groups.

Elements of different groups are given some special names depending on their properties. For example:

Group Name Example
Group 1 elements Alkali metals Li, Na. K, Rb
Group 2 elements Alkaline earth metals Be, Mg, Ca, Sr
Group 11 elements Coinage metals Cu, Ag, Au
Group 15 elements Pnictogens N, P, As, Sb
Group 16 elements Chalcogens 0, S, Se, Te
Group 17 elements Halogens F, Cl, Br, 1
Group 18 elements Noble gases He, Ne, Ar, Kr

The position of hydrogen in the periodic table is controversial. It shows certain properties that resemble the properties of both group-1 (alkali metals) as well as group- 17 elements (halogens). For these reasons, it can be placed in group 1 as well as in group- 17. Due to this peculiar nature of hydrogen, it is often called the rogue element’.

WBBSE Solutions For Class 10 Physical Science And Environment Physical and Chemical Properties of Elements Periodic Table and Periodicity in the Properties of Elements

Periodic Table And Periodicity In The Properties Of Elements Topic A Periodic Table Short And Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1. State Dobereiner’s law of Triads’? Why was the law discarded?

Answer:

Dobereiner’s law of Triads’:

If the elements of a triad i.e., a group of three elements having similar chemical properties, are arranged in increasing order of their atomic weights, then the atomic weight of the middle element is found to be equal or almost equal to the average of atomic weights of the other two elements.

WBBSE Solutions For Class 10 Physical Science And Environment Periodic Table And Periodicity In The Properties Of Elements Topic A Periodic Table Dobereiner
Example: Li (7), Na (23) and K (39) have similar chemical properties and thus forms a triad. The average of atomic weights of Li and K = 7+39/2 = 23, which is the atomic weight of Na.

The law failed to arrange most of the elements known till then. It was only applicable for few elements. For these reasons, the law was discarded.

Wbbse Class 10 Physical Science Solutions

Question 2. State Mendeleev’s periodic law. What was the basis of Mendeleev’s periodic law?

Answer:

Mendeleev’s periodic law:

1. The physical and chemical properties of the elements are periodic functions of their atomic weights.

2. Mendeleev examined the relationships between the atomic masses of the elements and their physical and chemical properties such as boiling point, melting point, density, atomic mass, the formula of hydrides and oxides of the elements etc. He observed that the physical and chemical properties of the elements change and periodically repeat with the change in atomic masses.

3. Based on these observations, he arranged the elements in the order of increasing atomic masses and formulated the periodic law.

Question 3. Evaluate the contribution of Lothar Meyer in the periodic classification of elements.
Answer:

The contribution of Lothar Meyer in the periodic classification of elements:

German scientist Lothar Meyer (1870) worked extensively on the relationship between physical properties of elements (such as atomic volume, melting point, boiling point etc.) and their atomic weights. He also stated a periodic law which was quite similar to what Mendeleev had proposed.

Wbbse Class 10 Physical Science Solutions

The work of both Mendeleev and Lothar Meyer are acknowledged towards periodic classification of elements. However, Mendeleev got greater recognition in this field as he put forward the theory much earlier than Lothar Meyer. However, the contribution of Lothar Meyer towards the concept of periodicity and periodic classification of elements cannot be neglected.

WBBSE Solutions For Class 10 Physical Science And Environment Periodic Table And Periodicity In The Properties Of Elements Topic A Periodic Table Lothar Meyer

Wbbse Class 10 Periodic Table Of Elements

Question 4. What do you mean by period and group and groups were present in Mendeleev’s periodic table published in 1871?

Answer: The horizontal arrays of periodic table are termed as periods and the vertical arrays are termed as groups of the periodic table. There were 7 periods (1, 2, 3,…, 7) and 8 groups (1-8) in the periodic table published in 1871.

Question 5. How many elements were mentioned in the main version of Mendeleev’s periodic table published in 1871? Which element was absent in the table and why?

Answer:
1. 63 elements were mentioned in Mendeleev’s periodic table published in 1871.
2. Group ‘0’ (zero) was absent in Mendeleev’s periodic table (1871) as inert gases were not discovered at that time.

Wbbse Class 10 Physical Science Solutions

Question 6. Why were subgroups needed in Mendeleev’s periodic tab?

Answer: In Mendeleev’s periodic table it was found that except for group ‘0’ (zero) and group 8, several elements of different properties are placed in the same group. Each of the groups except 0 and 8 is divided into two subgroups designated as ‘A’ and ‘B’. Properties of the elements of subgroups A and B are altogether different, except their valencies.

However, elements of the same subgroup exhibit more or less similar properties. E.g., the alkali metals of Group l-A are closely alike. But Group IA metals differ remarkably from the coinage metals of Group IB, although they have a common valency of 1.

Question 7. The atomic mass of argon (39.94) is greater than that of potassium (39.1), yet potassium was placed after Argon in Mendeleev’s periodic table—explain why.

Answer: Mendeleev’s main objective was to place elements with similar properties in the same class. That is why these two elements were placed in the group where their properties resemble with other elements although their atomic masses indicate just the reverse places in the periodic table.

Understanding Physical and Chemical Properties of Elements

Question 8. How was Mendeleev’s periodic table useful in the periodic classification of elements? Explain with an example.

Answer: The elements present in the same group of the periodic table show similarity in properties.

Wbbse Class 10 Physical Science Solutions

WBBSE Solutions For Class 10 Physical Science And Environment Periodic Table And Periodicity In The Properties Of Elements Topic A Periodic Table Dmitri Mendeleev

1. So, if the property of one element in a specific group is known we can get an idea about the properties of the other elements present in the group.
2. If we know the properties of sodium of group- IA, the properties of other elements of that group namely potassium, rubidium and caesium can easily be evaluated.

Question 9. How was Mendeleev’s periodic table helpful in describing the structure and electronic configuration of different elements?
Answer: The elements present in the same subgroup of a group in Mendeleev’s periodic table have similar physical and chemical properties. Again, it is known that elements with similar properties have similar electronic configurations of their outermost orbits.

Thus, it can easily be correlated that elements of the same group have similar electronic configuration. Therefore, we can get an idea about the electronic configuration of other elements of a definite group, if the electronic configuration of any one element of the group is known. Similarly, from the knowledge of electronic configuration, we get an idea about the structure of atom.

Question 10. Discuss the limitations of Mendeleev’s periodic table.

Answer:

The limitations of Mendeleev’s periodic table:

Though Mendeleev was almost successful in arranging the elements on the basis of their properties in his periodic table, the periodic table had some serious drawbacks such as:

1. In some cases, in order to place the elements having similar properties in the same group, Mendeleev placed some elements with higher atomic weight before elements having lower atomic weight.
2. The position of hydrogen in Mendeleev’s periodic table was controversial.
3. In some cases, Mendeleev put elements having similar properties in different groups while elements having different properties in the same group.
4. Though the atomic weights of different isotopes are different, they were not given different positions in the periodic table.

Question 11. Mention the observation and inference of Moseley’s experiment on X-ray spectra.

Answer: In 1913, scientist Moseley made extensive research on the X-rays produced when cathode rays are bombarded on plates (target or anticathode) made of different metals.

Observation:
1. He observed that the X-rays produced due to collision of cathode rays with different metals have different frequencies. However, for a definite metal, the frequency of produced X-rays is constant.
2. He also observed when the square root of the frequencies of radiated X-rays was plotted against the atomic numbers of the elements (metals) used as anticathode, a straight line was obtained. However, no such straight line was obtained when atomic masses of the elements were plotted against the square root of the frequencies.

WBBSE Solutions For Class 10 Physical Science And Environment Periodic Table And Periodicity In The Properties Of Elements Topic A Periodic Table Moseley's Experiment On X-Ray Spectra

Inference: From the experiment, Moseley inferred that the properties of elements are a function of their atomic numbers and not their atomic masses.

Question 12. Write down the modified or modern periodic law. Mention the total number of periods and groups in the modern edition of Mendeleev’s periodic table.

Answer: The physical and chemical properties of the elements are a periodic function of their atomic numbers. There are 7 periods (1-7) and 9 groups (1, 8 and 0) in the modern edition of Mendeleev’s periodic table.

Question 13. Write down some differences between period and group in the periodic table.

Answer:

Differences between period and group in the periodic table are as follows:

Period Croup
1. A period is a horizontal row of the periodic table. 1. A group is a vertical column of the periodic table.
2. There are 7 periods in the long form of the periodic table. 2. There are 18 groups in the long form of the periodic table.
3. The elements in a period differ in physical and chemical properties. 3. The elements in each group have some similar properties but not entirely identical properties.
4. Number of electronic shells remains the same for all elements in a period. 4. Number of electronic shells increases gradually from top to bottom in a group.

 

Periodic Trends in Chemical Properties

Question 14. The chemical properties of all the elements in the same period are not the same, but the chemical properties of the elements in the same group are similar— explain.

Answer: The chemical properties of the elements depend on the atomic number and hence on the electronic configuration of the atoms. Since the atomic number and electronic configuration of the elements in a particular period are different, their chemical properties are also different.

On the other hand, although the atomic numbers of different elements belonging to the same group are different, the electronic configurations of the outermost shell are similar. That is why their chemical properties are also similar to each other.

Question 15. Why are the elements arranged in increasing order of their atomic number in the long form of the periodic table, instead of their increasing atomic weight?

Answer: In 1913-14, British scientist Moseley, on the basis of his experiments on X-ray spectra of different atoms, explained that atomic number is a more fundamental property of an element than its atomic weight. It controls the physical and chemical properties of the elements. Again, after the discovery of isotopes, it was well-known that an element may contain atoms of different atomic weights. Thus, it was proved that atomic weight does not control the properties of an element. So, in the long form of the periodic table, elements are arranged in increasing order of their atomic number instead of atomic weight.

Question 16. Mention the differences between modern version of Mendeleev’s periodic table and the long form of the periodic table.

