Class 9 Geography

WBBSE Class 9 Geography And Environment Multiple Choice Questions

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WBBSE Class 9 Geography And Environment Multiple Choice Questions

WBBSE Class 9 Geography And Environment Chapter 8 West Bengal MCQs

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WBBSE Chapter 8 West Bengal Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. The number of districts in West Bengal is-

  1. 17
  2. 18
  3. 19
  4. 23

Answer: 4. 23

Question 2. The state which shares the longest border with West Bengal is—

  1. Bihar
  2. Jharkhand
  3. Odisha
  4. Assam

Answer: 2. Jharkhand

Read and Learn Also WBBSE Class 9 Geography And Environment Multiple Choice Questions

Question 3. The latitude that extends over Krishnanagar of Nadia district is—

  1. 0°
  2. 23/2° N
  3. 231/2° S
  4. 30° N

Answer: 2. 23/2° N

Question 4. A state which lies to the north of West Bengal is—

  1. Sikkim
  2. Tripura
  3. Bihar
  4. Odisha

Answer: 1. Sikkim

Question 5. The state of West Bengal was formed in—

  1. 1951
  2. 1947
  3. 1949
  4. 1956

Answer: 2. 1947

Question 6. The number of bordering states of West Bengal is—

  1. 2
  2. 3
  3. 4
  4. 5

Answer: 2. 3

Question 7. Chandannagar was included in West Bengal in the year—

  1. 1956
  2. 1968
  3. 1952
  4. 1954

Answer: 4. 1954

WBBSE Class 9 Geography And Environment Chapter 8 West Bengal MCQs

Question 8. Cooch Behar became a part of West Bengal in —

  1. 1950
  2. 1952
  3. 1954
  4. 1947

Answer: 1. 1950

Question 9. The state which lies to the south-west of West Bengal is—

  1. Bihar
  2. Arunachal Pradesh
  3. Odisha
  4. Jharkhand

Answer: 3. Odisha

Practice MCQs For Geography And Environment Class 9 WBBSE

Question 10. The latitude which forms the northern limit of West Bengal is—

  1. 28°02’N
  2. 21°30’N
  3. 27°10’N
  4. 20°30’N

Answer: 3. 27°10’N

Question 11. The latitude which forms the southern limit of West Bengal is—

  1. 21°38’N
  2. 21°22’N
  3. 27°10’N
  4. 27°05’N

Answer: 1. 21°38’N

Question 12. The number of districts in the Presidency division of West Bengal is—

  1. 7
  2. 9
  3. 8
  4. 5

Answer: 4. 5

Question 13. The east-west stretch of West Bengal is—

  1. 650 km
  2. 325 km
  3. 395 km
  4. 610 km

Answer: 2. 325 km

Question 14. The youngest island of West Bengal is—

  1. Lothian Island
  2. Dalhousie Island
  3. Purbasha Island
  4. Sagar Island

Answer: 3. Purbasha Island

Question 15. The principal river of Sikkim is—

  1. Kali Gandak
  2. Manas
  3. Teesta
  4. Torsa

Answer: 3. Teesta

Question 16. The longest river in Bhutan is—

  1. Kaligandak
  2. Kosi
  3. Manas
  4. Dibond

Answer: 3. Manas

Question 17. Sandakphu, the highest peak of West Bengal, is located at an altitude of—

  1. 3543 m
  2. 3596 m
  3. 3665 m
  4. 3700 m

Answer: 3. 3665 m

Question 18. One of the important peaks of the Singalila range is—

  1. Phalut
  2. Tiger Hill
  3. Chitrakoot
  4. Anaimudi

Answer: 1. Phalut

Question 19. A famous hill in the plateau region of West Bengal is—

  1. Raj Mahal
  2. Downhill
  3. Baghmundi
  4. Chitrakoot

Answer: 1. Raj Mahal

Question 20. Mama Bhagne Hill is in the—

  1. Bankura district
  2. Birbhum district
  3. Jalpaiguri district
  4. Darjeeling district

Answer: 2. Birbhum district

Question 21. The newly formed plain land in the southern part of the Mahananda River in Malda district is called—

  1. Diara
  2. Barendrabhumi
  3. Tal
  4. Dooars

Answer: 1. Diara

Question 22. Which of the following is found in the plateau region of Purulia?

  1. Ajodhya Hill
  2. Susunia Hill
  3. Mama Bhagne Hill
  4. Mt. Maniratna

Answer: 1. Ajodhya Hill

Question 23. Biharinath Hill is in—

  1. Bankura district
  2. Birbhum district
  3. Malda district
  4. Hooghly district

Answer: 1. Bankura district

Question 24. Dunes are found in—

  1. Purulia
  2. Bankura
  3. Birbhum
  4. Purba Medinipur

Answer: 4. Purba Medinipur

Question 25. The highest hill in the western plateau region in West Bengal is— 

  1. Susunia
  2. Biharinath
  3. Ajodhya
  4. Baghmundi

Answer: 3. Ajodhya

Question 26. The old alluvial highland region of the northern plain in West Bengal is called—

  1. Terai
  2. Diara
  3. Tal
  4. Barendrabhumi

Answer: 4. Barendrabhumi

Question 27. An important river that flows through the Rarh region is—

  1. Malta
  2. Teesta
  3. Damodar
  4. Churni

Answer: 3. Damodar

Question 28. A snow-fed river of West Bengal is

  1. Ganges
  2. Saptamukhi
  3. Ajay
  4. Kangsabati

Answer: 1. Ganges

Question 29. The source of river Barakar is—

  1. Ganga
  2. Mahanadi
  3. Damodar
  4. Teesta

Answer: 3. Damodar

Question 30. The most important river of North Bengal is—

  1. Teesta
  2. Torsa
  3. Balasan
  4. Jaldhaka

Answer: 1. Teesta

Question 31. A tributary of the Jaldhaka River is—

  1. Rili
  2. Sevak
  3. Diana
  4. Balasan

Answer: 3. Diana

Question 32. An example of a tidal river is—

  1. Torsa
  2. Ajoy
  3. Gosaba
  4. Teesta

Answer: 3. Gosaba

Question 33. An example of a perennial river is—

  1. Rupnarayan
  2. Ichhamati
  3. Teesta
  4. Subarnarekha

Answer: 3. Teesta

Question 34. This river flows through the West Bengal- Assam boundary—

1. Raidak
2. Sankosh
3. Kalyani
4. Teesta

Answer: 2. Sankosh

Question 35. A river of the Sundarban region is—

  1. Teesta
  2. Malta
  3. Damodar
  4. Ajoy

Answer: 2. Malta

Question 36. The left bank tributary of the Bhagirathi River is—

  1. Ajoy
  2. Mayurakshi
  3. Jalangi
  4. Damodar

Answer: 3. Jalangi

Question 37. Which river has divided the Darjeeling mountainous region into two types?

  1. Torsa
  2. Teesta
  3. Mahananda
  4. Jaldhaka

Answer: 2. Teesta

Question 38. The longest irrigation canal in West Bengal is—

  1. Damodar Canal
  2. Hijli Canal
  3. Medinipur Canal
  4. Eden Canal

Answer: 3. Medinipur Canal

Question 39. The region receiving the heaviest rainfall in West Bengal is—

  1. Coastal Area Of Digha
  2. Northern Mountainous Region
  3. Western Plateau Region
  4. Sundarbans Region

Answer: 2. Northern Mountainous Region

Question 40. The coldest district of West Bengal is—

  1. Cooch Behar
  2. Darjeeling
  3. Purulia
  4. Nadia

Answer: 2. Darjeeling

Chapter 8 West Bengal Geography Questions And Answers For Class 9

Question 41. The factor which has an impact on the human body and mind is—

  1. Ebb And Tide
  2. Change Of Seasons
  3. Daily Apparent Speed Of The Earth’s Rotation Concerning The Sun
  4. Change In Day And Night

Answer: 2. Change Of Seasons

Question 42. Rainfall in West Bengal is caused by the—

1. South-West monsoon winds
2. South-East monsoon winds
3. North-West monsoon winds
4. North-East monsoon winds

Answer: 1. South-West monsoon winds

Question 43. Another name for Kalbaisakhi is—

  1. Norwester
  2. Tornado
  3. Mango Shower
  4. Burst of monsoon

Answer: 1. Norwester

Question 44. Dry deciduous forest is seen in the—

  1. Mountainous regions
  2. Plateau regions
  3. Plain regions
  4. Delta region

Answer: 2. plateau regions

Question 45. Plants with round leaves are found in—

  1. Purulia
  2. Jalpaiguri
  3. Malda
  4. Sundarbans

Answer: 4. Sundarbans

Question 46. The soil type of the mountainous region is suitable for growing—

  1. Plum
  2. Jackfruit
  3. Custard Apple
  4. Orange

Answer: 4. Orange

Question 47. Khadar is the name for

  1. New Alluvial Soil
  2. Laterite Soil
  3. Podsolsoil
  4. Old Alluvial Soil

Answer: 1. New Alluvial Soil

Question 48. Podsol is found in West Bengal in —

  1. Mountainous Region
  2. Plateau Region
  3. Plain Region
  4. Coastal Region

Answer: 1. Mountainous Region

Question 49. The soil of the western plateau region is—

  1. Terai Soil
  2. Laterite Soil
  3. Red Soil
  4. Alluvial Soil

Answer: 2. Laterite Soil

Question 50. The colour of the soil of the mountainous region in West Bengal is—

  1. Red
  2. Brown
  3. Black
  4. White

Answer: 2. Brown

Question 51. A hard crust that forms at the topmost layer of laterite soil is called —

  1. Later
  2. Hotspot
  3. Duricrust
  4. Pancake

Answer: 3. Duricrust

Question 52. The colour of laterite soil is red due to—

  1. Lack Of Rainfall
  2. Gradual Deposition Of Organic Material
  3. Deposition Of Iron Compound
  4. Excessive Use Of Manure

Answer: 3. Deposition Of Iron Compound

Question 53. The type of natural vegetation in Sundarbans is—

  1. Coniferous
  2. Deciduous
  3. Cactus
  4. Mangrove

Answer: 4. Mangrove

Question 54. Gorumara is a—

  1. Hill Station
  2. Sea Beach
  3. Educational Centre
  4. Sanctuary

Answer: 4. Sanctuary

Question 55. Among the following, the type of so suitable for agriculture is—

  1. Laterite
  2.  Silt
  3. Coastal
  4. Mountainous

Answer: 2. Silt

Question 56. The main agricultural product of Darjeeling is—

  1. Jute
  2. Tea
  3. Coffee
  4. Paddy

Answer: 2. Tea

Question 57. Which one of the following is not a high-yielding variety of paddy seed?