Answer:

The major differences between modern version of Mendeleev’s periodic table and long form of periodic table are:

The modern version of Mendeleev’s periodic table The long form of the periodic table   
1. In the modern version of Mendeleev’s periodic table, the elements are arranged on the basis of atomic number. 1. In the long form of the periodic table, the elements are arranged on the basis of the electronic configuration of the atoms.
2. In Mendeleev’s periodic table, there were 7 periods and 9 groups and each group from 1 to 7 was divided into A and B subgroups. 2. In the long form of the periodic table, there are 7 periods and 18 groups and no group is divided into subgroups.

 

WBBSE Solutions For Class 10 Physical Science And Environment Periodic Table And Periodicity In The Properties Of Elements Topic A Periodic Table Mendeleev's Periodic Table

WBBSE Solutions For Class 10 Physical Science And Environment Periodic Table And Periodicity In The Properties Of Elements Topic A Periodic Table Long Form Of Periodic Table
Question 17. Which period is termed as the shortest period? Mention the groups where the elements of the shortest period reside.

Answer: The 1st period of the periodic table is termed as the shortest period. It contains only two elements. Among the two elements of the 1st period, Hydrogen belongs to group 1 and helium belongs to group 18 of the periodic table.

Question 18. What are the first and second short periods of the periodic table? Mention the total number of elements in each of these periods. What are the first and last elements in each of these periods and mention the corresponding groups to which they belong?

Answer: Second and third periods of the periodic table are termed as first and second short periods respectively. There are 8 elements in each of the short periods.

Period Name of the element Group in which it is placed
First short period Lithium (first element) Neon (last element) Group 1 Group 18
Second short period Sodium (first element) Argon (last element) Group 1 Group 18


Question 19. What is meant by ‘representative elements’?

Answer:

‘Representative elements’:

The elements of the 2nd and 3rd periods are abundant in nature. Apart from this, the elements of a certain group in these periods show much resemblance in properties in regular intervals. So, these elements are collectively called ‘typical or representative elements’.

[Apart from these elements, 8 elements from 4th period: K(19), Ca(20) and Ga(31) to Kr(36), 8 elements from 5th period: Rb(37), Sr(38) and ln(49) to Xe(54), 8 elements from 6th period: Cs(55), Ba(56) and Th(81) to Rn(86) and Two elements from 7th period: Fr(87) and Ra(88) are also known as representative elements.]

Question 20. What are alkali metals and alkaline earth metals? Why are they called so?

Answer:

Alkali metals 

The elements present in group-IA or group-1 of the periodic table, i.e., lithium (Li), sodium (Na), potassium (K), rubidium (Rb), caesium (Cs) and francium (Fr) are collectively called alkali metals. The oxides, hydroxides and carbonates of these metals are strongly alkaline in nature. So, they are called alkali metals.

Alkaline earth metals

The elements present in group-2A or group-2 of the periodic table, i.e., beryllium (Be), magnesium (Mg), calcium (Ca), strontium (Sr), barium (Ba) and radium (Ra) are collectively called alkaline earth metals.

Compounds of these elements are abundantly found in the earth’s crust and their oxides, hydroxides and carbonates are alkaline in nature. So, they are called alkaline earth metals.

Question 21. Write down the characteristics of alkali metals.

Answer:

Characteristics of alkali metals are:

1. Alkali metals are highly electropositive and they have a tendency to form cations by losing electrons from their valence shell.
2. Because of high reactivity these elements do not occur freely in nature.
3. Valence shell of alkali metals contains 1 electron and thus alkali metals are monovalent.
4. Oxides and hydroxides of alkali metals are strong bases and alkalies respectively.
5. Alkali metals form metallic hydroxides and hydrogen in reaction with water.
6. Alkali metals are good reducing agents. Ascending order of reducing the power of alkali metals is — Li < Na < K < Rb < Cs.

Question 22. Write down the alkaline earth metals.

Answer:

Characteristics of alkaline earth metals are:

1. Alkaline earth metals are highly electropositive and have a tendency to form cations by losing electrons from valence shell.
2. Because of high reactivity, these elements do not occur freely in nature. ‘
3. There are 2 electrons in the outermost shell of the alkaline earth metals and thus they are bivalent.
4. They are strong reducing agent. Ascending order of reducing power of alkaline earth metals is — Be < Mg < Ca < Sr < Ba .
5. Alkaline earth metals are present in, earth crust as oxides.
6. Alkaline earth metals form hydrogen and alkalies in reaction with water under suitable conditions.

\(\begin{aligned}
& \mathrm{Ca}+2 \mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{O} \frac{\text { room }}{\text { temperature }} \mathrm{Ca}(\mathrm{OH})_2+\mathrm{H}_2 \uparrow \\
& \mathrm{Mg}+2 \mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{O} \longrightarrow \mathrm{Mg}(\mathrm{OH})_2+\mathrm{H}_2 \uparrow
\end{aligned}\)

 

Question 23. What are bridge elements? Why are they called so?

Answer:

Bridge elements:

1. The inert gases (He, Ne, Ar, Kr, Xe and Rn) present in group-0 or group-18 of the periodic table are known as bridge elements.
2. These elements act as a bridge between strong electronegative halogens of group-17 and strong electropositive alkali metals of group-1 of the next period. So, these elements are called bridge elements.

Question 24. What are transition elements?
Answer:

Transition elements:

The elements from scandium (Sc) to copper (Cu) in the fourth period, yttrium (Y) to silver in the 5th period, lanthanum (La) and hafnium (Hf) to gold (Au) in the 6th period are known as transition elements due to some specific characteristics in their electronic configurations.

Significance of Valence Electrons in Periodicity

Question 25. Write down some characteristics or properties of transition elements.

Answer:

Some characteristics or properties of transition elements

1. Except for mercury (Hg), all transition elements are solid metals.
2. Transition elements generally exhibit variable oxidation states and valencies.
3. They can form both ionic and covalent compounds.
4. Transition elements exhibit a very distinctive property of forming coloured coordination complexes.
5. A number of transition metals such as Cr, Mn, Fe, Co, Ni, Cu etc. and their compounds are used as catalysts.
6. Many transition metals form alloys.

Question 26. Which elements are known as pnictogens? Why are they named so?

Answer: The elements of group V.B. of Mendeleev’s periodic table or group 15 of the long form of the periodic table are known as pnictogens. E.g., nitrogen (N), phosphorous (P), arsenic (As), antimony (Sb), and bismuth (Bi).

The word pnictogen is derived from the Greek word pnicogens meaning ‘suffocating’ or ‘to choke’. The first member of group 15 is nitrogen which is a suffocating gas. That is why members of this group are known as pnictogens.

Question 27. What are chalcogens? Why are they called so?

Answer:

Chalcogens:

1. The elements of group 16 of the periodic table namely O, S, Se, Te and Po are collectively known as chalcogens.
2. The term ‘chalcogen’ means the producer of ores. Most of the metals are found as their oxide or sulphide ores in the earth’s crust. So, these elements are known as chalcogens.

Question 28. What are metalloids? Give example.
Answer:

Metalloids:

There are some elements which have certain characteristics common to both metals and nonmetals. These are called metalloids.
Examples of metalloids are arsenic(As ), antimony (Sb), and bismuth (Bi).

Question 29. What are trans-uranium elements? Mention two important characteristics of these elements?

Answer:

Trans-uranium elements

The elements placed after uranium (92U) in the 7th period of periodic table are known as transuranium elements.

1. All trans-uranium elements are radioactive.
2. All these elements are artificially synthesised.

Question 30. Isotopes of an element have not been given separate places in the periodic table— this is one of the major drawbacks of Mendeleev’s periodic table. Explain.

Answer: In Mendeleev’s periodic table, the elements were arranged in increasing order of their atomic weights. However, the isotopes of an element have different atomic weights. But, Mendeleev placed all the isotopes of an element in the same group and same period which violates the basic rule of periodic classification. So, it can be considered as a major drawback of Mendeleev’s periodic table.

But in modern periodic table, the elements are arranged in increasing order of their atomic numbers. As all the isotopes of an element have the same atomic number, they should be positioned in the same place in the periodic table according to modern periodic law. Hence, this is no longer a drawback in modern periodic table.

Question 31. Discuss three advantages of modern periodic table over Mendeleev’s periodic table.

Answer:

Three advantages of long form of periodic table over Mendeleev’s periodic table are discussed below:

1. In Mendeleev’s periodic table the elements were arranged in increasing order of their atomic weights and later in increasing order of their atomic numbers. But in long form of periodic table, the elements are arranged on the basis of their electronic configurations.

Elements having same electronic configuration in their outermost shell are placed in the same group. As the chemical properties are related to the electronic configuration of the outermost shell, the periodicity of properties of the elements are described more effectively in long form of the periodic table.

2. In Mendeleev’s periodic table, each group except group 8 and group 0, was divided into subgroups. But the elements of different subgroups of a definite group are not very similar in terms of their properties. In the modern periodic table, the concept of subgroups has been eliminated. Elements of different subgroups have been placed in completely different groups. Which is more scientific.

3. In Mendeleev’s periodic table, each period of group 8 had three elements, namely, (Fe, Co, Ni), (Ru, Rh, Pd) and (Os, Ir, Pt). This defied the basic rule of periodic classification. In the long form of periodic table, these elements are placed in different groups.

Question 32. Which elements are halogens? Why are these named so?

Answer:

1. Elements of Gr-17 in the modern periodic table i.e. F, Cl, Br, I, At etc. are termed as halogens.
2. The name ‘halogen’ means ‘salt-producing’. Several salts can be formed by the reaction of metal with these elements. Salts containing F, Cl or I have been found in seawater. That is why these elements are termed as halogens. Some salts of halogen are—NaCI (common salt), CaF2, NaBr, Kl etc.

Question 33. Write down the characteristics of halogen elements.