  1. Chaitali
  2. Jaya
  3. Ratna
  4. Padma

Answer: 1. Chaitali1

Question 58. Coffee is a —

  1. Plantation crop
  2. Fiber crop
  3. Food crop
  4. None of these

Answer: 1. plantation crop

Question 59. In jute production, West Bengal ranks—

  1. 1st
  2. 2nd
  3. 3rd
  4. 4th

Answer: 1. 1st

Question 60. Jute cultivated in West Bengal is a type of-

  1. Tossa Jute
  2. Golden Jute
  3. White Jute
  4. Yellow Jute

Answer: 1. Tossa Jute

Question 61. Which one of the following is not a high-yielding jute seed?

  1. Chaitali
  2. Basudev
  3. Jaya
  4. Sabujsona

Answer: 3. Jaya

Question 62. The most developed industry of Salt Lake is that of—

  1. Iron And Steel
  2. Information Technology
  3. Jute
  4. Cotton And Textile

Answer: 2. Information Technology

Question 63. The dairy industry in West Bengal has developed in—

  1. Raichak
  2. Haldia
  3. Kakdwip
  4. Dankuni

Answer: 4. Dankuni

Question 64. The iron and steel industry has developed in—

  1. Kharagpur
  2. Kakdwip
  3. Durgapur
  4. Islampur

Answer: 3. Durgapur

Question 65. The Food Processing Research Centre is located at

  1. Barasat
  2. Naihati
  3. Panagarh
  4. Asansol

Answer: 1. Barasat

Question 66. The process of collection of data, hardware, and software-related activities from the—

  1. Tourism Industry
  2. Tant Industry
  3. Information Technology Industry
  4. Food Processing Industry

Answer: 3. Information Technology Industry

Question 67.’The steel city of West Bengal is—

  1. Durgapur
  2. Gangpur
  3. Bolpur
  4. Santipur

Answer: 1. Durgapur

Question 68. What coal in the Damodar Valley region is at what age?

  1. Gondwana
  2. Tertiary
  3. Paleozoic
  4. Quaternary

Answer: 1. Gondawana

Question 69. Geothermal power station of West Bengal is located at—

  1. Palta
  2. Sagar island
  3. Frazerganj
  4. Bakreshwar

Answer: 4. Bakreshwar

Question 70. The famous small-scale industry of Cooch Behar is—

  1. Wooden doll
  2. Dokra
  3. Terracotta
  4. Shitalpati

Answer: 4. Shitalpati

Question 71. The word ‘Outsourcing’ is related to—

  1. Food Processing Industry
  2. Cotton Textile Industry
  3. Information Technology Industry
  4. Tourism Industry

Answer: 4. Tourism Industry

Question 72. The heart of the information technology industry of West Bengal is at—

  1. Asansol
  2. Durgapur
  3. Salt Lake
  4. Kalyani

Answer: 3. Salt Lake

Question 73. The main raw material for the bidi industry is—

  1. Kendu leaves
  2. Sal leaves
  3. Palash leaves
  4. Khair leaves

Answer: 1. Kendu leaves

Question 74. Cake or Biscuit producing industry is called—

  1. Dairy
  2. Flour
  3. Bakery
  4. None of them

Answer: 3. Bakery

Question 75. The most urbanized district of West Bengal is—

  1. Howrah
  2. Bankura
  3. Kolkata
  4. Paschim Bardhaman]

Answer: 3. Kolkata

Question 76. ‘Adra’ in Purulia district is a—

  1. Fishing Centre
  2. District Headquarters
  3. Healthy Place
  4. Railway Junction

Answer: 4. Railway Junction

Question 77. The district town of Purba Medinipur is—

  1. Digha
  2. Kanthi
  3. Tamluk
  4. Ghatal

Answer: 3. Tamluk

Question 78. Fishing port has developed in —

1. Sankarpur
2. Krishnanagar
3. Durgapur
4. Islampur

Answer: 1. Sankarpur

Question 79. Santiniketan is situated in—

  1. Purba Bardhaman
  2. Nadia
  3. Howrah
  4. Birbhum

Answer: 4. Birbhum

Question 80. An example of a Land port is—

  1. Haldia
  2. Kolkata
  3. Berhampur
  4. Petrapole

Answer: 4. Petrapole

Question 81. Plassey is situated in—

  1. Murshidabad
  2. Bankura
  3. Howrah
  4. Hooghly

Answer: 1. Murshidabad

Question 82. Dolls and statues made of burnt clay are world-famous from the region of—

  1. Ghatal
  2. Chandipur
  3. Shantipur
  4. Bishnupur

Answer: 4. Bishnupur

Question 83. Tarapith is a—

  1. Historical Place
  2. Seaside Resort
  3. Religions Place
  4. Commercial Centre

Answer: 3. Religions Place

Question 84. An example of a metropolitan city is—

  1. Berhampore
  2. Balurghat
  3. Darjeeling
  4. Kolkata

Answer: 4. Kolkata

Question 85. Chhau dance is famous in—

  1. Purulia
  2. Bankura
  3. Howrah
  4. Birbhum

Answer: 1. Purulia

Question 86. The Royal Bengal Tiger is seen in —

  1. Bishnupur
  2. Sundarbans
  3. Bakkhali
  4. Jaldapara

Answer: 2. Sundarbans

Question 87. Shantiniketan is a tourist spot.

  1. Natural
  2. Religious
  3. Cultural
  4. Historical

Answer: 3. Cultural

Question 88. The famous tourist spot to visit in summer is—

  1. Bakresbwar
  2. Bishnupur
  3. Kalimpong
  4. Ayoddha hills

Answer: 3. Kalimpong

Question 89. One of the seven wonders of India is—

  1. Victoria Memorial
  2. Biswabharati
  3. Tagore house at Jorasanko
  4. Sagar island

Answer: 1. Victoria Memorial

WBBSE Class 9 Geography And Environment Chapter 7 Resources Of India MCQs

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Chapter 7 Resource Of India Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. A renewable resource is—

  1. Wind
  2. Petroleum
  3. Iron
  4. Coal

Answer: 1. Wind

Question 2. A non-renewable resource is—

  1. Sunlight
  2. Gold
  3. Wind
  4. Geothermal Power

Answer: 2. Gold

Read and Learn Also WBBSE Class 9 Geography And Environment Multiple Choice Questions

Question 3. A valuable cultural resource is—

  1. Education
  2. Population
  3. Water
  4. Land

Answer: 1. Education

Question 4. An example of an international resource is—

  1. School
  2. Water
  3. Land
  4. Ozone Layer

Answer: 4. Ozone Layer

Question 5. The forest is a—

  1. Cultural Resource
  2. Natural Resource
  3. Human Resource
  4. Abiotic Resource

Answer: 2. Natural Resource

Question 6. Education is a(n)—

  1. Intangible Resource
  2. Tangible Resource
  3. Human Resource
  4. Biotic/Biological Resource

Answer: 1. Intangible Resource

Question 7. Seafish is a—

  1. Permanent Resource
  2. Renewable Resource
  3. Cultural Resource
  4. Human Resource

Answer: 2. Renewable Resource

Question 8. A social resource is—

  1. Wind
  2. Knowledge
  3. Health
  4. Educational Institution

Answer: 4. Educational Institution

WBBSE Class 9 Geography And Environment Chapter 7 Resources Of India MCQs

Question 9. A resource which is found universally is—

  1. Wind
  2. Mineral Resource
  3. Culture
  4. School

Answer: 1. Wind

WBBSE Class 9 Geography And Environment Chapter 7 Resources Of India Multiple-Choice Questions

Question 10. A tangible resource is—

  1. Tree
  2. Education
  3. Sunlight
  4. Wind

Answer: 1. Tree

Question 11. According to resource-creating factors, an example of human resource is—

  1. Forest
  2. Knowledge
  3. Labourforce
  4. Soil

Answer: 3. Labourforce

Question 12. Which resource has an important effect on the Indian economy?

  1. Water resource
  2. Solar energy
  3. Wind energy
  4. Iron ore

Answer: 4. Iron ore

Question 13. Which of the following centres is famous for the extraction of iron ore?

  1. Bonsai
  2. Jharia
  3. Jamshedpur
  4. Kolaghat

Answer: 1. Bonsai

Question 14. The biggest coal mining centre is—

  1. Raniganj
  2. Jharia
  3. Singareni
  4. Badampahar

Answer: 2. Jharia

Question 15. The best quality iron ore is

  1. Magnetite
  2. Haematite
  3. Limonite
  4. Siderite

Answer: 1. magnetite

Question 16. Iron ore is found in Badampahar which is located in the state of—

  1. Goa
  2. Karnataka
  3. Odisha
  4. Jharkhand

Answer: 3. Odisha

Question 17. Iron ore is found in Karnataka which is located at—

  1. Sirigaon
  2. Badampahar
  3. Budaburu
  4. Bababudan

Answer: 2. Badampahar

Question 18. Rank of Odisha in India in the mining of iron ore

  1. First
  2. Second
  3. Third
  4. Fourth

Answer: 1. First

Question 19. A low-grade coal is—

  1. Siderite
  2. Limonite
  3. Lignite
  4. Bituminous

Answer: 3. Lignite

Question 20. A coalfield located in the Mahanadi valley is—

  1. Talcher
  2. Bokaro
  3. Raniganj
  4. Thane

Answer: 1. Talcher

Question 21. A by-product of coal is—

  1. Paraffin
  2. Coaltar
  3. Diesel
  4. Plastic

Answer: 2. Coaltar

Question 22. Best quality coal in India is found in—

  1. Mahanadi Valley
  2. Godavari Valley
  3. Damodar Valley
  4. Son Valley

Answer: 3. Damodar Valley

Question 23. The most important mineral resource of India is—

  1. Iron Ore
  2. Mica
  3. Coal
  4. Petroleum

Answer: 3. Coal

Question 24. Coal is mostly used in—

  1. Running Of Trains
  2. Iron And Steel Industry
  3. Production Of Thermal Power
  4. Melting Of Metals

Answer: 3. Production Of Thermal Power

Question 25. The first coal mine discovered in India is—

  1. Kerala
  2. Barakar
  3. Talcher
  4. Raniganj

Answer: 4. Raniganj

Question 26. The state which was the pioneer in extracting/producing coal is—

  1. Bihar
  2. Jharkhand
  3. Chattisgarh
  4. Odisha

Answer: 2. Jharkhand

Question 27. Coal found in India is mostly of—

  1. Tertiary Age
  2. Carboniferous Age
  3. Gondwana Age
  4. Jurassic Age

Answer: 3. Gondwana Age

Question 28. Coke is produced from—

  1. Bituminous Coal
  2. Lignite Coal
  3. Anthracite Coal
  4. Peat Coal

Answer: 1. Bituminous Coal

Question 29. The best coal mine centre in West Bengal is—

  1. Jamuria
  2. Raniganj
  3. Andal
  4. Jayanti

Answer: 2. Raniganj

Question 30. Korba coalfield is located in—

  1. Madhya Pradesh
  2. Chhattisgarh
  3. Jharkhand
  4. Odisha

Answer: 2. Chhattisgarh

Question 31. The best quality of coal is—

  1. Bituminous
  2. Lignite
  3. Peat
  4. Anthracite

Answer: 4. Anthracite

Question 32. The headquarters of Coal India Limited is situated in—

  1. Mumbai
  2. Delhi
  3. Kolkata
  4. Chennai

Answer: 3. Kolkata

Question 33. An important oil-producing centre in Assam is—

  1. Noonamati
  2. Naharkatiya
  3. Trombay
  4. Lunej

Answer: 2. Naharkatiya

Question 34. The largest oil refinery in India is¬

  1. Koyali
  2. Digboi
  3. Haldia
  4. Thane

Answer: 1. Koyali

Question 35. An example of fossil fuel is—

  1. Coal
  2. Iron
  3. Copper
  4. Thorium

Answer: 1. Coal

Class 9 WBBSE Geography Resources Of India Multiple-Choice

Question 36. ONGC was established in —

  1. 1953
  2. 1956
  3. 1965
  4. 1976

Answer: 2. 1956

Question 37. The oldest oil-producing centre in India is located in—

  1. Digboi
  2. Bombay High
  3. Ankleshwar
  4. Trombay

Answer: 1. Digboi

Question 38. The largest petroleum-producing region in India is—

  1. Coastal Region Of Gujarat
  2. Deep Sea Off The Western Coast
  3. Deep Sea Off The Eastern Coast
  4. Brahmaputra valley region