Answer:

Characteristics of halogen elements are:

1. Halogens are highly reactive and hence cannot be obtained in a free state in nature. Halogens forms halides with metals and nonmetals.
2. Among halogens, fluorine and chlorine are gaseous, bromine is liquid and iodine is solid. Astatine is the only radioactive halogen.
3. Halogens are highly electronegative (except Iodine). Descending order of electronegativity: F > Cl > Br > I.
4. Number of electrons in the valence shell of halogen elements is 7 and thushalogens are monovalent.
5. Halogens are non-metals and diatomic molecules.
6. Halogen elements are a strong oxidising agents. Descending order of oxidising power or halogens is— F > Cl > Br > I.

Question 34. Which elements form the noble gas family? Among noble gases which one is most chemically active?

Answer:
1. The Group zero of modified Mendeleev’s periodic table or Gr-18 of the long form of periodic table are designated as noble gases, e.g. He, Ne, Ar, Kr, Xe and Rn.
2. Among the noble gases (or inert gases) Xenon (Xe) is the most chemically reactive. State the differences in properties between alkali metals and halogens.

Question 35. State the differences in properties between alkali metals and halogens.

Answer:

The major differences in properties between alkali metals and halogens are as follows:

Property   Alkali metals  Halogens
Physical state Soft solid substances can be cut into pieces with a knife. The diatomic molecule can be solid, liquid or gas.
Conductance Good conductor of heat and electricity. Do not conduct heat or electricity.
Ionisation energy In a period, the alkali metal has the least ionisation energy. In a period, the halogen has the| highest ionisation energy.
Electronegativity The alkali metal is the least electronegative in a particular period. The halogen is the most electronegative in a particular period.
Oxidising and reducing property Strong reducing agents. Strong oxidizing agents.
Property Alkali metals Halogens
Reaction with acids React violently with acid to produce hydrogen. Generally do not react with acids.
Formation of  compounds Form, ionic compounds with non-metals. Form ionic compounds with metals and covalent compounds with non-metals.


Question 36. Write down the differences between representative elements and transition elements.

Answer:

Differences between and transition elements representative elements are as follows:

Representative elements Transition elements
1. The elements present in groups 12 and groups 13-17 are known as representative elements. 1. The elements present in group 312 in the long form of the periodic table are known as transition elements.
2. Most of the representative elements show single valency. 2. Transition elements show multiple valencies.
3. The compounds of representative elements are usually colourless. 3. Most of the compounds formed by the transition elements are coloured.
4. Representative elements consist of some metals, nonmetals and metalloids. 4. All transition elements are metallic in nature.


Question 37. Why is hydrogen called an element?

Answer:

While arranging the elements in increasing order of their atomic weights, Mendeleev observed that hydrogen shows similarity with both alkali metals of group-1A as well as with halogens of group-8B. So, hydrogen was placed in both group 1A and group 7B. Mendeleev faced difficulty in ascertaining a definite position for hydrogen and so he named it a ‘rogue element’.

Examples of Periodic Properties: Atomic Radius and Ionization Energy

Question 38. Write down Some similarities between hydrogen and alkali metals.

Answer:

Some similarities between hydrogen and alkali metals

1. Like the alkali metals of Gr-1, hydrogen shows mono-valency, high reactivity and electropositive character.
2. Both hydrogen and alkali metals are reducing in nature.
3. Both hydrogen and alkali metals have strong affinity for non-metals.
4. Hydrogen forms H2O with oxygen. Like hydrogen, alkali metals also form oxides e.g. Na20, K20 etc.
5. Like halogens, hydrogen reacts with halogens to form halide compounds.

Question 39. Write down some similarities in properties of hydrogen and halogen elements.

Answer:

Some similarities in properties of hydrogen and halogen elements:

1. Like halogens, hydrogen is diatomic, has high ionisation energy and non-metallic character.
2. Like hydrogen, halogens are mostly univalent.
3. Hydrogen combines with metals to form hydrides while halogens combine with metals to form halides.
4. Halogens may be obtained at the anode by electrolysis of molten metallic halides.

Question 40. Mention some limitations of long form of periodic table.

Answer:

Some limitations of long form of periodic table:

The long form of the periodic table successfully eliminated a number of drawbacks of Mendeleev’s periodic table. However, the long form to has a few limitations. Which are discussed below—

1. Even in long form of periodic table, the position of hydrogen is still controversial. Hydrogen cannot be placed in a definite group.
2. Depending on the electronic configuration, He should have been placed in group 2. But it is placed in group 18 with other noble gases.
3. Like Mendeleev’s periodic table, the lanthanides and actinides are placed separately in two different rows below the main periodic table. The elements could not be placed in individual groups in the periodic table.

Question 41. Mention the differences in the properties of alkali metals and hydrogen.
Answer:

The differences in properties of alkali metals and hydrogen are—

Alkali metals Hydrogen
1. Most alkali metals are usually solid at room temperature. 1. Hydrogen is gaseous at room temperature.
2. Alkali metals are monoatomic. 2. Hydrogen molecules are diatomic.
3. Alkali metals are electropositive metals. 3. Hydrogen is an electropositive non-metal.
4. Alkali metals always form cations, e.g., Na, and K. 4. Hydrogen can form both cation (H), and anion (HΘ).
5. Oxides of alkali metals are basic in nature. 5. Oxide of hydrogen (H2O) is neutral in nature.

Periodic Table And Periodicity In The Properties Of Elements Topic A Periodic Table Answer In Brief

Question 1. The atomic weight of sodium is the average of the atomic weight of lithium and potassium. What can be inferred from this using the law of triads?
Answer: Using the law of triads, it can be inferred that the chemical properties of lithium, sodium and potassium are similar.

Question 2. Three elements A, B, and C obey Dobereiner’s law of triads. If the atomic weights of A and C are respectively 7 and 39, then find the atomic weight of B.
Answer: According to law of triads, the atomic weight of the middle element of the triad is the average of the atomic weights of the first and third elements.

Hence, atomic weight of B atomic weight of A + atomic weight of B = \(\frac{\text { atomic weight of } A+\text { atomic weight of } B}{2}\) =\(\frac{7+39}{2}\) = 23

Question 3. Newland’s law of octave is not applicable for which type of elements?
Answer: Newland’s law of octave is not applicable for heavy elements.

Question 4. On which basis did Mendeleev arrange the elements in the period table?
Answer: Mendeleev arranged the elements in the periodic table in increasing order of their atomic weights.

Question 5. How many groups in Mendeleev’s periodic table were divided into subgroups A & B?
Answer: In Mendeleev’s periodic table, seven (7) groups were divided into subgroups A & B.

Question 6. Which groups in Mendeleev’s periodic table (corrected version) do not contain any subgroup?
Answer: Zero (0) and Eighth (8) group.

Question 7. How many more elements are there in the second period than the first period of Mendeleev’s periodic table?
Answer: There are 6 more elements present in the 2nd period than the 1st period of Mendeleev’s periodic table.

Question 8. The initial form of Mendeleev’s periodic table does not contain noble gases. Why?
Answer: At the time when Mendeleev first published the periodic table, noble gases were not discovered yet. So, the noble gases did not find any place in the initial form of Mendeleev’s periodic table.

Question 9. What is the position of noble gases in modern version of Mendeleev’s periodic table?
Answer: In modern version of Mendeleev’s periodic table, the noble gases are placed in the ‘zero’ (0) group.

Question 10. The atomic masses of some elements were erroneous when Mendeleev constructed the periodic table. Why?
Answer: Valencies of the elements were incorrectly measured. These inaccurate valencies of elements were responsible for the erroneous values of atomic masses of some elements.

Question 11. Which element was predicted as eka-silicon by Mendeleev?
Answer: The element predicted by Mendeleev as eka-silicon is now known as germanium.

Question 12. Which element was predicted by Mendeleev as eka-aluminium?
Answer: Gallium was predicted by Mendeleev as eka-aluminium.

Question 13. What similarity is observed between Na and Cu regarding their positions in the periodic table?
Answer: Both Na and Cu were placed in group 1. Na was in group 1A and Cu was in group 1B.

Question 14. Which is the most electropositive nonradioactive alkali metal?
Answer: Caesium (Cs) is the most electropositive nonradioactive alkali metal.

Question 15. Which alkali metal is radioactive?
Answer: Francium (Fr) is a radioactive alkali metal.

Question 16. Name an alkali metal which is a liquid at 30°C.
Answer: Caesium is a liquid at 30°C

Question 17. Which alkaline earth metal is the heaviest?
Answer: Radium is the heaviest alkaline earth metal.

Question 18. Which alkaline earth metal is the lightest?
Answer: Beryllium is the lightest alkaline earth metal.

Applications of Periodic Table in Chemistry

Question 19. Which is the radioactive halogen?
Answer: The radioactive halogen is astatine (At).

Question 20. Which is the lightest halogen?
Answer: Fluorine is the lightest halogen.

Question 21. Name a halogen that shows reducing property.
Answer: Iodine shows reducing property.

Question 22. Which group in the periodic table contains elements in all the three states, namely solid, liquid and gas?
Answer: Group 17 (group-8B) of the periodic table contains elements in all the three states. Fluorine and chlorine are gases, bromine is liquid and iodine is solid at normal temperatures.

Question 23. Which property is similar in all transuranium elements?
Answer: All the trans-uranium elements are radioactive elements.

Question 24. Mention the period in which all the elements are radioactive.
Answer: The elements of the 7th period are all radioactive.

Question 25. Name a radioactive noble gas.
Answer: A radioactive noble gas is radon.

Question 26. What are pnictogens?
Answer: The elements of group 15 in the long form of periodic table are known as pnictogens.

Question 27. Name the noble gas present in 2nd period of the periodic table.
Answer: Neon (Ne) is the noble gas present in 2nd period of the periodic table.

Question 28. Mention the series to Which U belongs.
Answer: Uranium (U) belongs to actinide series.

Question 29. Which period of the periodic table is known as very short period? To which groups do the elements of this period belong?
Answer: The first period of the periodic table is known as very short period. The period consists of two elements— hydrogen and helium. Hydrogen is placed in group-1A (group-1 in the long form of the periodic table). Helium belongs to group 0 (group 18 in the long form of periodic table).

Question 30. What are inert gases? Which one of them is chemically most active?
Answer: The six elements, helium (He), neon (Ne), argon (Ar), krypton (Kr), xenon (Xe) and radon belonging to group-0 (group-18) of the periodic table are known as inert gases. Xenon is the most reactive among all the inert gases.

Question 31. What are coinage metals?
Answer: Three metals namely, copper (Cu), silver (Ag) and gold (Au) were used to make coins in ancient times as well as in medieval period. So, these metals are also known as coinage metals.

Question 32. How many periods are termed as longest period and mention the periods?
Answer: Two periods of the long form of periodic table are termed as longest periods. They are 6th period and seventh period.

Question 33. How many elements are there in each of the longest periods of the periodic table?
Answer: 32 elements.

Question 34. Mention the position of isotopes of elements in the periodic table.
Answer: Isotopes reside in the same group with the corresponding elements.

Question 35. Which period contains all of the three types of element viz. metals, non-metals and metalloids?
Answer: Fourth period.

Question 36. Why do elements of a particular group resemble in properties? Or, Why do Na and K resemble in properties?
Answer: Due to the presence of a similar type of electron configuration in the valence shell, they show resemblance in properties.

Question 37. Name an alkali metal.
Answer: Example of an alkali metal is sodium (Na).

Question 38. Which gas is produced in reaction with water and alkali metals?
Answer: Hydrogen gas.

Question 39. In which group of the modern periodic table do the alkaline earth metals reside?
Answer: Group 2.

Question 40. Name the halogen element which belongs to the same period where sulphur resides.
Answer: Chlorine (Cl).

Question 41. Name the liquid non-metal.
Answer: Bromine (Br).

Question 42. Which halogen element forms rapidly in reaction with water?
Answer: Fluorine (F).

Question 43. Which group of the modern periodic table belongs to the inert gases?
Answer: Group 18.

Question 44. Name the inert gas of the first period of the periodic table.
Answer: Helium (He).

Question 45. Name the inert gas residing at the 2nd period of the long form of periodic table.
Answer: Neon (Ne).

Question 46. State whether the transition elements are metals or non-metals.
Answer: Transition elements are metals.

Question 47. Which transition element is a liquid metal?
Answer: Mercury (Hg).

Question 48. Give example of noble metal.
Answer: Platinum (Pt)

Question 49. Elements of which group of the periodic table is termed as chalcogens?
Answer: Group-16 elements are termed as chalcogens.

Question 50. Mention the group of the rare earth elements in the periodic table.
Answer: Rare earth elements are present in the 3rd group of the modern periodic table.

Question 51. Name the lanthanide element of lowest atomic number.
Answer: Cerium (Ce) of atomic number 58.

Question 52. Mention two elements of the periodic table which are formed in laboratory.
Answer: Neptunium (Np, Atomic no: 93) and nobelium (No, atomic no: 102)

Question 53. Hydrogen and alkali metals form similar type of oxides. Mention a difference between those oxides.
Answer: Oxide of hydrogen ( H2O) is a neutral oxide while oxides of alkali metals are basic oxides for e.g. Na2O, K2O etc.

Question 54. How many elements are there in shortest period of the periodic table?
Answer: 2

Periodic Table And Periodicity In The Properties Of Elements Topic A Periodic Table Fill In The Blanks

Question 1. Cl,_____ and I are members of a triad.
Answer: Br

Question 2. Noble gases are placed at extreme _______ of the periodic table.
Answer: Right

Question 3. In the modern periodic table, the elements are arranged on the basis of their ______ instead of ______
Answer: Atomic Numbers, and Atomic weights

Question 4. Moseley from his X-ray experiment came to the conclusion that ______ is the fundamental property of elements.
Answer: Atomic number

Question 5. The _______ period of periodic table is an incomplete period.
Answer: 7th

Question 6. The elements in zero group are chemical ______
Answer: Inert

Question 7. Hydrogen shows similar properties with ________ as well as ______
Answer: Alkali metals, halogens

Question 8. Trans-uranium elements start from the element with atomic number ______
Answer: 93

Question 9. There is no _______in the long form of periodic table.
Answer: Subgroup

Question 10. The elements of A and B subgroups in a given group of Mendeleev’s periodic table show no similarity except in their _______
Answer: Valances

Question 11. The elements sodium, potassium etc., are called alkali metals because the _____ and _______ of these elements are strong bases.
Answer: Oxides, hydroxides

Question 12. Among the halogens, _________ is liquid at normal temperature.
Answer: Bromine

Question 13. The elements Mg, Ca etc., are called alkaline earth metals because these elements are found in the earth’s crust as _______ and their hydroxides are ________ in nature.
Answer: Oxides, Alkaline

Question 14. Apart from ______ all other transition elements are solid metals.
Answer: Mercury

Question 15. There was no mention of _________ in Mendeleev’s old periodic table.
Answer: Inert gases

Question 16. According to the modern form of Mendeleev’s periodic table, halogens belong to the _______ group.
Answer: 7B

Question 17. There are _______ groups in the long form of periodic table.
Answer: 18

Question 18. The number of elements in each of the 2nd and 3rd periods of the long form of periodic table is ________
Answer: 8

Question 19. __________ is a radioactive halogen.
Answer: Astatine

Question 20. Gold, platinum and silver are examples of ______ metal.
Answer: Noble

Periodic Table And Periodicity In The Properties Of Elements Topic A Periodic Table State Whether True Or False

Question 1. Atomic weight of Na is the average of the atomic weights of Li and K.
Answer: True

Question 2. The law of octaves was found to be satisfactory in case of light elements.
Answer: True

Question 3. The physical and chemical properties of the elements are the periodic functions of their atomic weights.
Answer: False

Question 4. The elements after uranium are called transition elements.
Answer: False

Question 5. Except H, all other elements in group 1 are reactive metals.
Answer: True

Question 6. The initial form of Mendeleev’s periodic table does not contain noble gases.
Answer: True

Question 7. Beryllium is the lightest metal among the alkaline earth metals.
Answer: True

Question 8. All the group-17 elements in the periodic table exist in a gaseous state at normal temperature.
Answer: False

Question 9. Cu, Ag and Au are known as coinage petals.
Answer: True

Question 10. Zn is a transition element.
Answer: False

Question 11. Ne (neon) is the most electronegative element.
Answer: False

Question 12. Law of Triads was given by scientist Lothar Meyer.
Answer: False

Question 13. There was no subgroup in group 8 of Mendeleev’s periodic table.
Answer: True

Question 14. In group 6B of Mendeleev’s periodic table elements of all three states viz. solid, liquid, and gas is present.
Answer: False

Question 15. Halogens are members of Group zero (0) of the modern periodic table.
Answer: False

Question 16. Halogen means sea-salt producer.
Answer: True

Question 17. A number of transition elements in the 4th period is 10.
Answer: True

Periodic Table and Periodicity in the Properties of Elements Topic B Chemical Periodicity Of Elements Synopsis

1. Periodic property: The physical and chemical properties which show regular change while moving across a period from left to right and on going down a group from top to bottom are called periodic properties. Atomic radii, ionisation energy, electronegativity, oxidising and reducing properties etc., are periodic properties.

2. The variation of some physical and chemical properties of elements in a periodic table are as follows:

Property Variation across a period Variation down a group
Atomic radii Decreases in moving from Increases in moving from top to bottom
Ionisation energy Increases in moving from left to right Decreases in moving from top to bottom
Electronegativity Increases in moving from left to right Decreases in moving from top to bottom
Oxidizing power Increases in moving from left to right Decreases in moving from top to bottom
Reducing power Decreases in moving from left to right Increases in moving from top to bottom

Periodic Table and Periodicity in the Properties of Elements Topic B Chemical Periodicity Of Elements Short And Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1. What is meant by ‘periodic properties’?

Answer:

‘Periodic properties’:

With the increase in atomic number, physical and chemical properties of the elements belonging to different periods in the periodic table show a gradual change and as we move along a period, the change is systemic and periodic.

Similarly, the elements present in a group show the periodic variation of similar properties with the increase in atomic number down the group. The physical and chemical properties of elements which show regular and periodic change across a period and down a group are known as periodic properties. Atomic radius, ionisation energy, electronegativity, oxidising and reducing properties etc., are some of the common periodic properties.

Question 2. Define atomic radius.

Answer:

Atomic radius:

The distance from the centre of the nucleus to the outermost shell containing the electrons is called the atomic radius.
Since it is not possible to isolate a single atom for the measurement of its radius, atomic radius is expressed as covalent radius, metallic radius and van der Waal’s radius.

Question 3. Define covalent radius. If the inter-nuclear distance of the two atoms in a hydrogen molecule is 0.74A, then find its covalent radius.

Answer:

Covalent radius

1. When two similar atoms are connected to each other by a single bond, one-half of the distance between their nuclei is called the covalent radius.
2. If the internuclear distance of the two atoms in a hydrogen molecule is 0.74 A, the covalent radius of hydrogen will be = 0.74/2 A = 0.37 A.

WBBSE Solutions For Class 10 Physical Science And Environment Periodic Table And Periodicity In The Properties Of Elements Topic B Chemical Periodicity Of Elements Covalent Radius

Question 4. How does atomic radius of the elements change from left to right in a period? Give reason.

Answer:
1. While moving from left to right across a period in the periodic table, the atomic radii or sizes of the atoms progressively decrease.
2. The principal quantum shell remains unchanged In the same period. So, the differentiating electrons enter the same shell. But due to an increase in the number of protons the value of +ve charge of the nucleus is increased. So attractive force of the nucleus for electrons in the outermost shell also increases which in turn gradually decreases the atomic radii.