Answer: 2. Deep Sea Off The Western Coast

Question 39. The largest petrochemical industry in India is—

  1. Jamnagar
  2. Bhavnagar
  3. Sural
  4. Mural

Answer: 1. Jamnagar

Question 40. The headquarters of ONGC is situated in—

  1. Kolkata
  2. Chennai
  3. Vasant Kunj
  4. Chandigarh

Answer: 3. Vasant Kunj

Question 41. An important thermal power station in east India is—

  1. Maithon
  2. Hirakud
  3. Farakka
  4. Nellore

Answer: 3. Farakka

Question 42. An important thermal power station in south India is—

  1. Mettur
  2. Periyar
  3. Neyveli
  4. Santaldih

Answer: 3. Neyveli

Question 43. A nuclear power station in Rajasthan is—

  1. Trombay
  2. Tarapur
  3. Kota
  4. Rudrasagar

Answer: 3. Kota

Question 44. The first nuclear power station in India is—

1. Trombay
2. Kalpakkam
3. Tarapur
4. Sholapur

Answer: 3. Tarapur

Question 45. The richest zone of monazite in India is—

  1. Malabar Coast
  2. Konkan Coast
  3. Coromandel Coast
  4. Northern Circars Coast

Answer: 1. Malabar Coast

Question 46. The Shivasamudram Hydroelectric power station has developed on—

  1. Mahanadi
  2. Godavari
  3. Narmada
  4. Cauvery

Answer: 4. Cauvery

Question 47. A nuclear power-producing centre in Maharashtra is—

  1. Tarapur
  2. Kaiga
  3. Kokrajhar
  4. Narora

Answer: 1. Tarapur

Question 48. The largest nuclear power station in India is—

  1. Narora
  2. Kalpakkam
  3. Tarapur
  4. Rawatbhata

Answer: 3. Tarapur

Question 49. The largest coal-based thermal power centre of West Bengal is situated in—

  1. Santaldih
  2. Farakka
  3. Bakreshwar
  4. Kolaghat

Answer: 2. Farakka

Question 50. The thermal power station of Jharkhand is in—

  1. Farakka
  2. Panipat
  3. Chandrapura
  4. Kolaghat

Answer: 3. Chandrapu

Question 51. A source of non-conventional energy is—

  1. Swift-Flowing River
  2. Solar Power
  3. Coal
  4. Petroleum

Answer: 2. Solar Power

Question 52. A geothermal centre in India has come up in —

  1. Vizhinjam
  2. Manikaran
  3. Jalkheri
  4. Chikmagalur

Answer: 2. Manikaran

Question 53. One of the following states of India that has a centre for wind-power production is—

  1. Tamil Nadu
  2. Bihar
  3. Uttar Pradesh
  4. Andhra Pradesh

Answer: 1. Tamil Nadu

Question 54. The topmost state in producing solar energy is—

  1. West Bengal
  2. Kerala
  3. Rajasthan
  4. Gujarat

Answer: 4. Gujarat

WBBSE Class 9 Geography And Environment Chapter 6 Hazards And Disasters MCQs

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WBBSE Chapter 6 Hazards And Disasters Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. The following is a man-made hazard—

  1. Drought
  2. Earthquake
  3. Volcano
  4. Riot

Answer: 4. Riot

Question 2. The following is a semi-natural hazard—

  1. Volcano
  2. Tsunami
  3. Snowstorm
  4. Landslide

Answer: 4. Landslide

Read and Learn Also WBBSE Class 9 Geography And Environment Multiple Choice Questions

Question 3. The following is a natural disaster—

  1. Drought
  2. Global Warming
  3. Nuclear Disaster
  4. Riot

Answer: 1. Drought

Question 4. The following is not a cause of landslide—

  1. Deforestation
  2. Multi-Purpose River Valley Project
  3. Urbanization
  4. Tsunami

Answer: 4. Tsunami

Question 5. Give an example of a disaster caused by human activity—

  1. Earthquake
  2. Volcano
  3. Nuclear Bomb Explosion
  4. Drought

Answer: 3. Nuclear Bomb Explosion

WBBSE Class 9 Geography And Environment Chapter 6 Hazards And Disasters MCQs

Question 6. The following is known as the ‘land of earthquakes’—

  1. Japan
  2. Iraq
  3. Myanmar
  4. India

Answer: 1. Japan

Question 7. Volcanic eruptions occur due to—

  1. Deforestation
  2. Unplanned Development Of Settlements
  3. Rise In Heat And Pressure Within The Earth
  4. Construction Of Roads

Answer: 3. Rise In Heat And Pressure Within The Earth

Question 8. The following disaster occurs in the coastal regions—

  1. Drought
  2. Volcano
  3. Landslide
  4. Tsunami

Answer: 4. Tsunami

Question 9. The percentage of land in India that is prone to flood is—

  1. 10%
  2. 11%
  3. 12%
  4. 13%

Answer: 3. 12%

Question 10. Landslides occur more often in—

  1. Hills
  2. Deserts
  3. Forests
  4. Plains

Answer: 1. Hills

Question 11. Snowstorms are mostly observed in the—

  1. Equatorial region
  2. Tropical Region
  3. Sub-Tropical Region
  4. Polar region

Answer: 4. Polar region

Question 12. A terrible blizzard hit the eastern side of the USA and Canada in—

  1. 1777
  2. 1888
  3. 1920
  4. 1992

Answer: 2. 1888

Question 13. Avalanches occur in—

  1. Mountains
  2. Deserts
  3. Plateaus
  4. Coastal regions

Answer: 1. Mountains

Question 14. The following is an example of a climatic hazard—

  1. An Arabic Term
  2. A Japanese Term
  3. A French Term
  4. A Russian Term

Answer: 2. A Japanese Term

Question 15. In Japan and China, whirlwinds are known as—

  1. Volcano
  2. Flood
  3. Forest Fire
  4. Tsunami 

Answer: 2. Flood 

Question 16. An example of an atmospheric disaster is—

  1. Tornado
  2. Typhoon
  3. Hurricane
  4. Willy- Willy

Answer: 1. Tornado

Question 17. An example of an atmospheric catastrophe is-

  1. Drought
  2. Tsunami
  3. Soil erosion
  4. Desertification

Answer: 1. Drought

Question 18. Cyclone of the South China Sea is known as—

  1. Taifu
  2. Typhoon
  3. Hurricane
  4. Willy-willy

Answer: 2. Typhoon

Question 19. Tsunami is a type of—

  1. Organic Disaster
  2. Geological Disaster
  3. Hydrological Disaster
  4. Meteorological Disaster

Answer: 3. Hydrological Disaster

Question 20. The affected area of cyclone Willy-willy is located in—

  1. Germany
  2. Japan
  3. Australia
  4. China

Answer: 3. Australia

Question 21. An example of man-induced hazard is—

  1. Communal Riot
  2. Forest Fire
  3. Landslide
  4. Volcanism

Answer: 1. Communal Riot

Question 22. Which of these is not a geological disaster?

  1. Landslide
  2. Cyclone
  3. Earthquake
  4. Volcanic eruption

Answer: 2. Cyclone

Question 23. Cyclone of the Indian subcontinent is called—

  1. Cyclone
  2. Typhoon
  3. Hurricane
  4. Willy-willy

Answer: 1. Cyclone

Question 24. Huge rainfall in high mountainous regions in a short period is called—

  1. Out Burst Of Monsoon
  2. Cloud Burst
  3. Dust Storm
  4. Heavy Rain

Answer: 2. Cloud Burst

Question 25. Which is not a natural disaster?

  1. Cyclone
  2. Tsunami
  3. Earthquake
  4. Soil Erosion

Answer: 4. Soil Erosion

Question 26. Many people die in a short time, because of—

  1. Forest Fire
  2. Drought
  3. Hailstorm
  4. Earthquake

Answer: 4. Earthquake

Question 27. The direct natural cause of flood is—

  1. Heavy Rainfall
  2. Hailstorm
  3. Deforestation
  4. Unscientific agriculture

Answer: 1. Heavy Rainfall

Question 28. In which country was Fani named?