Question 5. How does the atomic radius change down a group In the periodic table? Give reason.

Answer:
1. On moving down in any group of the periodic table, the atomic sizes rather the atomic radii of the elements increase.
2. On moving down a group, a new electronic shell is added to each succeeding element, though the number of electrons in the outermost shell remains the same. This tends to increase the atomic size.

At the same time, increase in nuclear charge with an increase in atomic number tends to decrease the atomic size. But the effect of the addition of a new electronic shell is so large that it outweighs the contractive effect of the increased nuclear charge. Hence, there occurs a gradual increase in atomic radii on moving down a group in the periodic table.

Question 6. (1) Arrange In decreasing order of atomic size—O, C, F, Li.
(2) Arrange in increasing order of atomic size—Br, F, I, Cl. lYz+VA

Answer:
(1)Given elements are members of the 2nd period of the periodic table. We know, across a period, atomic radius decreases from left to right. As a result, atomic size also decreases in the same fashion. So, the decreasing order of atomic size is Li > C > O > F.

(2)Given elements belong to Gr-17 of the long form of periodic table. We know, down the group atomic radius as well as atomic size gradually increases. So, the increasing order of atomic size is F < Cl < Br < I.

Common Mistakes in Understanding Periodic Trends

Question 7. What is the first ionisation energy of an element? Arrange the following elements in the increasing order of their first ionisation energy B, C, N, O and F.

Answer:

First ionisation energy of an element

The minimum amount of energy required to remove the most loosely bound electron from the outermost shell of an isolated gaseous atom of an element in its ground state to form a mono-positive ion is called the first ionisation energy of the element.

The ionisation energy of the given elements increases as— B<C<0<N<F.

Question 8. How does ionisation energy of elements change along a period and down a group in the periodic table?

Answer:
Variation along a period: On moving along a period from left to right, the ionisation energy of the elements generally increases, though some elements show exceptions to this trend. In a given period, the alkali metals present at the extreme left have the least ionisation energy while the noble gases at the extreme right have the highest ionisation energy.

Variation down a group: The ionisation energy of elements gradually decreases on moving down a group in the periodic table.

Question 9. (1)On which factors does the ionisation energy of an element depend?
(2) Why ionisation potentials of inert elements and alkali metals are very high and very low respectively?

Answer:
1. Factors influencing ionisation energy are:
(1)Atomic size: Ionisation energy decreases as the atomic size increases and vice-versa.
(2)Magnitude of nuclear charge: Ionisation energy increases with an increase in nuclear charge and vice-versa.
(3)Effect of the electronic configuration of the outermost shell: Ionisation energy increases with an increase in the stability of the electronic configuration.

2. Very high values of ionisation energies of inert gases are due to their highly stable electronic configuration. To remove an electron from this highly stable outer shell, a higher amount of energy is required making their ionisation energy so high.

On the other hand, alkali metals contain only one electron in their valence shell. By the removal of this electron, they can attain the stable electronic configuration of nearest inert gas. This is why the removal of an electron from alkali metals require a lower amount of energy making their ionisation energies low.

Question 10. Will ionisation energies of isotopes of an element be equal to each other? Explain.

Answer: Although the number of neutrons in the isotopes of an element are different, the number of electrons are same. As a consequence, electronic configurations are also the same. That is why the ionisation energies of these isotopes become equal to each other.

Question 11. Define electronegativity. Name the most electronegative and the least electronegative elements.

Answer:

Electronegativity:

Scientist Pauling defined electronegativity of an element as the tendency of an atom of the element to attract the bonded pair of electrons towards itself when it is covalently bonded to another atom, the most electronegative element is fluorine (F) and the least electronegative element is caesium (Cs).

Question 12. How does the electronegativity of the elements change across a period on moving from left to right? Explain with reasons.

Answer: On moving from left to right across a period the nuclear charge of the elements increases and atomic size decreases. As a result, the nuclear force of attraction on the bonded electron pair increases.

Hence, on moving from left to right the electronegativity of elements gradually increases. The alkali metal of a particular period located at the extreme left of the period is the least electronegative while the halogen in group 17 located at the right is the most electronegative element.

Question 13. How does the electronegativity of elements change on moving down a group? Arrange the following elements in the increasing order of their electronegativity. F, Br, Cl, I.

Answer: On moving down a group, the atomic size of the elements increases. As a result, the nuclear force of attraction on the outermost electrons decreases even though the nuclear charge increases. Hence, on moving down a group electronegativity of the elements gradually decreases.

The increasing order of electronegativity of the given elements: I < Br < Cl < F

Question 14. (1) Arrange the following elements in order of electronegativity—P, Cl, Si, S.
(2)Order of electronegativity of halogens— K Br < Cl < F. Explain.
(3)Name the elements with the highest and lowest electronegativity.

Answer:
(1)Given elements belong to the 3rd period in the periodic table, we know across a period from left to right electronegativity gradually increases. Therefore the increasing order of electronegativity of the given elements- Si < P < S < Cl.

(2)Halogens belong to group 17 of the periodic table. Now down a- group, electronegativity gradually decreases from top to bottom. Therefore we have the increasing order of electronegativity as given—I < Br < Cl < P.

(3) Fluorine (F) is the most electronegative element and Caesium (Cs) is the least electronegative element.

Question 15. Discuss how the oxidising and reducing power of elements change across a period and down a group in the periodic table.

Answer:

Variation across a period: On moving from left to right across a period, the atomic number as well as a number of protons gradually increases by one unit. At the same time, number of electrons also increases in the same outermost subshell. So, on moving from left to right nuclear attractive force on the outermost electrons gradually increases and the tendency to lose the electrons decreases.

At the same time, the tendency to accept electrons increases. As a result, the elements at the left part of the periodic table show a greater tendency to release electrons while the elements at the right part of the periodic table show a greater tendency to accept electrons. Hence, on moving from left to right across a period, the reducing power of the elements decreases whereas oxidising power increases. Alkali metals in group-1 of each period are the strongest reducing agents while the halogens in group-17 of each period are the strongest oxidising agents.

Vauation down a group: On moving down a group, atomic size of the elements increases and hence attractive force between the nucleus and the outermost electrons decreases. So, on moving down a group, the tendency of the elements to lose electrons increases. Hence, on moving down a group, reducing power of elements increases whereas oxidising power decreases.

Question 16. Discuss the variation of oxidising and reducing properties of the elements across a period. Arrange the following elements as per the given direction
(1)Na, Al, Si, Mg, P, Cl, S (decreasing order of reducing power).
(2)I, Cl, F, Br (increasing order of oxidising power).

Answer: On moving from left to right across a period, the oxidising power of the elements gradually increases while the reducing power gradually decreases.

(1)Decreasing order of reducing the power of the given elements: Na > Mg>AI>Si > P > S > Cl
(2)Increasing order of oxidising power of the non-radioactive halogen is: I < Br < Cl < F

Question 17. Arrange the elements of group-1A and group-2A in the correct order with respect to the following properties—
(1)Atomic size,
(2)Ionisation energy or ionisation potential,
(3) Reducing power.

Answer: For group-1A elements,
(1)Increasing order of atomic size: H < Li < Na < K < Rb < Cs < Fr
(2)Decreasing order of ionisation energy: H > Li > Na > K > Rb > Cs > Fr
(3)Increasing order of reducing power: H < Li < Na < K < Rb < Cs < Fr

For group-2A element,
(1)Increasing order of atomic size: Be < Mg < Ca < Sr < Ba < Ra
(2)Decreasing order of ionisation energy: Be > Mg > Ca > Sr > Br > Ra
(3)Increasing order of reducing power: Be < Mg < Ca < Sr < Ba < Ra

Question 18. Arrange the halogens in the correct order with respect to the following properties
(1) Atomic size,
(2) Ionisation energy or ionisation potential,
(3) Oxidising power.

Answer: Increasing order of atomic size: F < Cl < Br < I < At
Decreasing order of ionisation energy: F > Cl > Br > I > At
Decreasing order of oxidising power: F > Cl > Br > I > At.

Question 19. Some elements of a definite -period are given in the order in which they appear in the periodic table-Li, Be, B, C, Q, F, Me
1. State the period to which the elements belong.
2. Which element of that period is absent here? Mention its position.
3. Which element among these shows III catenation?
4. Arrange F, Be and N in increasing order of electronegativity.
5. Which element among these is a halogen?
6. Which one is an alkaline earth metal?

Answer:
1. All these elements belong to 2nd period.
2. The element absent here is nitrogen. In the periodic table, it is present between C and 0.
3. C shows catenation property.
4. Increasing order of electronegativity— Be < N < F.
5. F is a halogen.
6. Be is an alkaline earth metal.

Question 20. The names of the elements of a group in the periodic table are as follows: (1) boron, (2) aluminium, (3) gallium, (4) indium, (5) thallium. Answer the following questions:
1. Which of these elements shows the maximum metallic character?
2. Which element has the highest electronegativity?
3. If the electronic configuration of aluminium is K.= 2, L = 8, M = 3, then how many valence electrons are there in thallium?
4. The atomic number of boron is 5. Write the formula of the compound formed when boron reacts with chlorine.
5. Which of these elements has the least ionisation energy?
6. How many valence electrons are there in the elements present at the right side of this group?

Answer: The answers are given below:
1. The maximum metallic character is shown by thallium.
2. Boron has the highest electronegativity.
3. Thallium also has 3 valence electrons.
4. The formula of the compound formed when boron reacts with chlorine is  BCI3.
5. Thallium has the least ionisation energy.
6. There are 4 valence electrons in the elements present at the right side of this group.

Question 21. The atomic number of three elements &V>B and C are (Z-2), Zand (Z+l) respectively. B is an inert gas. 0 Which of these elements is the most electronegative?
1. Which element has the highest ionisation energy?
2. State the nature of the compound formed by A and C and write its formula.