  1. Bangladesh
  2. India
  3. Nepal
  4. Pakistan

Answer: 1. Bangladesh

Question 29. A drought-prone district in West Bengal is—

  1. Howrah
  2. Darjeeling
  3. Bankura
  4. Jalpaiguri

Answer: 3. Bankura

Question 30. The following is one of the measures to control flood—

  1. Practice Of Dry Farming
  2. Construction Of Deep Wells
  3. Initiation Of Water Conservation Projects
  4. Controlling The Grazing Of Cattle

Answer: 3. Initiation Of Water Conservation Projects

Question 31. The International Day for Disaster Reduction (IDDR) is observed on—

  1. 13 October
  2. 10 November
  3. 5 September
  4. 5 January

Answer: 1. 13 October

Question 32. The following is a landslide-prone district in West Bengal—

  1. Midnapore
  2. Birbhum
  3. Malda
  4. Darjeeling

Answer: 4. Darjeeling

Question 33. Cyclone Hudhud occurred in—

  1. 2013
  2. 2014
  3. 2015
  4. 2016

Answer: 2. 2014

Question 34. The most affected district in West Bengal by Cyclone Aila is—

  1. Howrah
  2. Hooghly
  3. Nadia
  4. South 24 Parganas

Answer: 4. South 24 Parganas

Question 35. National Disaster Response Force (NDRF) was formed in—

  1. 2002
  2. 2003
  3. 2004
  4. 2005

Answer: 4. 2005

Question 8. Disaster that frequently occurs in Sundarban, is—

  1. Earthquake
  2. Cyclone
  3. Landslide
  4. Forest fire

Answer: 2. Cyclone

WBBSE Class 9 Geography And Environment Chapter 5 Weathering MCQs

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WBBSE Chapter 5 Weathering Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. Transportation of disintegrated rocks is known as—

  1. Mechanical Weathering
  2. Chemical Weathering
  3. Denudation
  4. Erosion

Answer: 4. Erosion

Question 2. The movement of weathered rock materials in hilly areas is known as—

  1. Mechanical Weathering
  2. Chemical Weathering
  3. Mass Movement
  4. Denudation

Answer: 3. Mass Movement

Read and Learn Also WBBSE Class 9 Geography And Environment Multiple Choice Questions

Question 3. The process in which the rocks of the surface of the Earth gets disintegrate is—

  1. Erosion
  2. Denudation
  3. Disintegration
  4. Mass Movement

Answer: 3. Disintegration

Question 4. Weathering, decomposition, and removal of rocks are the combined process of—

  1. Disintegration
  2. Erosion
  3. Denudation
  4. Mass Wasting

Answer: 3. Denudation

Question 5. What is the order of relief developed by weathering? 

  1. First order
  2. Second order
  3. Third order
  4. Fourth order

Answer: 3. Third order

Question 6. Due to weathering, rocks get—

  1. Deformed
  2. Loosened
  3. Eroded
  4. Removed

Answer: 2. Loosened

WBBSE Class 9 Geography And Environment Chapter 5 Weathering MCQs

WBBSE Class 9 Geography Chapter 5 Weathering Exam MCQs

Question 7. Another name for weathering is—

  1. Erosion
  2. Denudation
  3. Disintegration
  4. None Of These

Answer: 3. Disintegration

Question 8. The main process of mechanical weathering in a warm desert is—

  1. Saline Crystal Formation
  2. Frost Action
  3. Granular Disintegration
  4. Block disintegration

Answer: 3. Granular Disintegration

Question 9. Which component plays an important role in the oxidation process of the weathering of rocks?

  1. H2
  2. O2
  3. N2
  4. CO2

Answer: 2. O2

Question 10. The main component of chemical weathering is—

  1. Water
  2. Sunlight
  3. Air Stream
  4. Flora

Answer: 1. Water

Question 11. The chemical formula of humic acid is—

  1. c187c186c89c9c1
  2. C10H20°10
  3. C12H10O10
  4. C5h607

Answer: 1. c187c186c89c9c1

Question 12. Limestone-clad areas are prone to—

  1. Carbonation
  2. Hydration
  3. Hydrolysis
  4. Oxidation

Answer:  1. Hydration

Question 13. Snowfall-prone areas experience—

  1. Mechanical Weathering
  2. Chemical Weathering
  3. Biological Weathering
  4. Mechanical And Chemical Weathering

Answer: 1. Mechanical Weathering

Question 14. Which of the following is visible in homogeneous rocks?

  1. Block Disintegration
  2. Exfoliation
  3. Granular Disintegration
  4. Biological Weathering

Answer: 2. Exfoliation

Question 15. Rusting of rocks due to chemical weathering is known as—

  1. Oxidation
  2. Carbonation
  3. Solution
  4. Hydrolysis

Answer: 1. Oxidation

Question 16. Areas that are prone to chemical weathering are—

  1. Tundra Areas
  2. Cool Temperate Areas
  3. Equatorial Areas
  4. Semi-Arid Areas

Answer: 3. Equatorial Areas

Weathering Processes and Examples MCQs for WBBSE Class 9 Exams

Question 17. Exfoliation occurs in—

  1. Basalt
  2. Granite
  3. Sandstone
  4. All Types Of rocks

Answer: 2. Granite

Question 18. The process of mechanical weathering which is most effective in high altitude areas or cold areas is—

  1. Colloid Plucking
  2. Bolder Cleaving
  3. Frost Action
  4. Sheeting

Answer: 3. Frost Action

Question 19. The kind of weathering that takes place in heterogeneous rocks is—

  1. Disintegration
  2. Boulder Cleaving
  3. Exfoliation
  4. Granular Disintegration

Answer: 4. Granular Disintegration

Question 20. When water freezes into ice, its volume—

  1. Decreases By 8%
  2. Increases By 9%
  3. Increases By 10%
  4. Decreases By 11%

Answer: 2. Increases By 9%

Question 21. Heavy rainfall-prone tropical areas witness—

  1. Mechanical Weathering
  2. Chemical Weathering
  3. Biological Weathering
  4. None of the above

Answer: 2. Chemical Weathering

Question 22. The result of mechanical weathering in rocks is—

  1. Physical Change
  2. Chemical Change
  3. Both Physical And Chemical Change
  4. No Changes Occur

Answer: 1. Physical Change

Question 23. The process in which calcium carbonate transforms into calcium bicarbonate is—

  1. Oxidation
  2. Carbonation
  3. Hydrolysis
  4. Solution

Answer: 2. Carbonation

Question 24. Both mechanical and chemical weathering occur more in—

  1. Cool Temperate Areas
  2. Warm Temperate Areas
  3. Equatorial Regions
  4. Desert Regions

Answer: 2. Warm Temperate Areas

Question 25. A major factor of mechanical weathering is—

  1. Gravitational Force
  2. Oxygen
  3. Hardness Of Rocks
  4. Heat

Answer: 4. Heat

Question 26. Cold regions experience—

  1. Mechanical weathering
  2. Chemical weathering
  3. Biological weathering
  4. Bio-Mechanical weathering

Answer: 1. Mechanical weathering

Question 27. The kind of weathering which changes the shape of a rock is known as—

  1. Biological Weathering
  2. Mechanical Weathering
  3. Bio-Mechanical Weathering
  4. Chemical Weathering

Answer: 2. Mechanical Weathering

Question 28. Gunshot-like noises occur in—

  1. Exfoliation Process
  2. Frost Weathering
  3. Granular Disintegration
  4. Block Disintegration

Answer: 3. Granular Disintegration

Question 29. The process of weathering in granite is—

  1. Exfoliation
  2. Dirt Cracking
  3. Boulder Cleaving
  4. Oxidation

Answer: 1. Exfoliation

Question 30. One of the main causes of exfoliation is—

  1. Humidity
  2. Solar Energy
  3. Decrease In Pressure
  4. Rainfall

Answer: 2. Solar Energy

Question 31. Exfoliation is common in—

  1. Desert Region
  2. Polar Region
  3. Humid Region
  4. Coastal Region

Answer: 1. Desert Region

Question 32. The weathering process that forms a rounded hill is—

  1. Frost Action
  2. Granular Disintegration
  3. Exfoliation
  4. Boulder Cleaving

Answer: 3. Exfoliation

Question 33. Due to excessive temperature variation, the bedded rock peels off like an onion, which is called—

  1. Block Disintegration
  2. Granular Disintegration
  3. Exfoliation
  4. Shattering

Answer: 3. Exfoliation

Question 34. When carbon dioxide dissolves in water is formed.

  1. Carbonic Acid
  2. Calcium Bicarbonate
  3. Organic Acid
  4. None Of These

Answer: 1. Carbonic Acid

Question 35. Exfoliation is a type of—

  1. Mechanical Weathering
  2. Chemical Weathering
  3. Biological Weathering
  4. None Of These

Answer: 1. Mechanical Weathering

Question 36. Block disintegration is common in—

  1. Granite
  2. Gabbro
  3. Basalt
  4. Sandstone

Answer: 3. Basalt

Question 37. The process of formation of humus through the decomposition of dead plants or animals is known as—

  1. Eluviation
  2. Podsolization
  3. Humification
  4. Illuviation

Answer: 3. Humification

Question 38. The first stage of soil formation is—

  1. Solum
  2. Regolith
  3. Batholith
  4. Monolith

Answer: 2. Regolith

Question 39. Conical rocks formed due to frost action—

  1. Talus or Scree
  2. Erg
  3. Pediment
  4. Bajada

Answer:  1. Talus or Scree

Question 40. Terrace farming is prevalent in—

  1. Hilly Areas
  2. Deserts
  3. Plain Areas
  4. Coastal Areas

Answer: 1. Hilly Areas

Question 41. Soil erosion in desert areas takes place—

  1. Due To River Action
  2. Due To Glacial Action
  3. Due To Wind Action
  4. Due To Human Beings

Answer:  3. Due To Wind Action

Question 42. A layer of soil formed due to weathering in limestone regions is called—

  1. Terra Rosa
  2. Talus
  3. Blocksped
  4. Pediment

Answer: 1. Terra Rosa

Question 43. The process of humus formation is called—

  1. Regolith
  2. Humification
  3. Mineralization
  4. Alluviation

Answer:  2. Humification

Question 44. Which process of weathering leads to the formation of karst landforms?

  1. Oxidation
  2. Carbonation
  3. Hydrolysis
  4. Block Disintegration

Answer:  2. Carbonation

Question 45. One of the man-made reasons for soil erosion is—

  1. Water Flow
  2. Farming
  3. Extension Of Root
  4. Digging Holes In Soil

Answer: 2. Farming

Question 46. The process of weathering that forms inselbergs is known as—

  1. Exfoliation
  2. Carbonation
  3. Hydrolysis
  4. Oxidation

Answer: 1. Exfoliation 

Question 47. The layer of disintegrated rock particles that are formed due to weathering is known as—

  1. Hardpan
  2. Batholith
  3. Regolith
  4. Lopolith

Answer:  3. Regolith

Question 48. Covering the land with straw, roots of the crops, etc. is a process of soil conservation, which is called—

  1. Mulching
  2. Terracing
  3. Strip Cropping
  4. Contour cropping

Answer:  1. Mulching

Question 49. The process that results in the removal of minerals from the upper layer of soil, is—

  1. Humification
  2. Mineralization
  3. Calcification
  4. Eluviation

Answer:  4. Eluviation

Question 50. Forms due to weathering.

  1. Mountain
  2. Plateau
  3. Soil
  4. Desert

Answer:  3. Soil

Question 51. Maximum eluviation occurs in—

  1. Desert areas
  2. Cold areas
  3. Rainy areas
  4. Temperate areas

Answer:  3. Rainy areas

WBBSE Class 9 Geography And Environment Chapter 4 Geomorphic Process And Landforms Of The Earth MCQs

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WBBSE Chapter 4 Geomorphic Process And Landforms Of The Earth Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. An example of an ancient mountain range is the

  1. Rockies
  2. Alps
  3. Aravallis
  4. Himalayas

Answer: 3. Aravallis

Question 2. An example of a block mountain is the

  1. Himalaya
  2. Satpura
  3. Vesuvius
  4. Rocky

Answer: 2. Satpura

Read and Learn Also WBBSE Class 9 Geography And Environment Multiple Choice Questions

Question 3. An example of a volcanic mountain is the

  1. Fujiyama
  2. Satpura Andes
  3. Eastern Ghats
  4. Andes

Answer: 1. Fujiyama

Question 4. A shallow and narrow seabed is known as

  1. Geosyncline
  2. Continental shelf
  3. Continental slope
  4. Continental drift

Answer: 1. Geosyncline

Question 5. An example of a rift valley in India is-

  1. Ganga valley
  2. Narmada valley
  3. Indus valley
  4. Kaveri valley

Answer: 2. Narmada valley

Question 6. The folding of rock beds leads to the formation of—

  1. Fold Mountains
  2. Block mountains
  3. Volcanic mountains
  4. Depositional/Aggradational mountains

Answer: 1. Fold Mountains

Question 7. The highest mountain peak in India is—

  1. Mt. Everest
  2. Mt. Godwin Austen or K2
  3. Mt. Kangchenjunga
  4. Mt. Phalut

Answer: 2. Mt. Godwin Austen or K2

WBBSE Class 9 Geography And Environment Chapter 4 Geomorphic Process And Landforms Of The Earth MCQs

Question 8. Another name for the volcanic mountain is—

  1. Degraded/erosional mountain
  2. fold mountain
  3. Aggraded/Depositional Mountain
  4. Residual Mountain

Answer: 3. Aggraded/Depositional Mountain

Question 9. Germany’s Black Forest is a—

  1. Forest
  2. Block Mountain
  3. Black Soil Region
  4. Cold Desert

Answer: 2. Block Mountain

WBBSE Class 9 Geography Chapter 4 Geomorphic Process MCQs

Question 10. Mt. Everest is located in—

  1. Nepal
  2. Bhutan
  3. India
  4. China

Answer: 1. Nepal

Question 11. The main propounder of the Plate Tectonic Theory is—

  1. McKenzie
  2. Pichon
  3. Wilson
  4. Darwin

Answer: 2. Pichon

Question 12. Plate margins are usually of—

  1. 1 type
  2. 2 types
  3. 3 types
  4. 4 types

Answer: 3. 3 types

Question 13. The longest-fold mountain range in the world is the—

  1. Himalayas
  2. Rockies
  3. Alps
  4. Andes

Answer: 4. Andes

Question 14. Converging plate movements result in the formation of—

  1. Block mountains
  2. Fold mountains
  3. Erosional or residual mountains
  4. Plains

Answer: 2. fold mountains

Question 15. A fold mountain range located in India is the—

  1. Western Ghats
  2. Eastern Ghats
  3. Satpuras Range
  4. Himalayan Range

Answer: 4. Himalayan Range

Question 16. An erosional/residual mountain range in India is the—

  1. Himalaya
  2. Aravalli
  3. Satpura
  4. Andes

Answer: 2. Aravalli

Question 17. A volcanic mountain in India is the—

  1. Barren Island
  2. Vindhyas
  3. Nanga Parbat
  4. Mauna Loa

Answer: 1. Barren Island

Question 18. Mt. Fujiyama in Japan is a(n)—

  1. Extinct volcano
  2. Active volcano
  3. Dormant volcano
  4. Quasi/half-extinct volcano

Answer: 3. Dormant volcano

Question 19. An example of an extinct volcano is—

  1. Stromboli
  2. Fujiyama
  3. Mt. Popa
  4. Mt. Pelee

Answer: 4. Mt. Pelee

Question 20. The highest volcano in the world is—

  1. Fujiyama
  2. Vesuvius
  3. Krakatoa
  4. Mauna Loa

Answer: 4. Mauna Loa

Geomorphic Agents And Their Landforms MCQs WBBSE Class 9

Question 21. Diverging plate movements result in the formation of—

  1. Fold mountains
  2. Block mountains
  3. Volcanic mountains
  4. Erosional residual mountains

Answer: 3. Volcanic mountains

Question 22. A river that flows through a rift valley is the—

  1. Seine
  2. Rhine
  3. Vistula
  4. Godavari

Answer: 2. Rhine

Question 23. The following was present at the same location in the Himalayas before its formation—

  1. Indian Ocean
  2. Bay of Bengal
  3. Tethys Sea
  4. Pacific Ocean

Answer: 3. Tethys Sea

Question 24. One of the following rivers flows through a rift valley in India—

  1. Mahanadi
  2. Saraswati
  3. Narmada
  4. Ganges

Answer: 3. Narmada

Question 25. The Barren Island in India is a(n)—

  1. Quasi-extinct volcano
  2. Dormant volcano
  3. Extinct volcano
  4. Active volcano

Answer: 4. active volcano

Question 26. The Rajmahal Hills in Jharkhand is a(n)—

  1. Block mountain
  2. Erosional mountain
  3. Fold the mountain
  4. Volcanic mountain

Answer: 2. erosional mountain

Question 27. Alfred Wegener propounded the theory of Continental Drift in—

  1. 1914
  2. 1986
  3. 1922
  4. 1912

Answer: 4. 1912

Question 28. An example of a cone-shaped volcanic mountain is—

  1. Krafla island
  2. Mauna Lb a in Hawaii
  3. Paricutin in Mexico
  4. Fujiyama in Japan

Answer: 3. Paricutin in Mexico

Question 29. Most of the world’s volcanoes are located in the—

  1. Pacific Ocean region
  2. Atlantic Ocean region
  3. Indian Ocean region
  4. Antarctic Ocean region

Answer: 1. Pacific Ocean region

Question 30. The density of a continental plate per cubic centimeter is—

  1. 2.70 grams
  2. 2.90 grams
  3. 2.60 grams
  4. 3.10 grams

Answer: 1. 2.70 grams

Question 31. The ‘Valley of Thousand Smokes’ is—

  1. Mt. Mckenzie
  2. Mt. Katmai
  3. Mt. Popa
  4. Mt. Stromboli

Answer: 2. Mt. Katmai

Question 32. The world’s tallest volcanic mountain is—

  1. Mt. Fujiyama
  2. Mt. Cotopaxi
  3. Ojos Del Salado
  4. Mt. Helmes

Answer: 3. Ojos Del Salado

Question 33. The mountain which has been formed as a result of the downward movement of the Nazca Plate below South America is the—

  1. Fujiyama
  2. Rockies
  3. Zagros
  4. Andes

Answer: 4. Andes

Question 34. The expansion of Pangaea started about—

  1. 20 million years ago
  2. 50 million years ago
  3. 62 million years ago
  4. 13 million years ago

Answer: 1. 20 million years ago

Question 35. The length of the Great Rift Valley is about—

  1. 5,800 km
  2. 5,670 km
  3. 6,000 km
  4. 3,475 km

Answer: 3. 6,000 km

Question 36. The ‘Ring of Fire is located in the—

  1. Pacific Ocean
  2. Indian Ocean
  3. Atlantic Ocean
  4. Antarctic Ocean

Answer: 1. Pacific Ocean

Question 37. The salt range of Pakistan is a—.

  1. Folded Mountain
  2. Volcanic Mountain
  3. Block Mountain
  4. Residual Mountain

Answer: 3. Block Mountain

Question 38. The velocity of divergence of the Atlantic Oceanic Plate per year is—

  1. 5-6 cm
  2. 13-14 cm
  3. 2-3 cm
  4. 9-11 cm

Answer: 3. 2-3 cm

Question 39. Andes Mountain was formed due to a collision between two plates, which are—

  1. South American and Nazca Plate
  2. North American and Pacific Ocean Plate
  3. Africa and Eurasia plate
  4. Africa and Indo-Australia Plate

Answer: 1. South American and Nazca Plate

MCQs On Weathering, Erosion, And Landforms WBBSE Class 9 Geography

Question 40. Name the volcano located in the Pacific Ring of Fire—

  1. Fujiyama
  2. Vesuvius
  3. Kilimanjaro
  4. Stromboli

Answer: 1. Fujiyama

Question 41. An example of Young Fold Mountain is—.

  1. Aravalli
  2. Himalaya
  3. Satpura
  4. Jayanti

Answer: 2. Himalaya

Question 42. In 79 AD, Pompeii city of Italy was destroyed by—

  1. Earthquake
  2. Flood
  3. Vulcanism
  4. Storm

Answer: 3. Vulcanism

Question 43. The continental plate is made of—

  1. Basalt rock
  2. Marble rock
  3. Granite rock
  4. Gneiss rock

Answer: 3. Granite rock

Question 44. Popocatepetl of Mexico is a—

  1. Relict mountain
  2. Folded mountain
  3. Block mountain
  4. Volcanic mountain

Answer: 4. Volcanic mountain

Question 45. Mid-oceanic ridge occurs along the ——— plate boundary.

  1. Convergent
  2. Divergent
  3. Neutral
  4. None Of Them

Answer: 2. Divergent

Question 46. Write the correct answer from the given alternative ‘Roof of the World’ refers to the—

  1. Pamir Plateau
  2. Tibetan Plateau
  3. Arabian Plateau
  4. Ladakh Plateau

Answer: 1. Pamir Plateau

Question 47. The largest plateau in the world is the—

  1. Tibetan Plateau
  2. Pamir Plateau
  3. Deccan Plateau
  4. Meghalaya Plateau

Answer: 1. Tibetan Plateau

Question 48. The average elevation/altitude of a plateau is at least—

  1. 200 meter
  2. 300 meter
  3. 400 meter
  4. 500 meter

Answer: 2. 300 meter

Question 49. An example of a lava plateau in India is—

  1. Ladakh Plateau
  2. Chota Nagpur Plateau
  3. Deccan Plateau
  4. Meghalaya Plateau

Answer: 3. Deccan Plateau

Question 50. A plateau encircled by mountains is the—

  1. Tibetan Plateau
  2. Brazilian Plateau
  3. Chota Nagpur Plateau
  4. Deccan Plateau

Answer: 1. Tibetan Plateau

Question 51. An example of a dissected plateau is the—

  1. Chota Nagpur Plateau
  2. Pamir Plateau
  3. Ladakh Plateau
  4. Brazilian Plateau

Answer: 1. Chota Nagpur Plateau

Question 52. Meghalaya Plateau is a(n)—

  1. Dissected Plateau
  2. Plateau Formed By Lava
  3. Intermontane (Enclosed By Mountains) Plateau
  4. Plateau Formed By Faults