Answer: The atomic number of B is Z and it is an inert gas. Therefore, it has 8 electrons in its outermost shell. Hence, element A (atomic number -I- 2) has (8 – 2) = 6 electrons in its valence shell and element C (atomic number = Z+1) has 1 electron in its valence shell, i.e., C is an alkali metal. Therefore, we can conclude that

1. A is the most electronegative element.
2. B is an inert gas. Hence, it possesses the highest ionisation energy.
3. The number of electrons in the valence shell of A is 6. Hence, its valency is 8-6 = 2. Similarly, the valency of C is 1 as it has one electron in its outermost shell

Therefore, the formula of the compound formed between A and C will be C2A. C is an alkali metal and A is an electronegative element. Hence, the nature of the compound formed by A and C will be electrovalent or ionic.

Question 22. The atomic number of the elements A, B and C are respectively 3,11 and 19.
1. State the position of these elements in Mendeleev’s periodic table as well as the long form of the periodic table.
2. Which one is the most reducing in nature?
3. State whether B will form a covalent or an ionic compound with chlorine.

Answer:
1. The position of the elements in the periodic table is given below:

Element Electronic configuration Position in Mendeleev’s periodic table Position in long form of the periodic table
K L M N Period Croup Period Group
3 2 1 2nd IA 2nd 1
11B 2 8 1 3rd IA 3rd 1
19C 2 8 8 4th IA 4th 1

2. C is the strongest reducing agent.
3. The number of valence electrons in B is 1. Hence, it is an alkali metal. On the other hand, chlorine is a strongly electronegative element and a non-metal. So, B will form an ionic compound with chlorine.

Question 23. Mention the position of the following elements in the long form of the modern periodic table, 11Na, 9F,13AI

Answer:

Element Electronic configuration Position in the long form of the periodic table
K L M Period Group
11Na 2 8 1 3 1
13AI 2 8 3 3 13
9F 2 7 2 17


Question 24. Assume the symbol of two elements are A and B and their atomic numbers are 7 and 20 respectively. Predict their positions in Mendeleev’s periodic table.

Answer:

Element Electronic configuration Position in Mendeleev’s periodic table
K L M N Period Group
A(7) 2 5 2 5B
B(20) 2 8 8 2 4 2A


Question 25. Among Cl (17), Na (11), Mg (12), Ca (20), S (16) and F (9)

1. Which metallic elements belong to Group 2?
2. Which non-metallic elements belong to 3rd period of Mendeleev’s periodic table?

Answer:

Element Atomic No. Electronic configuration Position in the periodic table Metal or nonmetal
K L W N Period Group
Cl 17 2 8 7 3 7B non-metal
Na 11 2 8 1 3 1A metal
Mg 12 2 8 2 3 2A metal
Ca 20 2 8 8 2 4 2A metal
S 16 2 8 6 3 6B non-metal
F 9 2 7 2 6B non-metal

1. Mg (12) and Ca are the metals which belong to group 2 in Mendeleev’s periodic table.
2. S (16) and Cl (17) are the non-metals which belong to the 3rd period of Mendeleev’s periodic table.

Question 26. The number of electrons and neutrons in an atom of an element are 17 and 18 respectively. Predict .the position of the element in the Mendeleevas periodic table.

Answer: Number of electrons = 17
Electronic configuration =2,8,7
The elements will belong to 3rd period and Group 8 B in Mendeleev’s periodic table.

Question 27. If the electronic configuration of an element is 2, 8, 8, 1, then answer the following questions
1. Write down the number of periods and groups.
2. Write down the electronic configuration of another element of this group.

Answer:
1. The element belongs to the 4th period and group- 1 in the long form of modern periodic table.
2. Electronic configuration of another element of group-1 is 2, 8,1.

Question 28. A, B, and C are three different elements. B is an inert gas. Their atomic numbers are (Z -1), Z and (Z+l) respectively
1. Except B which one is a non-metal?
2. Which one is definitely a metal?
3. Predict the group-wise position of ‘A’ in the periodic table and the valency of A.

Answer:
1. ‘A’ is definitely a non-metal.
2. ‘C’ is definitely metal.
3. Element ‘A’ belongs to Group 7B in Mendeleev’s periodic table or Group 17 in the long form of the periodic table. Being an element of Gr 17, the valency of A is 1.

Question 29. The atomic numbers of the three elements A, B, and C are 6,8, and 10 respectively. C is an inert gas.
1. Which one is most electronegative?
2. Atomic size is least for which element?
3. In which group does element B reside?

Answer:
The electronic configuration of 6A is K(2), L(A).
The electronic configuration of 8B is K(2), L(6).
Electronic configuration of 10C is K(2),L(8).

1. It is obvious from the electronic configuration that element B is the most electronegative.
2. Atomic size is least for the element B.
3. The element B belongs to the Gr-16 of the modern periodic table. It is a member of the 2nd period.

WBBSE Class 10 Revision Notes on Periodicity

Question 30. The number of electrons in the outermost shell of elements X and Y are 2 and 7 respectively.
1. In which group of periodic table should the elements be placed?
2. Which one is an oxidising agent and which one is a reducing agent in case of forming compounds?

Answer:
1. ‘X’ should be placed in Gr-2 of the modern periodic table as the number of electrons in the valence shell is 2.
‘T’ should be placed in Gr-17 of the modern periodic table as the number of electrons, in the valence shell is 7.

2. ‘Y’ will act as an oxidising agent as it has a tendency to accept electrons.’X’ will act as reducing agent as it has a tendency to lose electrons.

Question 31. The atomic numbers of three elements A, B and C are 9, 10 and 11 respectively.
1. Which element among these is the most electronegative?
2. Metallic character is the highest for which one?
3. What will be the nature of the compound formed by the combination of A and C?

Answer:

Element Atomic No. Electronic configuration Position in the periodic table
K L M N Period Group
A 9 2 7 2 17
B 10 2 8 2 18
C 11 2 8 1 3 1

1. ‘A’ is a most electronegative element.
2. ‘C’ has the highest metallic character.
3. The compound formed by the combination of A and C will be ionic in nature.

Question 32. The atomic numbers of three elements A, B, and C are 3,11 and 19 respectively.
1. Mention the group where the elements are placed in Mendeleev’s periodic table.
2. Metallic character is the highest for which one?
3. What is the nature of the compound formed in the reaction of B and Cl2?

Answer:

Element Atomic No. Electronic configuration Position in Mendeleev’s table
K L M N Period    Group
A 3 2 1 2 IA
B 11 2 8 1 3 IA
C 19 2 8 8 1 4 IA

1. The elements belong to Gr-1A of Mendeleev’s periodic table.
2. Element ‘C has the highest metallic character.
3. The compound formed by the reaction of B and Cl2 will be ionic in nature.

Question 33. The atomic numbers of the four elements A, B, C, and D are 3, 9/11 and 17 respectively. Which one is the most electropositive element and which one is the most electronegative element?

Answer:

Element Atomic No Electronic configuration  Position in the periodic table
K L M Period Group
A 3 2 1 2 1
B 9 2 7 2 17
C 11 2 8 1 3 1
D 17 2 8 7 3 17

‘C’ is the most electropositive and ‘B’ is the most electronegative element among these elements.

Question 34. The atomic numbers of Elements A, B, C and D are 3, 9,11 and 19 respectively.
1. Which one has the highest reducing property? ‘
2. Electronegativity of which one is the highest?

Answer:

Element Atomic No. Electronic configuration Position in the periodic table
K L M  N Period Group
A 3 2 1 2 1
B 9 2 7 2 17
C 11 2 8 1 3 1
D 19 2 8 8 1 1

 

1. Reducing the property of D is the highest.
2. Electronegativity of B is the highest.

Periodic Table and Periodicity in the Properties of Elements Topic B Chemical Periodicity Of Elements Very Short Answer Type Questions Choose The Correct Answer

Question 1. Moving across a period from left to right, the atomic radii of elements

  1. Gradually increases
  2. Gradually decreases
  3. Remains unchanged
  4. Initially increases then decreases

Answer: 2. Gradually decreases

Question 2. On going down a group, the atomic radii of elements

  1. Gradually decreases
  2. Gradually increases
  3. Remains unchanged
  4. Initially increases then decreases

Answer: 2. Gradually increases

Question 3. In a given period, with decreasing atomic size of elements, the ionisation energy

  1. Increases
  2. Decreases
  3. Remains unchanged
  4. Either increases or decreases

Answer: 1. Increases

Question 4. In a given period, with an increase in nuclear charge of the atom of an element, the ionisation energy

  1. Decreases
  2. Increases
  3. Remains unchanged
  4. Either increases or decreases

Answer: 2. Increases

Question 5. The unit of electronegativity is

  1. eV
  2. erg
  3. dyne
  4. It is a unitless quantity

Answer: 4. It is a unitless quantity

Question 6. In a given period, the electronegativity is minimum for the elements of

  1. Group-1
  2. Group-2
  3. Group-14
  4. Group-17

Answer: 1. Group-1

Question 7. In a given period, the electronegativity is maximum for the elements of the group

  1. 16
  2. 17
  3. 18
  4. 14

Answer: 2. 17

Question 8. In a given period, with an increase in the atomic size of an element, its electronegativity will

  1. Increase
  2. Decrease
  3. Increases or decrease
  4. Remain unchanged

Answer: 2. Decrease

Question 9. For the elements of 2nd period, the correct order of atomic radii is

  1. B > C > N > 0
  2. B > N > C > 0
  3. B > 0 > N > C
  4. N > 0 > B > C

Answer: 1. B > C > N > 0

Question 10. The correct order of atomic radii for alkali metals is

  1. Na < Rb < K < Cs
  2. Na < K < Rb < Cs
  3. K < Na < Cs < Rb
  4. Na < Cs < K < Rb

Answer: 2. Na < K < Rb < Cs

Question 11. The least electronegative non-radioactive element is

  1. Na
  2. K
  3. Rb
  4. Cs

Answer: 4. Cs

Question 12. For the elements of 2nd period, the correct order of ionisation energy is

  1. B < C < N >0
  2. B < C < O < N
  3. C < B < N > 0
  4. N > C < B < 0

Answer: 1. B < C < N >0

Question 13. The correct order of ionisation energy for group-1 elements is

  1. Li > K < Rb > Na
  2. Li > Na > Rb > K
  3. Li > Na > K > Rb
  4. Na < Li > Rb > K

Answer: 3. Li > Na > K > Rb

Question 14. The correct order of electronegativity for the following element is

  1. Li < Be < C < B
  2. Li <Be < B < C
  3. Li < B > Be > C
  4. Be > Li < B < C

Answer: 2. Li <Be < B < C

Question 15. The correct order of reducing power of the elements in 3rd period is

  1. Al < Si > P > S
  2. Al > Si > S > P
  3. Al > Si > P > S
  4. Si < Al > S < P

Answer: 3. Al > Si > P > S

Question 16. The correct order of oxidising power of the halogens is

  1. F > Br > Cl > I
  2. Cl > F > Br > 1
  3. Cl < F < Br < I
  4. F > Cl > Br > I

Answer: 4. F > Cl > Br > I

Question 17. Most electronegative element is

  1. 0
  2. CL
  3. F
  4. Ne

Answer: 3. F

Question 18. Which one is more electronegative?

  1. Na
  2. K
  3. Rb
  4. Cs

Answer: 1. Na

Question 19. Which one of the following has the highest reducing ability?

  1. K
  2. Na
  3. Li
  4. Cs

Answer: 4. Cs

Question 20. Which halogen element has the least electronegativity?

  1. F
  2. Cl
  3. Br
  4. I

Answer: 4. I

Question 21. Which one is not a periodic property?

  1. Oxidising property
  2. Reducing property
  3. Radioactivity
  4. Atomic radius

Answer: 3. Radioactivity

Question 22. Which one of the following has the highest atomic radius?

  1. K
  2. H
  3. Li
  4. Na

Answer: 1. K

Question 23. The most oxidising element in second period of the periodic table is

  1. F
  2. Cl
  3. Be
  4. O

Answer: 1. F

Question 24. Which of the following alkali metals has the highest atomic radius?

  1. Li
  2. Na
  3. Rb
  4. Cs

Answer: 4. Cs

Question 25. Which of the following indicates the atomic number of a Gr-!A element?

  1. 13
  2. 17
  3. 11
  4. 10

Answer: 3. 11

Question 26. Which one of the following has the least electronegativity?

  1. Ca
  2. Mg
  3. Sr
  4. Ba

Answer: 4. Ba

Question 27. The correct order of reducing power is

  1. Na < Al < Si < Mg
  2. Na < Mg < Al < Si
  3. Si < Al < Na < Mg
  4. Si < Al < Mg < Na

Answer: 4. Si < Al < Mg < Na

Question 28. Which of the following sets of elements does not form a triad?

  1. Ca, Sr, Ba
  2. Li, Na, K
  3. O, S, Se
  4. Cl, Br, I

Answer: 3. O, S, Se

Question 29. The number of elements in the longest period and the incomplete period are respectively

  1. 28,32
  2. 32,28
  3. 32,32
  4. 18,28

Answer: 2. 32,28

Question 30. The elements that found no place in the original periodic table constructed by Mendeleev were

  1. Transition metals
  2. Alkali metals
  3. Noble gases
  4. Halogens

Answer: 3. Noble gases

Question 31. In Mendeleev’s periodic table, the arrangement of elements in the order of their increasing atomic weights was not maintained for which pair of elements?

  1. C&N
  2. S&Cl
  3. K&Ar
  4. K&Ca

Answer: 3. K&Ar

Question 32. The group having no subgroups in Mendeleev’s periodic table is

  1. Group 2
  2. Group 8
  3. Group 7
  4. Group 5

Answer: 2. Group 8

Question 33. Which group in Mendeleev’s period table contains more than one element in the same position?

  1. Group 2
  2. Group 3
  3. Group 0
  4. Group 8

Answer: 4. Group 8

Question 34. The number of elements in each position under group 8 is

  1. 4
  2. 5
  3. 3
  4. 2

Answer: 3. 3

Question 35. The pair of elements belonging to pnictogens is

  1. N, P
  2. P, O
  3. F, Cl
  4. Na, K

Answer: 1. N, P

Question 36. Moseley observed that the frequency (v) of X-rays produced when metal plates are bombarded with cathode rays is related to atomic number of elements (Z) as

  1. v∝Z
  2. √v∝ Z
  3. v2∝Z
  4. v = Z

Answer: 2. √v∝ Z

Question 37. The number of groups in the long form of the periodic table is

  1. 9
  2. 12
  3. 13
  4. 20

Answer: 3. 13

Question 38. In long form of periodic table, the elements are arranged on the basis of their

  1. Atomic mass
  2. Atomic number
  3. Electronic configuration
  4. Number of neutrons

Answer: 3. Electronic configuration

Question 39. In long form of periodic table, the alkali metals are placed in group

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4

Answer: 1. 1

Question 40. In long form of periodic table, the alkaline earth metals are placed in group

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. None of these

Answer: 2. 2

Question 41. In long form of periodic table, the halogens are placed in group

  1. 15
  2. 16
  3. 17
  4. 18

Answer: 3. 17

Question 42. In long form of periodic table, the coinage metals are placed in group

  1. 11
  2. 15
  3. 17
  4. 1

Answer: 1. 11

Question 43. In long form of periodic table, the chalcogens are placed in group

  1. 16
  2. 17
  3. 13
  4. 1

Answer: 4. 1

Question 44. Which of the following is a chalcogen?

  1. Se
  2. B
  3. C
  4. Ne

Answer: 1. Se

Question 45. In long form of periodic table, the noble gases are placed in group

  1. 17
  2. 18
  3. 16
  4. 15

Answer: 2. 18

Question 46. An example of a transition metal is

  1. Ca
  2. Mg
  3. Fe
  4. Al

Answer: 3. Fe

Question 47. In Mendeleev’s periodic table hydrogen can be placed

  1. With halogens or with alkali metals
  2. With chalcogens or with alkaline earth metals
  3. With pnictogens or with coinage metals
  4. With pnictogens or with alkaline earth metals

Answer: 1. With halogens or with alkali metals

Question 48. Which of the following is a coinage metal?

  1. Iron
  2. Silver
  3. Aluminium
  4. Nickel

Answer: 2. Silver

Question 49. A trans-uranium element is

  1. Np
  2. Ce
  3. Lu
  4. La

Answer: 1. Np

Question 50. The outermost shell of second period elements is

  1. K-shell
  2. L-shell
  3. M-shell
  4. N-shell

Answer: 2. L-shell

Question 51. Which of the following pair is not correct?

  1. Coinage metal : Cu
  2. Halogen: I
  3. Alkaline earth metal: Fe
  4. Inert element : Ne

Answer: 3. Alkaline earth metal: Fe

Question 52. Which one of the following is an alkali earth metal?

  1. Rb
  2. Ba
  3. Sb
  4. F

Answer: 2. Ba

Question 53. Total number of elements in the sixth period of modern long form of periodic table is

  1. 2
  2. 8
  3. 18
  4. 32

Answer: 4. 32

Question 54. Group 15 elements are called

  1. Chalcogen
  2. Pnictogan
  3. Halogen
  4. Aerogen

Answer: 2. Pnictogan

Question 55. To which group of the periodic table does 13X27 belong?

  1. 14
  2. 13
  3. 15
  4. 16

Answer: 2. 13

Question 56. Which of the following is not an alkali metal?

  1. Rb
  2. Cs
  3. Ca
  4. Na

Answer: 3. Ca

Question 57. Atomic number is more fundamental property of an element than atomic mass— the scientist who proved it is

  1. Moseley
  2. Lothar Meyer
  3. Mendeleev
  4. Dalton

Answer: 1. Moseley

Question 58. Which one is an alkali metal?

  1. K
  2. Mg
  3. F
  4. Ne

Answer: 1. K

Question 59. Which one of the following is not a transition element?

  1. Fe
  2. Co
  3. Ca
  4. Cr

Answer: 3. Ca

Question 60. Ca is

  1. An alkali metal
  2. An alkaline earth metal
  3. Halogen
  4. Inert element

Answer: 2. An alkaline earth metal

Question 61. Which one of the following is not a coinage metal?

  1. Cu
  2. Ag
  3. Au
  4. Fe

Answer: 4. Fe

Question 62. Number of rare earth elements is

  1. 8
  2. 12
  3. 16
  4. 14

Answer: 4. 14

Question 63. Which of the following elements represent the same period?

  1. Li, Na, K
  2. F, Cl, Al
  3. Li, Mg, Ca
  4. Cu, Ni, Zn

Answer: 4. Cu, Ni, Zn

Periodic Table and Periodicity in the Properties of Elements Topic B Chemical Periodicity Of Elements Answer In Brief

Question 1. What is meant by ‘periodicity of elements’?
Answer:

‘Periodicity of elements’:

The recurrence of properties of the elements at definite intervals when arranged in increasing order of their atomic numbers is called the periodicity of elements.

Question 2. In the case of the 4th period, after how many elements are properties repeated?
Answer: After 18 elements, in the 19th element properties are repeated.

Question 3. What is meant by the term ‘atomic radius? Classify atomic radius.
Answer:

Atomic radius

It is the distance between the centre of the nucleus and the outermost orbit of an atom. Atomic radius is classified as:

1. Covalent radius,
2. Metallic radius and
3. Van der Waals’ radius.

Word Problems Related to Periodic Properties

Question 4. Define metallic radius.
Answer:

Metallic radius:

Half of the distance between the nuclei of two adjacent metal atoms in a metallic crystal is called the metallic radius.