Answer: 1. Dissected Plateau

Question 53. The following is known as a ‘tableland’—

  1. Hill
  2. Plateau
  3. Mountain
  4. Plain

Answer:  2. Plateau

Question 55. An example of a lava plateau in India is—

  1. Deccan Trap
  2. Chota Nagpur Plateau
  3. Meghalaya Plateau
  4. Ladakh Plateau

Answer: 1. Deccan Trap

Question 56. The plateau located between Zagros and Elburz mountains is—

  1. Ladakh
  2. Iran
  3. Yukon
  4. Ecuador

Answer:  2. Iran

Question 57. The Indian plateau that was formed by fissure eruption is—

  1. Deccan Plateau
  2. Ladakh Plateau
  3. Chota Nagpur Plateau
  4. Ranchi Plateau

Answer: 1. Deccan Plateau

Question 58. Chota Nagpur Plateau is a type of—

  1. Dissected Plateau
  2. Residual Mountain
  3. Intermontane Plateau
  4. Lava Plateau

Answer:  1. Dissected Plateau

Question 59. The landform that is known as the ‘Storehouse of Minerals’ is—

  1. Plateau
  2. Plain
  3. Mountain
  4. Ocean

Answer: 1. Plateau

Question 60. Malnad region of Karnataka is a—

  1. Intermontane Plateau
  2. Dissected Plateau
  3. Lava Mountain
  4. Continental Plateau

Answer:  2. Dissected Plateau

Question 61. Baghelkhand and Bundelkhand of India are—

  1. Intermontane Plateau
  2. Dissected Plateau
  3. Continental Plateau
  4. Piedmont Plateau

Answer: 1. Dissected Plateau

Question 62. The Hwang Ho River basin is a(n)—

  1. Uplifted Plain
  2. Subdued Plain
  3. Loess Plain
  4. Eroded Plain

Answer: 3. Loess Plain

Question 63. A loess plain is formed by—

  1. Action Of Rivers
  2. Wind Action
  3. Glacial Action
  4. Action Of Sea Waves

Answer: 2. Wind Action

Question 64. The Malwa Plains of Gujarat is a(n)—

  1. Lava Plain
  2. Erosional Plain
  3. Flood (Silt) Plain
  4. Desert Plain

Answer: 1. Lava Plain

Question 65. An example of an uplifted plain is—

  1. Vindhya Plain
  2. Eastern Coastal Plains Of India
  3. Plain Of Turan
  4. None Of These

Answer: 2. Eastern Coastal Plains Of India

Question 66. Loess plan is a type of—

  1. Erosional Plain
  2. Depositional Plain
  3. Tectonic Plain
  4. None Of these

Answer: 2. Depositional Plain

Question 67. Large expanses of flood plains are seen in—

  1. Godavari river basin
  2. Narmada river basin
  3. Tapti river basin
  4. Ganges river basin

Answer: 4. Ganges river basin

Question 68. A subdued plain formed as a result of tectonic activity is the—

  1. Deccan Trap
  2. Turan Lowland
  3. Mississippi Basin
  4. Siberian Shield

Answer: 2. Turan Lowland

Question 69. Moraines or Moraine Plains are seen in—

  1. Karst Regions
  2. Glacial Regions
  3. Equatorial Region
  4. Hot Desert regions

Answer: 2. Glacial Regions

Question 70. Loess plain is found in—

  1. China
  2. Japan
  3. India
  4. Bangladesh

Answer: 1. China

Question 71. Natural levees are formed as a result of—

  1. Riverine Erosion
  2. Glacial Erosion
  3. Wind Erosion
  4. River Deposition

Answer: 4. River Deposition

Question 72.’Pediments are formed as a result of—

  1. Erosion By Glacier
  2. Riverine Erosion.
  3. Erosion By Sea Waves
  4. Wind Erosion

Answer: 4. Wind Erosion

Question 73. Bajada is a—

  1. Erosional Plain
  2. Depositional Plain
  3. Geotectonic Plain
  4. Oceanic Plain

Answer: 2. Depositional Plain

WBBSE Class 9 Geography And Environment Chapter 3 Determination Of Location Of A Place Of The Earth’s Surface MCQs

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WBBSE Chapter 3 Determination Of Location Of A Place Of The Earth’s Surface Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. The highest value of latitude can be—

  1. 90°
  2. 100°
  3. 175°
  4. 180°

Answer: 1. 90°

Question 2. The total number of latitudes that can be measured at an interval of 1° to the north and south of the Equator are—

  1. 189
  2. 190
  3. 179
  4. 181

Answer: 4. 181

Read and Learn Also WBBSE Class 9 Geography And Environment Multiple Choice Questions

Question 3. The angular measurement of the Arctic Circle is—

  1. 60° N
  2. 60° S
  3. 66° 30′ N
  4. 66° 30′ S

Answer: 3. 66° 30′ N

Question 4. The angle of elevation of the Pole Star at the North Pole is—

  1. 0°
  2. 90°
  3. 60°
  4. 180°

Answer: 2. 90°

Question 5. The time difference between a place and its antipode is—

  1. 6 hours
  2. 10 hours
  3. 12 hours
  4. 24 hours

Answer: 3. 12 hours

Question 6. The parallel that runs almost through the middle of West Bengal is—

  1. Equator
  2. Tropic of Cancer
  3. Tropic of Capricorn
  4. Arctic Circle

Answer: 2. Tropic of Cancer

WBBSE Class 9 Geography And Environment Chapter 3 Determination Of Location Of A Place Of The Earth's Surface MCQs

Question 7. The first person to use latitude and longitude to determine the location of a place was—

Plato
Ptolemy
Eratosthenes
4. Aristotle

Answer: 3. Eratosthenes

Question 8. The South Pole is determined by a constellation of stars known as—

  1. Pole Star
  2. Morning Star
  3. Orion
  4. Hadley’s Octant

Answer: 4. Hadley’s Octant

Question 9. The angular distance of a place, north or south of the Equator, usually measured in degrees is known as—

  1. Longitude
  2. Anti pode
  3. Latitude
  4. Axis

Answer: 3. Latitude

Question 10. The minimum value of latitude can be—

  1. 90°
  2. 0°
  3. 45°
  4. 66½º

Answer: 2. 0°

Multiple Choice Questions On Determination Of Location WBBSE Class 9

Question 11. The northernmost latitudinal extent of India is—

  1. 36° 06′ N
  2. 97° 25′ N
  3. 37° 06′ N
  4. 67° 00′ N

Answer: 3. 37° 06′ N

Question 12. The total number of parallels of latitude drawn at 1° intervals across the globe are—

  1. 180
  2. 177
  3. 178
  4. 179

Answer: 4. 179

Question 13. The difference in latitude between the Antarctic Circle and the Tropic of Capricorn is—

  1. 33°
  2. 43°
  3. 23°
  4. 66°

Answer: 2. 43°

Question 14. The linear distance between two sub-frequent parallels at an interval of 1° is—

  1. 127 km
  2. 111.3 km
  3. 161 km
  4. 164.2 km

Answer: 2. 111.3 km

Question 15. The angle of elevation of the Pole Star at the Tropic of Cancer is—

  1. 0°
  2. 23½º
  3. 66½º
  4. 90°

Answer: 2. 23½º

Question 16. The heavenly body that helps to determine latitude in Australia at night is the—

  1. Moon
  2. Pole Star
  3. Hadley’s Octant
  4. Evening Star

Answer: 3. Hadley’s Octant

Question 17. Any place that is located to the north of the Equator is designated as—

  1. High latitude
  2. North latitude
  3. Mid-latitude
  4. Low latitude

Answer: 2. North latitude

Question 18. The line that joins all the places with the same latitudinal degree is known as the—

  1. Meridian
  2. Prime Meridian
  3. Parallel
  4. Equator

Answer: 3. Parallel

Question 19. At the Equator, the Pole Star can be seen in the—

  1. Horizon
  2. Vertically overhead
  3. Eastern sky
  4. Western sky

Answer: 1. Horizon

Question 20. The latitude at which the diurnal range of temperature is the lowest is—

  1. Equator
  2. Tropic of Cancer
  3. Tropic of Capricorn
  4. South Pole

Answer: 1. Equator

Question 21. The line in the southern hemisphere that marks the boundary till which vertical sun rays lie is—

  1. Equator
  2. Tropic of Cancer
  3. Tropic of Capricorn
  4. Antarctic Circle

Answer: 3. Tropic of Capricorn

Question 22. Value of the highest latitude on the Earth is—

  1. 90°
  2. 100°
  3. 175°
  4. 180°

Answer: 1. 90°

Question 23. Total number of latitudes to the north or south of the Equator at 1° intervals are—

  1. 89
  2. 90
  3. 91
  4. 180

Answer: 2. 90

Question 24. Value of the latitude of the Arctic Circle is—

  1. 60° N
  2. 66° S
  3. 66°30′ N
  4. 60°30′ S

Answer: 3. 66°30′ N

WBBSE Class 9 Geography Determination Of Location Practice Test

Question 25. The Angular distance of Kolkata from the center of the Earth is—

  1. 22°30′ N
  2. 23°30′ N
  3. 60° N
  4. 66°30′ N

Answer: 1. 22°30′ N

Question 26. The angle that forms between the equatorial plane and the center of the Earth is—

  1. 60°
  2. 90°
  3. 0°
  4. 22°30′

Answer: 3. 0°

Question 27. The time difference between Kolkata and Greenwich is—

  1. 5 hrs
  2. 5 hrs 30 mins
  3. 6 hrs
  4. 6 hrs 30 mins

Answer: 2. 5 hrs 30 mins

Question 28. The time difference between Kolkata and Dhaka is—

  1. 20 minutes
  2. 30 minutes
  3. 40 minutes
  4. 50 minutes

Answer:  2. 30 minutes

Question 29. The antipode of the 180° longitude is located at—

  1. 180°E
  2. 180°W
  3. 0°
  4. 90°E

Answer: 3. 0°

Question 30. For every 1° difference in longitude, there is a time difference of—

  1. 4 minutes
  2.  5 minutes
  3. 6 minutes
  4. 10 minutes

Answer:  1. 4 minutes

Question 31. The difference in local time between Kolkata and Allahabad is—

  1. 20 minutes
  2. 22 minutes
  3. 24 minutes
  4. 26 minutes

Answer: 3. 24 minutes

Question 32. The linear distance between two lines of longitude at an interval of 1° at the Equator measures to—

  1. 110.3 km
  2. 111.3 km
  3. 113.3 km
  4. 114.3 km

Answer:  2. 111.3 km

Question 33. The angular value of the Prime Meridian is—

  1.  0°
  2. 231/2°
  3. 6634°
  4. 90°

Answer: 1. 0°

Question 34. The number of time zones in Russia is—

  1. 11
  2. 9
  3. 15
  4. 10

Answer:  1. 11

Question 35. The instrument used to determine the time at Greenwich is called the—

  1. Chronometer
  2. Anemometer
  3. Sextant
  4. Thermometer

Answer:  1. Chronometer

Question 36. The angle at which the International Date Line deviates near the Aleutian Islands is—

  1. 11°E
  2. 11°W
  3. 7°E
  4. 7°W

Answer:  4. 7°W

Question 37. The antipode of 4-5° N is located at—

  1. 180°
  2. 0°
  3. 45° S
  4. 45° W

Answer: 3. 45° S

Question 38. The line that helps to determine the longitude of a place is—

  1. Prime Meridian
  2. 180° meridian
  3. Equator
  4. None of the above

Answer: 1. Prime Meridian

Question 39. Highest value of the meridian of longitude is—

  1. 90°
  2. 100°
  3. 180°
  4. 360°

Answer:  3. 180°

Question 40. Number of the standard meridian in India is—

  1. One
  2. Two
  3. Three
  4. Four

Answer:  1. One

Question 41. On crossing the International Date Line from the eastern hemisphere to the western hemisphere, the time deducted will be—

  1. 24 hrs
  2. 48 hrs
  3. 12 hrs
  4. None of them

Answer: 1. 24 hrs

Question 42. Linear distance of 1° longitude at Poles is—

  1. 11.2 km
  2. 1.1 km
  3. 0.25 km
  4. 0 km

Answer:  4. 0 km

WBBSE Geography Class 9 Location Determination Question And Answers

Question 43. The clock time at midday is—

  1. 12 pm
  2. 12 am
  3. 12 noon
  4. None of the above

Answer: 3. 12 noon

Question 44. International Date Line passes through the middle of—

  1. Pacific Ocean
  2. Indian Ocean
  3. Atlantic Ocean
  4. Arctic Ocean

Answer: 1. Pacific Ocean

Question 45. Distance between two adjacent meridians is maximum at—

  1. Equatorial region
  2. Tropical region
  3. Sub-polar regions
  4. Polar region

Answer: 1. Equatorial region

Question 46. The location of a place on the Earth’s surface is determined with the help of—

  1. Parallels of latitude
  2. Meridians of longitude
  3. Parallels and meridians.
  4. Prime Meridian

Answer:  3. Parallels and Meridians.

Question 47. The standard time of India is calculated on the basis of longitude.

  1. 80°E
  2. 82°E
  3. 82°30′ E
  4. 88°30′ E

Answer: 3. 82°30′ E

Question 48. The most important line joining the North Pole and the South Pole is the—

  1. Equator
  2. Tropic of Cancer
  3. Polar Circle
  4. Prime Meridian

Answer: 4. Prime Meridian

WBBSE Class 9 Geography And Environment Chapter 2 Movements Of The Earth MCQs

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WBBSE Chapter 2 Movements Of The Earth Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. The rotational speed of the Earth at the Equator is

  1. 1600 km
  2. 650 km
  3. 1630 km
  4. 1670 km

Answer: 1. 1600 km

Read and Learn Also WBBSE Class 9 Geography And Environment Multiple Choice Questions

Question 2. The angle of inclination of the Earth’s axis towards the orbital plane is

  1. 23½º
  2. 30°
  3. 60°
  4. 66½º

Answer: 4. 66½º

Question 3. The Earth’s rotation causes

  1. Formation of tides
  2. Change of seasons
  3. Change of years
  4. Formation of days and nights

Answer: 1. formation of days and nights

WBBSE Class 9 Geography And Environment Chapter 2 Movements Of The Earth MCQs

Question 4. The longest day at the Equator is of

  1. 11 hours
  2. 12 hours
  3. 13 hours
  4. 12½ hours

Answer: 2. 12 hours

Question 5. Mercury completes one revolution around the Sun in

  1. 90 days
  2. 100 days
  3. 88 days
  4. 85 days

Answer: 3. 88 days

Question 6. At the Poles, the speed of rotation of the More Earth is

  1. 660 km/h
  2. 1536 km/h
  3. 1674 km/h
  4. 0 km/h

Answer: 4. 0 km/h

WBBSE Class 9 Geography Chapter 2 Movements Of The Earth MCQs

Question 7. About the Sun, the Earth is

  1. 1.3 million times smaller
  2. 1.2 million times smaller
  3. Almost half in size
  4. Almost the same in size

Answer: 1. 1.3 million times smaller

Question 8. The speed of rotation of the Earth in Kolkata is

  1. 1536 km/h
  2. 1674 km/h
  3. 0 km/h
  4. 666 km/h

Answer: 1. 1536 km/h

Question 9. The total number of motions of the Earth is

  1. One
  2. Two
  3. Three
  4. Four

Answer: 2. Two

Question 10. Mercury completes one rotation on its axis in

  1. 55 hours
  2. 58 hours
  3. 85 days 15 hours
  4. 59 days

Answer: 3. 85 days 15 hours

Question 11. The period of Neptune’s revolution is

  1. 165 years
  2. 3160 years
  3. 155 years
  4. 150 years

Answer: 1. 165 years

Question 12. The rotation of the Earth causes

  1. Formation of days and nights
  2. Variation in the length of days and nights
  3. Change of year
  4. Change of seasons

Answer: 1. Formation of days and nights

Question 13. The speed of rotation of the Earth is highest at

  1. 45° latitude
  2. The Equator
  3. Polar region
  4. Sub-polar region

Answer: 2. The Equator

Question 14. The length of the solar day than the sidereal day is-

  1. 3 minutes 52 seconds less
  2. 33 minutes 54 seconds more
  3. 3 minutes 56 seconds more
  4. 3 minutes 58 seconds More

Answer: 2. 33 minutes 56 seconds more

Question 15. If the Earth’s rotation stops suddenly, all objects will be scattered-

  1. Eastwards
  2. Eastwards
  3. Northwards
  4. Southwards

Answer: 1. Eastwards

Question 16. The date on which Earth is at Perihelion position is-

  1. 3 January
  2. 4 January
  3. 21 March
  4. 23 September

Answer:  1. 3 January

Question 17. The country called ‘the land of the midnight Sun’ is-

  1. Australia
  2. Norway
  3. Japan
  4. Sri Lanka

Answer: 2. Norway

Movements Of The Earth Class 9 WBBSE Multiple Choice Questions

Question 18. The Tropic of Cancer receives direct rays of the Sun on-

  1. 21 March
  2. 21 June
  3. 21 July
  4. 21 December

Answer: 2. 21 June

Question 19. The autumnal equinox occurs on-

  1. 23 June
  2. 23 August
  3. 23 September
  4. 23 November

Answer: 4. 23 September

Question 20. The Earth completes one revolution around the Sun in

  1. 364 days
  2. 360 days
  3. 365 days
  4. 367 days

Answer: 3. 365 days

Question 6. Summer in Antarctica starts in—

  1. June
  2. July
  3. December
  4. September

Answer: 3. December

Question 7. The aurora borealis can be seen at the—

  1. Equatorial region
  2. North polar region
  3. South polar region
  4. Middle latitudes

Answer: 2. North polar region

Question 8. The shape of the Earth’s orbit is—

  1. Circular
  2. Elliptical
  3. Triangular
  4. Semicircular

Answer: 2. Elliptical

Question 9. The Earth’s movement around the Sun is called—

  1. Apparent motion
  2. Rotation
  3. Revolution
  4. Daily motion

Answer: 3. Revolution

Question 10. The sun’s apparent northward movement ends on—

  1. 22 July
  2. 21 July
  3. 21 June
  4. 21 March

Answer: 3. 21 June

Question 11. The Earth experiences an equal duration of days and nights on—

  1. 21 March and 21 June
  2. 21 March and 23 September
  3. 22 July and 22 December
  4. 23 September and 4 July

Answer: 2. 21 March and 23 September

Question 12. The speed of the Earth’s revolution is about—

  1. 20 km/s
  2. 30 km/s
  3. 40 km/s
  4. 50 km/s

Answer: 2. 30 km/s

Question 13. Aphelion occurs on—

  1. 4 July
  2. 3 January
  3. 2 February
  4. 1 March

Answer: 1. 4 July

Question 14. At Perihelion, the distance between the Sun and the Earth is—

  1. 150 million km
  2. 140 million km
  3. 152 million km
  4. 147 million km

Answer: 4. 147 million km

Question 15. At Aphelion, the distance between the Sun and the Earth is—

  1. 150 million km
  2. 140 million km
  3. 152 million km
  4. 147 million km

Answer: 3. 152 million km

Question 16. Change of seasons does not occur in the—

  1. Equatorial region
  2. Tropical region
  3. Sub-tropical region
  4. Polar region

Answer: 1. Equatorial region

Question 17. The Sun appears larger in the northern hemisphere in—

  1. Summer
  2. Autumn
  3. Winter
  4. Spring

Answer: 3. Winter

Question 18. The longest night of the northern hemisphere occurs on—

  1. 21 March
  2. 23 September
  3. 21 July
  4. 22 December

Answer: 4. 22 December

Question 19. The longest day and the shortest night in the southern hemisphere occur on—

  1. 21 March
  2. 23 September
  3. 21 July
  4. 22 December

Answer: 4. 22 December

Question 20. The average distance of the Earth from the Sun is—

  1. 147 million km
  2. 150 million km
  3. 152 million km
  4. 160 million km

Answer: 2. 150 million km

Question 21. When the Earth is at perihelion, the northern hemisphere experiences—

  1. Summer
  2. Monsoon
  3. Autumn
  4. Winter

Answer: 4. Winter

Question 22. When there is autumn in the northern hemisphere, the season in the southern hemisphere is—

  1. Winter
  2. Summer
  3. Spring
  4. Autumn

Answer: 3. Spring

Question 23. The days and nights are equal in length throughout the year at—

  1. Equatorial region
  2. Regions around the Arctic Circle
  3. Regions around the Antarctic Circle
  4. Mid-latitude region

Answer: 1. Equatorial region

Question 24. The total number of days in a leap year is—

  1. 363 days
  2. 364 days
  3. 365 days
  4. 366 days

Answer: 4. 366 days

Movements of the Earth Multiple Choice Questions Class 9 WBBSE

Question 25. The angle of incidence of the Sunrays on the Tropic of Capricorn during the winter solstice is—

  1. 90°
  2. 66½°
  3. 47°
  4. 43°

Answer: 1. 90°

Question 26. Which of the following is not a leap year?