Question 5. What is van der Waals’ radius?
Answer:

Van der Waals’ radius

Half of the distance between the nuclei of two non-bonded neighbouring atoms of two adjacent molecules of the same substance in solid state is known as van der Waals’ radius.

WBBSE Solutions For Class 10 Physical Science And Environment Periodic Table And Periodicity In The Properties Of Elements Topic B Chemical Periodicity Of Elements VanderWaal's And Covalent Radii
Question 6. Arrange van der Waals’ radius, metallic radius and covalent radius in decreasing order of their values.
Answer: The decreasing order of the three atomic radii is as follows: van der Waals’ radius > metallic radius > covalent radius.

Question 7. The elements of which group in a given period of the periodic table have the largest atomic radii?
Answer: The elements of group 1 in a given period of the periodic table have the largest atomic radii.

Question 8. Whose atomic radius is smaller—Li or F?
Answer: Atomic radius of F is smaller.

Question 9. Which of the following has the smaller atom — Mg and Al?
Answer: Atoms of Al are smaller than that of Mg.

Question 10. Arrange Be, Na, Ar, S in order of atomic radius.
Answer: Ar > Na > S > Be .

Question 11. Arrange Al, Mg, Cl, Na, P, S and Si in decreasing order of their atomic radii.
Answer: Decreasing order of atomic radii: Nai > Mg > Al > Si > P > S > Cl.

Question 12. How does ionisation energy change across a period?
Answer: From left to right, across a period, the ionisation energy of elements gradually increases.

Question 13. The elements of which group in a given period of the periodic table have the lowest ionisation energy?
Answer: The elements of group 1 in a given period of the periodic table have the lowest ionisation energy.

Question 14. Name the element with highest ionisation energy.
Answer: Helium (He)’.

Question 15. Name the element with the lowest ionisation energy.
Answer: Caesium.

Question 16. Arrange the following elements in increasing order of ionisation energy—Li, Rb, K and Na.
Answer: Rb < K < Na < Li.

Question 17. What is the relation between atomic radii and electronegativity of the elements in a period?
Answer: Smaller the atomic radii of elements in a period, greater will be the electronegativity.

Question 18. Arrange F, Cl, Br and I in decreasing order of electronegativity.
Answer: Decreasing order of electronegativity: F > Cl > Br > I.

Question 19. How does the electronegativity of the Gr-1 elements change from top to bottom?
Answer: From top to bottom of group 1, electronegativity gradually decreases.

Question 20. Mention the position of the most electronegative element in the periodic table.
Answer: The most electronegative element F belongs to the 2nd period and Gr-17 in the periodic table.

Question 21. Arrange Na, Mg, Al, Cl and P is increasing order of electronegativity.
Answer: Na < Mg < Al < P < Cl.

Question 22. Arrange the following elements in increasing order of electronegativity—Na, O, N, F.
Answer: Na < N < 0 < F.

Question 23. Arrange Li, Be, B, N in decreasing order of electronegativity.
Answer: N > B > Be > Li.

Question 24. What is the relation between ionisation energy and electronegativity?
Answer: The ionisation energy of an element increases with the increase in electronegativity.

Question 25. What is the relation between ionisation energy and the reducing property of an element?
Answer: Lower the ionisation energy of an element, the stronger will be its reducing power.

Question 26. What is the relation between electronegativity and oxidising property of an element?
Answer: Higher the electronegativity of an element, the stronger will be its oxidising power.

Question 27. An element A is positioned in group 13 of the periodic table. What is the formula of its chloride?
Answer: The valency of all elements of group 13 is 3. Hence, the formula of the chloride of element A will be ACI3.

Question 28. Which elements among the halogens exhibit highest and lowest metallic property?
Answer: Among the halogens, iodine exhibits highest metallic properties while fluorine exhibits the lowest metallic properties.

Question 29. Arrange Si, Mg, P, Al, Na, S and Cl in increasing order of their oxidising power.
Answer: Increasing order of oxidising power: Na < Mg < Al < Si < P < S < Cl.

Question 30. Arrange Na/ K, Rb and Cs in increasing order of electro-positivity.
Answer: Increasing order of electro-positivity: Na < K < Rb < Cs.

Question 31. Elements of which group in the periodic table has the highest oxidising power?
Answer: Elements of group 17 of the periodic table have the highest oxidising power among the elements of the corresponding period.

Question 32. Name the strongest oxidising agent of 2nd period.
Answer: Fluorine (F) is the strongest oxidising agent of 2nd period.

Question 33. Name the element with highest reducing ability of Gr-1 in the long form of the periodic table.
Answer: Lithium (Li).

Question 34. Arrange the halogens in increasing order of reducing power.
Answer: F < Cl < Br < I.

Question 35. Arrange in decreasing order of reducing property—K, Na, Li, Rb.
Answer: Rb < K < Na> Li.

Question 36. Arrange Cl, Br, I, F in increasing order of oxidising property.
Answer: I < Br < Cl < F.

Question 37. Arrange in decreasing order of oxidising property—Al, O, F, Cl.
Answer: F > O > Cl > Al.

Question 38. Among Na, K, O and N which one is the strongest oxidising agent and strongest reducing agent?
Answer: Strongest oxidising agent is O and strongest reducing agent is K.

Question 39. Give an example of a halogen that has reducing property.
Answer: Iodine.

Question 40. Arrange the following elements in increasing order of metallic character- 11 Na, K, Rb, Cs and 0 Br, F, Cl, I.
Answer: Na < K < Rb < Cs and 0 F < Cl < Br < I

Question 41. Arrange the following in increasing order of metallic character—Mg, Na, Al, S, Si, Cl, P.
Answer: Cl < S < P < Si < Al < Mg < Na.

Periodic Table and Periodicity in the Properties of Elements Topic B Chemical Periodicity Of Elements Fill In The Blanks

Question 1. _________is not a periodic property of elements.
Answer: Radioactivity

Question 2. In a given period the ______ have the smallest atomic radii.
Answer: Halogens

Question 3. The atomic radii of noble gases in a given period is ________ than the atomic radii of halogen atoms.
Answer: Greater

Question 4. The minimum energy required to remove the most loosely bound electron in the outermost orbit of the atom of an element is known as ________ energy of the element.
Answer: Ionisation

Question 5. The electronegativity of elements is measured in ______ scale.
Answer: Pauling

Question 6. The element _________ is the strongest oxidising agent.
Answer: Fluorine

Question 7. The higher the _________ of an element, the stronger will be its oxidising power.
Answer: Electronegativity

Question 8. Noble gases being ________ their covalent radii cannot be measured.
Answer: Mono-atomic

Question 9. The greater the tendency of an element to accept an electron greater will be its property and the greater the tendency of an element to release an electron, the greater will be its _______ property.
Answer: Oxidising, reducing

Question 10. The atomic radius of Al is ________ than SI.
Answer: Greater

Question 11. The ionisation potential of oxygen is _______ than that of nitrogen.
Answer: Less

Question 12. The ________ power of Na is less than that of Si.
Answer: Oxidising

Question 13. The reducing power of caesium is _______ than that of rubidium.
Answer: More

Question 14. The magnetic property of elements is not a ________ property.
Answer: Periodic

Question 15. Across a period from left to right atomic radius of elements gradually _______
Answer: Decreases

Question 16. Among all elements, atomic radius is the least in the case of _______
Answer: Hydrogen

Question 17. Among Al, S, Si and P, element with the highest electronegativity is _________
Answer: S

Question 18. The most reactive non-metal is _______
Answer: Fluorine

Periodic Table and Periodicity in the Properties of Elements Topic B Chemical Periodicity Of Elements State Whether True Or False

Question 1. A covalent radius is always greater than a metallic radius.
Answer: False

Question 2. The correct order of atomic size is— F < Cl < Br < I < At
Answer: False

Question 3. The greater the size of an atom of an element, the greater will be its electronegativity.
Answer: False

Question 4. In the measurement of the electronegativity of different elements by the Pauling scale, the electronegativity of hydrogen is taken as 2.1.
Answer: True

Question 5. The increasing order of electropositivity is Na < K < Rb < Cs
Answer: True

Question 6. Mendeleev emphasized mainly on chemical and physical properties of elements while constructing the periodic table.
Answer: True

Question 7. Down a group atomic size of an element gradually decreases.
Answer: False

Question 8. Ionisation energy decreases with an increase in atomic size.
Answer: True

Question 9. Down a group metallic character decreases and oxidising power increases.
Answer: False

Question 10. Across a period, from left to right oxidising property decreases.
Answer: False

Question 11. Halogen elements are strong reducing agents.
Answer: False

Question 12. Order of reducing power— F > Cl > Br > I.
Answer: False

Question 13. If the number of electrons in the valence shell is 3, then the position of element in the long form of periodic table will be in group 13.
Answer: True

Periodic Table and Periodicity in the Properties of Elements Miscellaneous Type Questions Match The Columns

Question 1.

Column A Column B
Transition element 1. He
Coinage metal 2. H2
 Inert gas 3. Fe
 Rogue element 4. Ag

Answer:

Transition element:  3. Fe
Coinage metal: 4. Ag
Inert gas:  1. He
Rogue element: 2. H2

Question 2.

Column A     Column B
Alkaline earth metal 1. Te
Chalcogen 2. Rb
Representative element 3. Xe
Bridge element 4. Ra

Answer:
Alkaline earth metal: 4. Ra
Chalcogen: 1. Te
Representative element: 2. Rb
Bridge element: 3. Xe

Question 3.

Column A Column B
Highest electronegativity 1. Fe
Highest reducing power among group-1 elements 2. F
Variable oxidation state 3. He
Highest  ionisation energy 4. Cs

Answer:
Highest electronegativity:  2. F
Highest reducing power among group-1 elements: 4. Cs
Variable oxidation state: 1. Fe
Highest  ionisation energy: 3. He

WBBSE Solutions for Class 10 Physical Science and Environment