  1. 1600
  2. 2000
  3. 2100
  4. 2400

Answer: 3. 2100

WBBSE Class 9 Geography And Environment Chapter 1 Earth As A Planet MCQs

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Chapter 1 Earth As A Planet Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. The Earth’s’equatorial diameter is

  1. 12,712 km
  2. 12,745 km
  3. 12,757 km
  4. 12,500 km

Answer: 3. 12,757 km

Question 2. The Earth’s polar diameter is

  1. 12,400 km
  2. 12,714 km
  3. 12,700 km
  4. 12,720 km

Answer: 2. 12,714 km

Read and Learn Also WBBSE Class 9 Geography And Environment Multiple Choice Questions

Question 3. The Earth revolves around the Sun.” This was first stated by

  1. Galileo
  2. Copernicus
  3. Aryabhatta
  4. Varahamihir

Answer: 3 Aryabhatta

Question 4. The highest point on the surface of the Earth is

  1. Mount Everest
  2. Pamir Plateau
  3. Tibetan PJateau
  4. North Pole

Answer:1. Mount Everest

Question 5. The deepest known point on the Earth is

  1. Mariana Trench
  2. Sunda Trench
  3. St. Louis Trench
  4. South Pole

Answer: 1. Mariana Trench

Question 6. The difference between the Earth’s polar diameter and the equatorial diameter is

  1. 40 km
  2. 42 km
  3. 43 km
  4. 45 km

Answer: 3. 43 km

WBBSE Class 9 Geography And Environment Chapter 1 Earth As A Planet MCQs

Question 7. The Bedford Canal Experiment was carried out by

  1. Wallace
  2. Torricelli
  3. Foucault
  4. Galileo

Answer:1. Wallace

Question 8. The average circumference of the Earth is

  1. 40,400 km
  2. 40,075 km
  3. 40,500 km
  4. 40,200 km

Answer:2. 40,075 km

Question 9. In ancient times, people believed that the Earth was a

  1. Sphere
  2. An oblate spheroid
  3. Plane
  4. Square

Answer: 3. plane

Question 10. The ancient Mesopotamians believed that the Earth was

  1. Floating in space
  2. Floating on an ocean
  3. A single entity standing on its own
  4. Not floating anywhere

Answer: 2. floating on an ocean

Question 11. “The Earth is round.” This statement was first made by

  1. Plato
  2. Pythagoras
  3. Aristotle
  4. Strabo

Answer: 2. Pythagoras

Question 12. Pythagoras was a

  1. Greek philosopher
  2. Roman philosopher
  3. British philosopher
  4. Portuguese philosopher

Answer: 1. Greek philosopher

Question 13. The first empirical proof that the Earth is round was given by

  1. Pythagoras
  2. Magellan
  3. Columbus
  4. Aristotle

Answer: 2. Magellan

Question 14. An example of proof that the Earth is round is

  1. The view from the mast of a ship
  2. Travelling around the world on a ship
  3. Photographs were taken from space
  4. The view from the top of Mt. Everest

Answer: 3. Photographs taken from space

WBBSE Class 9 Geography Chapter 1 Earth As A Planet MCQs

Question 15. The person to calculate the Earth’s circumference on the basis of the difference in the angle of incidence of Sun rays was

  1. Strabo
  2. Aristotle
  3. Eratosthenes
  4. Plato

Answer: 3. Eratosthenes

Question 16. The Old Bedford River is in

  1. England
  2. France
  3. Germany
  4. Italy

Answer: 1. England

Question 17. The Earth can be called an oblate spheroid because

  1. The Earth’s surface is elevated by 15 m at the North Pole
  2. There is more water in the equatorial region
  3. The highest point on Earth is Mt. Everest
  4. The Poles are flattened and the equatorial region is bulging out

Answer: 2. there is more water in the equatorial region

Question 18. The Earth’s gravitational force is the greatest

  1. At the equatorial region
  2. In the ocean beds
  3. On mountain peaks
  4. At the Poles

Answer: 4. at the Poles

Question 19. The pendulum clock experiment was conducted by

  1. Pythagoras
  2. Eratosthenes
  3. Jean Richer
  4. Galileo

Answer: 3. Jean Richer

Question 20. The word ‘geoid’ means

  1. An oblate spheroid
  2. Perfect sphere
  3. Flattened
  4. Like the Earth

Answer:4. like the Earth

Question 21. One of the believers in the Earth-centric model of the universe was

  1. Copernicus
  2. Aristotle
  3. Bruno
  4. Brahe

Answer: 2. Aristotle

Question 22. The telescope was invented by

  1. Kepler
  2. Galileo
  3. Newton
  4. Halley

Answer: 2. Galileo

Question 23. If we move 111.3 kilometres from the Equator towards the Poles, the angle of incidence of the Sun’s rays will increase by

  1. 1° 30′
  2. 2° 30′
  3. 1°
  4. 1° 02′

Answer: 3. 1°

Question 24. The latitudinal coordinate of Paris is

  1. 26° 32′ N
  2. 47° N
  3. 49° N
  4. 75° 03′ N

Answer: 3. 49° N

Question 25. The Cayenne Islands are in

  1. North America
  2. South America
  3. Asia
  4. Austria

Answer: 2. South America

Question 26. The deepest point in the Mariana Trench has a depth of

  1. 10,053 m
  2. 11,035 m
  3. 11,350 m
  4. 10,994 m

Answer: 2. 11,035 m

Question 27. The Earth’s centrifugal force is greatest at the

  1. Equatorial region
  2. Tropics
  3. Polar regions
  4. Frigid zone

Answer: 2. tropics

Question 28. During a lunar eclipse, the shadow of the Earth on the Moon looks

  1. Straight
  2. Curved
  3. Circular
  4. Rectangular

Answer: 3. circular

Question 29. As we go higher up from the surface of the Earth, the line of horizon appears

  1. Shorter
  2. Longer
  3. Stays the same
  4. None of the above

Answer: 2. longer

MCQs On Earth As A Planet For WBBSE Class 9 Geography

Question 30. Eratosthenes was

  1. A Roman philosopher
  2. Greek philosopher
  3. An Egyptian philosopher
  4. An Indian philosopher

Answer: 2. Greek philosopher

Question 31. Real shape of the Earth is

  1. Spherical
  2. Flat
  3. An oblate spheroid
  4. Rectangular

Answer: 3. oblate spheroid

Question 32. Columbus was a tourist from

  1. France
  2. Japan
  3. Portugal
  4. Spain

Answer:4. Spain

Question 33. Branch of Mathematics in which the shape and size of the Earth are discussed, is known as

  1. Geodesy
  2. Geology
  3. Geography
  4. Geophysics

Answer:1. Geodesy

Question 34. Bedford Canal experiment was conducted in

  1. 1770
  2. 1870
  3. 1920
  4. 1750

Answer: 2. 1870

Question 35. World’s first astronaut was

  1. Yuri Gagarin
  2. Rakesh Sharma
  3. Neil Armstrong
  4. Michael Collins

Answer:1. Yuri Gagarin

Question 36. The world’s first woman astronaut was

  1. Koalpana Chaula
  2. Sunita Williams
  3. Valentina Tereshkova
  4. Christinach

Answer: 3. Valentina Tereshkova

Question 37. The angle of elevation of the Pole Star from the Equator is

  1. 0°
  2. 15°
  3. 60°
  4. 90°

Answer: 1. 0°

Question 38.”The Earth is a floating disc in water.”This statement was put forth by

  1. Thales
  2. Anaximander
  3. Ptolemy
  4. Hecataeus

Answer: 1. Thales

Question 39. Eratosthenes is the father of

  1. Geology
  2. Geography
  3. Geodesy
  4. Geophysics

Answer: 3. Geodesy

Question 40. The weight of any material on the Earth’s surface is maximum at the latitude of

  1. 0°
  2. 23
  3. 66
  4. 90°

Answer: 4. 90°

Practice MCQs For Earth As A Planet WBBSE Class 9 Geography

Question 41. The ‘Blue Planet’ is another name for

  1. Earth
  2. Venus
  3. Saturn
  4. Mars

Answer: 1. Earth

Question 42. The planet nearest to the Earth is

  1. Mercury
  2. Venus
  3. Mars
  4. Jupiter

Answer: 2. Venus

Question 43. The planet closest to the Sun is

  1. Mercury
  2. Pluto
  3. Venus
  4. Neptune

Answer: 1. Mercury

Question 44.”The Earth revolves around the Sun and on its own axis.” The first person to say this was

  1. Copernicus
  2. Aryabhatta
  3. Galileo
  4. Newton

Answer: 1. Copernicus

Question 45. The average distance of the Earth from the Sun is

  1. 140 million km
  2. 150 million km
  3. 160 million km
  4. 120 million km

Answer: 150 million km

Question 46. An example of a dwarf planet is

  1. Pluto
  2. Mercury
  3. Mars
  4. Neptune

Answer: Pluto

Question 47. The average radius of the Earth is

  1. 6,300 km
  2. 6,371 km
  3. 6,500 km
  4. 6,600 km

Answer: 2. 6,371 km

Question 48. In 1797, scientist Henry Cavendish determined the Earth’s

  1. Density
  2. Weight
  3. Circumference
  4. Diameter

Answer: 4. Diameter

Question 49. In terms of distance from, the Sun, the Earth is a planet.

  1. Second
  2. Third
  3. Fourth
  4. Fifth

Answer: 2. Third

Question 50. The Sun is a

  1. Planet
  2. Satellite
  3. Star
  4. Galaxy

Answer: 3. Star

Question 51. The Sun is heavier than the Earth by

  1. 0.35 million times
  2. 0.33 million times
  3. 0.32 million times
  4. 0.325 million times

Answer: 0.33 million times

Question 52. The number of Jovian planets in the solar system is

  1. 7
  2. 8
  3. 9
  4. 6

Answer: 2. 8

Question 53. The planet which has rings around it is

  1. Saturn
  2. Earth
  3. Mercury
  4. Venus

Answer: 1. Saturn

Question 54. The name of one satellite of Saturn is

  1. Moon
  2. Titan
  3. Haumea
  4. Phobos

Answer: 2. Titan

Question 55. The total number of components in a GPS is

  1. 3
  2. 6
  3. 4
  4. 5

Answer: 1. 3

Question 56. The shape of Mercury and Venus is

  1. A oblate spheroid
  2. Perfect sphere
  3. Geoid
  4. Flattened

Answer: 2. Perfect sphere

Question 57. To complete one Sun, Venus takes

  1. 365 days
  2. 24 hours
  3. 243 days
  4. 27 days

Answer: 3. 243 days

Question 58. To complete one revolution around the Earth, the Moon takes

  1. 36 days
  2. 20 days
  3. 27 days
  4. 27 days

Answer: 3. 27 days

Question 59. The length of the Earth’s orbit is

  1. 9.6 million km
  2. 11 million km
  3. 14.70 million km
  4. 15.20 million km

Answer: 1. 9.6 million km

Question 60. To determine the location of any place on Earth using GPS, the number of satellites launched in space by the USA is

  1. 23
  2. 24
  3. 25
  4. 31

Answer: 1. 23

Question 61. The largest planet in the solar system is

  1. Mercury Venus
  2. Venus
  3. Jupiter
  4. Mars

Answer: 3. Jupiter

Question 62. At present, the number of known planets in the solar system is

  1. 3
  2. 5
  3. 7
  4. 8

Answer: 4. 8

Question 61. At present, the number of dwarf planets in the solar system is

  1. 5
  2. 6
  3. 4
  4. 3

Answer: 1. 5

Question 62. Biosphere is extended above the surface upto

  1. 15 km
  2. 10 km
  3. 20 km
  4. 23 km

Answer: 1. 15 km